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BPK326 > Unit 1: Head and Neck > Flashcards

Unit 1: Head and Neck Flashcards

1
Q

CN I

A
  • olfactory nerve
  • sensory (sensation of smell)
  • goes through olfactory foramina of the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone; synapses on the olfactory bulb
  • receptors in the nasal cavity (olfactory epithelium)
  • transmitted directly through cortex (not thalamus)
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2
Q

Olfactory Bulb

A

bilateral to the crista galli, lies within the cribriform plate

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3
Q

CN II

A
  • optic nerve
  • sensory (detection of visual stimuli)
  • goes through the optic canal of the sphenoid bone then crosses at optic chiasm
  • receptors in the retina
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4
Q

Optic Chiasm

A

found at sella turcica of sphenoid bone

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5
Q

Optic Tract

A

continuation of visual sensory fibers from the optic chiasm to the thalamus (LGN)

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6
Q

Optic Radiations

A

projection fibers traveling from thalamus to V1 (primary visual cortex) in occipital lobe

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7
Q

CN III

A
  • oculomotor nerve
  • motor (control of muscles that move the eye in orbit, voluntary eye movements, constriction of the pupil, eye tracking)
  • originate in midbrain, exit the skull through superior orbital fissure of the sphenoid
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8
Q

CN IV

A
  • trochlear nerve
  • motor (down and medial eye movements)
  • originates in midbrain, exits the skull through superior orbital fissure of the sphenoid
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9
Q

CN V

A
  • trigeminal nerve
  • mixed
  • 3 branches: ophthalmic (V1), maxillary (V2), mandibular (V3)
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10
Q

CN V1

A
  • ophthalmic branch
  • sensory (sensory information from orbital structures and upper third of face)
  • passes through superior orbital fissure of the sphenoid
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11
Q

CN V2

A
  • maxillary branch
  • sensory (sensory information from the middle third of the face; innervates upper facial features such as lower eye lid, upper lip, etc.)
  • enters skull through the foramen rotundum of the sphenoid
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12
Q

CN V3

A
  • mandibular branch
  • mixed
  • sensory: sensation of lower third (teeth, lower gums, etc.)
  • motor: muscles of mastication
  • travels through foramen ovale of the sphenoid and mental foramen of the mandible
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13
Q

CN VI

A
  • abducens nerve
  • motor: eye movements (abduction of eye; up and laterally)
  • originates in pons, leaves the skull through the superior orbital fissure of the sphenoid
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14
Q

CN VII

A
  • facial nerve
  • mixed
  • sensory: taste
  • motor: facial expressions
  • enters through the internal acoustic meatus of the temporal bone; emerges from skull through the stylomastoid foramen
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15
Q

CN VIII

A
  • vestibulocochlear nerve
  • sensory: balance + equilibrium (receptors in semicircular canals) and hearing (receptors in cochlea)
  • exits skull at internal acoustic meatus
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16
Q

CN IX

A
  • glossopharyngeal nerve
  • mixed
  • sensory: information from posterior portion of the tongue + pain
  • motor: muscles that elevate the larynx and pharynx during swallowing
  • exits the skull via the jugular foramen
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17
Q

CN X

A
  • vagus nerve
  • mixed (largely involved in autonomic function)
  • sensory: innervation of skin on head and sensation of heart, etc.
  • motor: muscles for swallowing, digestive tract, heart, etc.
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18
Q

CN XI

A
  • accessory nerve
  • motor: movements of the head and neck; innervates the sternocleidomastoids and trapezius
  • exits the skull via the foramen magnum/jugular foramen
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19
Q

CN XII

A
  • hypoglossal nerve
  • motor: innervates intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue (speaking, swallowing, etc.)
  • exits the skull via the hypoglossal canal
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20
Q

how many bones does the neurocranium have?

A

6: 2 parietal bones, 2 temporal bones, frontal bone, occipital bone

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21
Q

how many bones does the viscerocranium have?

A

8:
- 2 centred on the midline: vomer, mandible
- 6 are bilateral: maxillae, inferior nasal conchae, palatine, zygomatic, lacrimal bones

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22
Q

what are the landmarks of the frontal bone?

A
  • nasal part
  • squamous part
  • orbital part
  • supraorbital margin/superciliary arch
  • supraorbital foramen
  • frontal sinus (prevents bones from drying out because of its mucosal lining)
  • anterior cranial fossa
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23
Q

what is the function of the supraorbital margin/superciliary arch?

A
  • forms the eyebrow ridge
  • contains the supraorbital foramen
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24
Q

what are the landmarks of the occipital bone?

A
  • external occipital protuberance
  • external occipital crest
  • superior nuchal lines
  • inferior nuchal lines
  • occipital condyles
  • condyloid (condylar) fossa
  • groove for transverse sinus
  • groove for superior sagittal sinus
  • internal occipital crest
  • posterior cranial fossa
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25
what are the foramina of the occipital bone?
- foramen magnum - hypoglossal canal
26
what is the function of the superior nuchal lines?
origin of the trapezius + occipitalis and insertion of the sternocleidomastoids
27
where does the flax cerebri attach?
groove for superior sagittal sinus of the occipital bone, the frontal crest of the frontal bone, and the crista galli of the ethmoid bone
28
where does the tentorium cerebelli attach?
groove for transverse sinus of the occipital bone
29
where does the flax cerebelli attach?
internal occipital crest of the occipital bone
30
what is the function of the occipital condyles?
attaches to the atlas
31
what is the function of the foramen magnum?
- entrance/exit of the vertebral arteries, which provide blood to the brain (cerebellum, posterior cortex, brainstem) and spine - entrance/exit of spinal cord - admits passage of the brainstem (medulla oblongata) and the accessory nerve (XI)
32
what is the function of the hypoglossal canal?
- pathway for the hypoglossal nerve (XII)
33
what are the landmarks of the sphenoid bone?
- greater wing - lesser wing - medial pterygoid plate - lateral pterygoid plate - body of sphenoid - sella turcica
34
what is the function of the lateral pterygoid plate?
origin of medial pterygoids (medial side) and lateral pterygoids (lateral side)
35
what are the holes/foramina of the sphenoid bone?
- foramen rotundum - foramen ovale - foramen spinosum - superior orbital fissure - optic canal
36
what is the function of the body of the sphenoid?
houses the sphenoidal sinuses
37
what is the function of the sella turcica?
contains the pituitary gland (also called the pituitary fossa)
38
what is the function of the foramen rotundum?
passage for the maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve (V2)
39
what is the function of the foramen ovale?
passage for the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve (V3)
40
what is the function of the superior orbital fissure?
passage of the oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV), ophthalmic branch of trigeminal (V1), and abducens (VI) cranial nerves
41
what is the function of the optic canal?
passage of the optic nerve (II)
42
what are the landmarks of the ethmoid bone?
- crista galli - cribriform plate - perpendicular plate - nasal conchae
43
what is the function of the crista galli?
attachment point for flax cerebri
44
what is the function of the cribriform plate?
passage for olfactory nerves that turn into CN I at the olfactory bulb
45
what is the function of the perpendicular plate?
constitutes part of the nasal septum
46
what is the function of the nasal conchae?
increase surface area of the nasal cavities for warming and humidification of air passing into the lungs
47
what are the landmarks of the temporal bone?
- squamous part - petrous part - mastoid process - styloid process - mandibular fossa - zygomatic process - middle cranial fossa
48
what are the holes/foramina of the temporal bone?
- external acoustic meatus - foramen lacerum - carotid canal - jugular foramen - stylomastoid foramen - internal acoustic meatus
49
what is the function of the mastoid process?
insertion of the sternocleidomastoid and filled with air cells to equalize pressure in the middle ear
50
what is the function of the styloid process?
attachment point for stylohyoid
51
what is the function of the external acoustic meatus?
tube connecting inner and outer ear
51
what is the function of the foramen lacerum (and carotid canal)?
passage for the internal carotid artery
52
what is the function of the jugular foramen?
passage for the glossopharyngeal, vagus (X), and accessory (XI) nerves + internal jugular vein
53
what is the function of the stylomastoid foramen?
passage for the facial nerve (VII)
54
what is the function of the internal acoustic meatus?
passage for the facial nerve (VII) and the vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)
55
what suture separates the frontal bone from the parietal bone?
coronal suture
56
what suture separates the bilaterally paired parietal bones?
sagittal suture
57
what suture separates the parietal bones from the occipital bone?
lambdoid suture
58
what is the intersection between the coronal and sagittal sutures called?
bregma
59
what is the junction of the lambdoid and sagittal sutures called?
lambda
60
what are the landmarks of the mandible?
- body - angle - ramus - coronoid process (anterior) - condyle (head/condyloid process) (posterior) - alveolar part
61
what is the function of the angle?
insertion of the medial pterygoid
62
what is the function of the ramus?
insertion of the medial pterygoid and masseter
63
what is the function of the coronoid process?
insertion of the temporalis
64
what is the function of the condyle (head/condyloid process) ?
insertion of the lateral pterygoid
65
what is the function of the alveolar part of the mandible?
origin of the buccinator and articulates with teeth for support
66
what are the foramina of the mandible and their functions?
- mandibular foramen - mental foramen - both are passages for the trigeminal nerve (V)
67
what are the landmarks of the maxillae?
- frontal process - body - zygomatic process - alveolar process - maxillary sinus - palatine process
68
what is the function of the frontal process of the maxilla?
- origin of the orbicularis oculi - origin of the medial palpebral ligament
69
what is the function of the alveolar process of the maxilla?
houses teeth
70
what is the function of the palatine process?
forms the hard palate
71
what are the maxillae joined together by?
intermaxillary suture
72
what is the function of the prefrontal cortex?
executive function
73
what runs through the sylvian fissure?
middle cerebral artery
74
what is the precentral gyrus also known as?
primary motor cortex
75
what is the postcentral gyrus also known as?
primary somatosensory cortex
76
how are the precentral/postcentral gyri organized and what are their differences?
- medial = lower limb and lower extremities - lateral = upper limb and face - primary somatosensory cortex contains genital sensory information
77
what divides the parietal lobes from the occipital lobe?
parieto-occipital sulcus
78
what is the lateral parietooccipital line?
the imaginary line that connects the parieto-occipital sulcus and the pre-occipital notch, separating the lobes
79
where is Broca's area located?
inferior portion of the frontal lobe
80
where is Wernicke's area located?
inferior parietal lobe/posterior temporal lobe
81
what is the cingulate gyrus?
limbic lobe
82
what is the limbic lobe's function and its structures?
- crucial role in emotional processing, memory formation, and regulation of basic instincts and drives such as hunger, thirst, and sexual behavior - includes the amygdala, hippocampus, hypothalamus, thalamus
83
what is the calcarine sulcus?
location of the primary visual cortex
84
how is the visual field organized on the calcarine sulcus?
- superior to sulcus represents inferior visual field
85
what is the paracentral lobule?
medial extension of the precentral and postcentral gyri
86
what are the structures of the brainstem?
- midbrain - pons - medulla oblongata - cerebellum
87
what is the function of the midbrain?
relays sensory and motor information between higher brain centres and spinal cord
88
what is the function of the pons?
bridge between the cerebellum and the rest of the brain + relaying information from cortex to cerebellum, resulting in coordinated movement
89
what is the function of the medulla oblongata?
- autonomic centre (heart rate, breathing, etc.)
90
what is the function of the cerebellum?
balance and smooth, coordinated movement
91
what are the 3 white matter tracts discussed?
- corona radiata - internal capsule - corpus callosum
92
what are the types of communication fibers?
- association (within hemisphere) - commissural (between hemispheres) - projection (lower to higher brain centres)
93
what is the function of the corona radiata?
projection fibers carrying sensory and motor information to and from the brain
94
what is the function of the internal capsule?
couples cerebral cortex to deeper structures of the brain + divides thalamus and basal ganglia
95
what is the function of the corpus callosum?
commissural fibers connecting the hemispheres
96
what is the basal ganglia composed of?
- caudate nucleus (C-shaped) - lentiform nucleus (bean)
97
what is the lentiform nucleus composed of?
- putamen - globus pallidus (medial to putamen)
98
what is the role of the thalamus?
relay station and integrative hub for sensory information; gateway for sensory modalities and their respective cerebral areas
99
what is the role of the basal ganglia (nuclei)?
regulation of voluntary motor control + suppression of involuntary movements + reward centre
100
what arteries make up anterior circulation?
- common carotid arteries - internal carotid arteries - external carotid arteries - middle cerebral arteries - anterior cerebral arteries
101
what are characteristics of the common carotid arteries?
- left CC directly bifurcates into its divisions after aortic arch - right CC is first the brachiocephalic trunk off the aortic arch which divides into the subclavian artery and the right CC, then bifurcates into internal and external divisions
102
what does the internal carotid pass through to enter the skull and what does it branch into?
- carotid canal of the petrous portion of the temporal bone - branches into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries
103
how do the external carotid arteries project?
laterally
104
what do the middle cerebral arteries supply?
the lateral surface and temporal poles of the brain - runs along the sylvian fissure
105
what do the anterior cerebral arteries supply?
medial and superior surfaces and frontal pole of the brain
106
what connects the anterior cerebral arteries?
anterior communicating artery
107
what arteries make up posterior circulation?
- posterior communicating arteries - vertebral arteries - posterior inferior cerebellar arteries (PICA) - basilar artery - anterior inferior cerebellar arteries - pontine arteries - superior cerebellar arteries - posterior cerebral arteries
108
what does the posterior communicating artery do?
connects the internal carotid artery to the posterior cerebral artery
109
where do the vertebral arteries originate?
subclavian arteries
110
how do the vertebral arteries enter the skull?
through the foramen magnum
111
what do the posterior inferior cerebellar arteries (PICAs) supply?
medulla oblongata and the inferior aspect of the cerebellum
112
what does the basilar artery supply?
carries blood to the back of the brain (brainstem, cerebellum, occipital lobe)
113
what do the anterior inferior cerebellar arteries (AICAs) supply?
anterior portion of the cerebellum
114
what do the pontine arteries supply?
pons
115
what do the superior cerebellar arteries supply?
superior portion of the cerebellum
116
what do the posterior cerebral arteries supply?
inferior surface, occipital lobe
117
what are the 4 dural folds?
main: - falx cerebri - tentorium cerebelli smaller: - falx cerebelli - sellar diaphragm
118
what is the function of the falx cerebri?
divides the left and right hemispheres (located in the longitudinal cerebral fissure between the hemispheres)
119
what is the function of the tentorium cerebelli?
separates the brainstem and cerebellum from the occipital lobes
120
what is the function of the falx cerebelli?
partially divides the cerebellar hemispheres
121
what is the function of the sellar diaphragm?
covers the pituitary gland
122
what makes up the venous drainage system?
- superior sagittal sinus - inferior sagittal sinus - straight sinus - confluence of sinuses - transverse sinuses - sigmoid sinuses - internal jugular veins
123
wheres does the superior sagittal sinus lie and where does it drain?
- begins at the crista galli and ends at the confluence of sinuses - located inside the flax cerebri - drains into the right transverse sinus at the confluence of sinuses
124
where does the absorption of CSF primarily begin?
superior sagittal sinus
125
where does the inferior sagittal sinus drain?
into the straight sinus, then the confluence of sinuses, then the left transverse sinus
126
how is the straight sinus formed?
joining of the inferior sagittal sinus and the great cerebral vein
127
what is the confluence of sinuses?
collective reservoir of all sinuses
128
what is the dominant side for drainage of the confluence of sinuses?
left side
129
where does the internal jugular vein drain and which foramen does it pass through?
projects through the jugular foramen and drains into the brachiocephalic vein (then vena cava)
130
what are the components of the ventricular system?
- lateral ventricles - interventricular foramina - third ventricle - cerebral aquaduct - fourth ventricle - central canal
131
what connects the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle?
interventricular foramina
132
what would happen if there was a blockage at the cerebral aquaduct?
CSF would build up in the third ventricle since it is directly above the cerebral aquaduct. This would cause swelling of the third ventricle, known as hydrocephalus, putting pressure on the thalami, since the third ventricle is sandwiched between them. This can cause deficits in relaying sensory information to the cerebral cortex, resulting in loss of sensation of multiple modalities, excluding smell.
133
where does the fourth ventricle lie and what does it drain into?
- posterior to the pons and anterior to the cerebellum - CSF drains into the subarachnoid space through apertures
134
how does CSF drain into the sinuses?
arachnoid granulations/villi
135
where is CSF made?
choroid plexus
136
what is endochondral ossification and when does it occur?
- process of bone development from hyaline cartilage - occurs from 6 weeks of embryonic development to 25 years of age
137
why is cartilage hard to heal or regrow?
cartilage is avascular and degenerates as bone formation progresses
138
how are joints classified (i.e. what are the 2 major systems of classification)
- histological - functional
139
what is histological classification and what types fall under this category?
based on the dominant type of connective tissue: fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial
140
what is functional classification and what types full under this category?
based on the amount of movement they permit: - synarthroses: immovable - amphiarthroses: slightly moveable - diarthroses: freely moveable
141
how do the 2 classification schemes of joints relate?
- synarthroses are fibrous joints - amphiarthroses are cartilaginous joints - diarthroses are synovial joints
142
what are synarthroses (fibrous) joints?
bones connected by fibrous tissue that permits little or no movement
143
what are the 3 main types of fibrous joints?
- sutures of the skull - syndesmoses - gomphoses
144
how are the sutures of the skull connected?
by short, dense fibres
145
how do syndesmoses move relative to the sutures of the skull?
they permit more movement based on the length of the fibres, which are generally longer
146
where are gomphoses found?
between the teeth and their sockets
147
how is the tooth connected to its socket?
connective tissue called the periodontal ligament
148
what are amphiarthroses (cartilaginous) joints?
bones connected by cartilage, sometimes permitting limited movement/flexibility
149
what are the types of amphiarthroses joints?
- synchondroses - symphyses - primary/temporary amphiarthroses - secondary/permanent amphiarthroses
150
what is synchondroses?
bones are united by hyaline cartilage
151
what is symphyses?
bones are united by fibrocartilage (collagen fibres resist tension)
152
what is primary/temporary amphiarthroses?
cartilage is replaced by bone during development, producing a synostosis (ex. epiphyseal plate)
153
what is secondary/permanent amphiarthroses?
cartilaginous joint persists through adult life, permitting some movement throughout childhood (ex. pubic symphysis)
154
what are diarthroses (synovial) joints?
joints specialized for mobility: enclosed by a joint capsule, lined by a serous membrane that produced synovial fluid
155
what is arthroscopy (keyhole surgery)?
minimally invasive surgical procedure on a joint; arthroscope is a camera used to view the inside of a joint
156
what is an arthoplasty?
replacement of a joint
157
where does muscle injury typically occur?
at the myotendinous junction/complex (MTJ): the transition from muscle to tendon to bone
158
how is muscle damage usually shown on imaging?
as bright spots due to edema
159
what makes up the PNS?
cranial nerves, peripheral nerves, and ganglia
160
what is a plexus?
a collection of peripheral nerves functionally related
161
where is the cervical plexus?
neck and throat
162
where is the brachial plexus?
pectoral girdle and upper limb
163
where is the lumbar plexus?
anterior hips and thigh
164
where is the sacral plexus?
glutes, posterior thigh, leg
165
where in the spinal cord are sensory neurons located?
dorsal root is part of the ascending tract, including sensory neurons
166
where in the spinal cord are motor neurons located?
ventral root (descending tract)
167
what is hilton's law?
the nerve supplying the muscles extending across and acting at a given joint not only supplies the muscle, but also innervates the joint capsule and the skin overlying the muscle, and distal to the muscle
168
what is paralysis?
loss of function in a muscle OR loss of a movement
169
what is weakness or paresis?
partial loss of function in a muscle OR partial loss of movement
170
what is numbness?
loss of sensation
171
what is paresthesia?
partial loss of sensation
172
what is the principle of x-ray imaging?
variations in tissue density
173
what is the order of tissue density from most to least dense?
metal/contrast agents > bone > soft tissue > fat > air
174
how do dense tissues appear on x-rays?
bright
175
what is opacity?
the tendency for a structure to block x-rays from reaching the detector; hyperdense
176
what is lucency?
tendency for a structure to allow x-rays to pass through and reach the scanner; hypodense
177
what is isodense?
when the brightness is about the same
178
what are characteristics of an x-ray?
- fast and inexpensive - limited soft-tissue resolution, but can be improved with contrast agents
179
what is CT?
similar to x-rays, but captures many measurements of density across a digital slice of a patient (rather than taking a single view)
180
what are characteristics of a CT?
- much better for imaging soft tissue over x-ray - faster and inexpensive to MRI - can be performed in people with metal implants (unlike MRI) - less anatomical resolution than MRI
181
what is the order of density for CTs, from hyperdense to hypodense?
bone > blood > grey matter > white matter > CSF > water > fat > air
182
what is a CT angiogram?
common clinical test in which radio-opaque contrast is introduced into the vasculature; could be oral or rectal injection
183
what is MRI?
tissue contrast is based on proton behaviour (water and fat content); based on intensity
184
what are characteristics of MRI?
- better anatomical resolution - slow and expensive - dangerous for people with metal in bodies
185
how can contrast-based imaging be performed in MRI?
using gadolinium, which is paramagnetic
186
what is anatomical position?
the standard reference in which all positions, planes, and movements are described: - erect postures - hands at side - palms and feet facing forward - gaze forward
187
what are the different variants of anatomical position?
- supine: lying on back (face up) - prone: lying on the front
188
what is the sagittal/longitudinal plane?
divides the body into left and right sections
189
what is the (mid)sagittal of medial (median) plane?
divides the body into equal left and right halves
190
what is the parasagittal plane?
divides the body into unequal left and right halves
191
what is the frontal/coronal plane?
divides the body into front and back halves
192
what is the transverse/horizontal/axial plane?
divides the body into top and bottom halves?
193
what are the 3 axes?
- sagittal (anterior-posterior) axis - frontal (medial-lateral) axis - longitudinal (superior-inferior) axis
194
how is direction expressed above the brainstem?
- rostral = anterior - caudal = posterior - dorsal = superior - ventral = inferior
195
how is direction expressed below the brainstem?
- rostral = superior - caudal = inferior - dorsal = posterior - ventral = anterior
196
what is flexion vs extension?
- flexion = movement that reduces the joint angle - extension = movement that increase the joint angle
197
what axis does flexion of the forearm occur in?
mediolateral (frontal) axis
198
what is abduction vs adduction?
- abduction: movement away from the midline - adduction: movement toward the midline
199
what is medial (internal) rotation vs lateral (external) rotation?
- medial = rotation of the anterior surface toward the midline - lateral = rotation of the anterior surface away from the midline
200
what part of the body does retrusion/protrusion refer to?
jaw
201
what part of the body does protraction/retraction refer to?
scapula
202
what is abduction of the thumb?
moving thumb out of the plane of the hand
203
what is opposition of the thumb?
opposing other digits with the thumb
204
what is dorsiflexion vs plantarflexion?
occurs at the anke joint; moving foot up or down
205
what is inversion (supination) vs eversion (pronation)?
occurs at foot; pressure on outer foot vs inner foot
206
what age to cranial sutures fuse (on average)?
24 years
207
what is a point of vulnerability on the skull?
- pterion: junction of temporal, zygomatic, frontal, and parietal bones - very thin, overlies a branch of the middle meningeal artery
208
how are skull bones formed?
intramembranous ossification: direct production of bone from mesenchyme (precursor cells)
209
what is the diploe?
spongy bone between 2 layers of compact bone; can be seen sandwiched between external and internal tables of compact bone on x-ray
210
what are the paranasal sinuses?
anatomically continuous with the nasal cavity for the purposes of: - reducing the weight of the skull - humidifying and heating inhaled air - increasing the resonance of speech - serving as a "crumple zone" to protect vital structures in the event of facial trauma
211
what are the features of the neonate skull?
- large cranium, relatively small face - prominent fontanelles (spaces between skull bones) - persistent mandibular division
212
where are the anterior and posterior fontanelles located and when do they close?
- anterior fontanelle: on bregma; closes at 18-24 months - posterior fontanelle: on lambda; closes at 2-3 months
213
what can sunken fontanelles indicate?
inadequate feeding
214
what can elevated fontanelles suggest?
intracranial pressure build up
215
what is craniosynostosis?
premature suture ossification: when skull growth is restricted in one direction and attempts to compensate in another
216
what is metopic craniosynostosis?
premature fusion of the metopic suture; compensates by enlarged temporal lobes (expanding mediolaterally)
217
what is sagittal craniosynostosis?
premature fusion of the sagittal suture; compensates by expanding rostrocaudally
218
what is unicoronal craniosynostosis?
premature fusion of one coronal suture; compensates by enlarged other side of the brain (posterior portions and other frontal lobe)
219
what is lambdoid craniosynostosis?
premature fusion of one of the lamboid sutures; compensates by enlarged other side of the brain (anterior portions and other temporal lobe)
220
what is endoscopic trans-sphenoidal surgery?
used to remove pituitary tumours less invasively
221
what is commissure vs decussation?
- commissure: tract that crosses almost at a single rostral-caudal level - decussation: tract that crosses obliquely
222
what is the corticospinal tract?
governs much of the voluntary control of musculature of the body
223
when does the corticospinal tract cross the midline?
in the medullary pyramids
224
what is an upper motor neuron lesion (UMNL) and what side is the deficit on?
damage to the primary motor cortex; contralateral side
225
what is a lower motor neuron lesion (LMNL) and what side is the deficit on?
damage to the spinal nerve; ipsilateral side
226
what side does deviation of the tongue occur?
the weaker side
227
how does sensory input from the face and head enter the brain?
from the sensory cranial nerves and join the tracts
228
how is information about fine touch and proprioception from the face transmitted to the cortex?
through the medial leminiscus
229
how is information about pain and temperature from the face transmitted to the cortex?
through the spinothalamic tract
230
what are the leptomeninges?
pia mater and arachnoid mater
231
where is the cerebral vasculature?
in the arachnoid mater
232
what portion of the skull does the tentorium cerebelli cover?
posterior cranial fossa
233
how much does each artery that supplies the brain contribute?
internal carotid = 80% vertebral arteries = 20%
234
what stroke is the most common?
distal MCA stroke
235
what is an ischemic stroke?
a clot blocking blood flow to an area of the brain; time window in which clot can be unblocked
236
what is a hemorrhagic stroke?
bleeding inside or around brain tissue usually caused by bursting of a blood vessel
237
where does the CSF go after the fourth ventricle?
it is released through lateral apertures into 1) the spinal cord and 2) the subarachnoid space
238
where are cerebral arteries located?
subarachnoid space
239
where are meningeal arteries located?
between skull and dura, supplying meninges
240
what is the corticospinal tract?
- coordinates fine movements (ex. distal extremities) - governs motor control of the body - originates in the primary motor cortex - descends through the internal capsule - enters the brainstem via cerebral peduncles (stalks of white matter connecting cerebrum to brainstem) - crosses (mostly) in the caudal medulla
241
what is the corticobulbar tract?
- governs motor control of the head - originates in the primary motor cortex - descends through the internal capsule - enters brainstem via cerebral peduncles - exits to synapse on cranial nerve nuclei (LMNs) in the brainstem
242
axons from the corticobulbar tract ...
branch away from the corticospinal tract to synapse in cranial nerve nuclei
243
what kind of deficits do cortical injuries produce?
contralateral
244
what kind of deficits do cranial nerve injuries produce?
ipsilateral
245
what kind of innervation does the upper half of the face have?
bilateral innervation
246
what deficit would a supranuclear lesion of the face area lead to?
paralysis in right lower half of face, normal/weakness in upper half
247
what deficit would a lesion in the right facial nerve lead to?
paralysis of upper and lower half of face
248
what does the dorsal column-medial meniscus system mediate?
fine touch and proprioception
249
what does the spinothalamic tract mediate?
pain and temperature
250
what are the muscles of the forehead and eyes?
- frontalis - corrugator supercilli - procerus - nasalis - orbicularis occuli
251
what connects the frontalis and the occipitalis?
epicranial aponeurosis
252
what is the frontalis?
- anterior scalp - origin: galea aponeurotica (hairline area) - insertion: orbicularis occuli - function: raises eyebrows (surprised), wrinkles forehead
253
what is the corrugator supercilli?
- posterior to superior portions of the orbicularis occuli (deep to frontalis) - origin: medial end of superciliary arch - insertion: deep surface of the skin of middle orbital arch - function: draws eyebrows together (vertical wrinkes)
254
what is the procerus?
- vertical muscle on nose bridge - origin: lower part of nasal bone - insertion: skin over lower part of forehead between eyebrows (superficial to frontalis) - function: pulls eyebrows down inferiorly
255
what is the nasalis?
- superficial to procerus; deep to muscles above/around mouth - origin: maxilla - insertion: nasal bone - function: transverse portion compresses nostrils, alar portion flares nostrils
256
what is the orbicularis occuli?
- superficial - function: closes the eyelids (palpebral part: gently closes eyes such as sleeping, blinking + arises from medial palpebral ligament; orbital part: attach to maxillary and frontal bones, forcefully closes eyes for squinting or winking)
257
what are the muscles above and around the mouth?
- zygomatic major - zygomatic minor - levator anguli oris - levator labii superioris - orbicular oris - risorius - buccanator
258
what is the zygomaticus major?
- origin: zygomatic bone - insertion: angle of the mouth - function: elevates the upper lip (pulls angle of the mouth upwards)
259
what is the zygomaticus minor?
- superior to major - origin: zygomatic bone - insertion: skin of the upper lip - function: elevates the upper lip
260
what is the levator anguli oris?
- deep to other elevation muscles - origin: maxilla - insertion: angle of the mouth - function: elevating angle of the mouth
261
what is the levator labii superioris?
- origin: lateral aspect of the nose - insertion: upper lip - function: dilates the mouth by raising the upper lip
262
what is the orbicularis oris?
- superficial to surrounding muscles - function: protrudes and compresses lips, controls size of the oral fissure
263
what is the risorius?
- superficial - origin: lateral cheek - insertion: corner of the mouth - function: pulls corners of the mouth laterally
264
what is the buccinator?
- deep to surrounding muscles - connected by the alveolar processes of the maxilla and mandible - function: prevents cheeks from being bit during chewing, tightens the cheek
265
what are the muscles below the mouth?
- depressor anguli oris - depressor labii inferioris - mentalis - platysma
266
what is the depressor anguli oris?
- superficial to surrounding muscles - origin: mental tubercle of mandible - insertion: corner of mouth (lower lip) - function: depresses the corners of the mouth
267
what is the depressor labii inferioris?
- deep to depressor anguli oris, superficial to mentalis - origin: oblique line of mandible - insertion: lower lip -function: depresses lip inferolaterally
268
what is the mentalis?
- deepest muscle below the mouth - origin: bottom of mandible - insertion: lower lip - function: active when pouting
269
what is the platysma?
- most superficial muscle of neck - function: depresses the mandible and pulls corners of the mouth caudally (grimacing)
270
what are the muscles of mastication?
- temporalis - masseter - pterygoids
271
what is the temporalis?
- origin: temporal fossa - insertion: coronoid process of mandible - function: protrusion and retrusion of the mandible
272
what innervates the muscles of mastication?
the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve (V3)
273
what is the masseter?
- superficial to surrounding muscles - origin: zygomatic arch - insertion: ramus - function: elevates the mandible, moves the mandible forward
274
what is the lateral pterygoid?
- origin: lateral side of lateral pterygoid plate - insertion: temporomandibular joint (condyle of mandible) - function: protracting mandible bilaterally
275
what is the medial pterygoid?
- origin: medial side of lateral pterygoid - insertion: ramus of mandible - function: elevates the mandible (closes mouth)
276
what are the muscles of the neck?
- scalenes - sternocleidomastoids - superior portion of the trapezius - levator scapulae
277
what are the scalenes?
- divided into anterior, middle, and posterior - innervated by the cervical and brachial plexuses - deeper than sternocleidomastoid - origin: anterior on c3-c6, middle on c3-c7, posterior on c5-c7 - insertion: anterior. and middle on 1st rib, posterior on 2nd rib - function: inspiration, lateral flexion, lateral rotation
278
what are the sternocleidomastoids?
- superficial to scalenes - origin: sternal head at sternum, clavicular head at clavicle - insertion: mastoid process of temporal bone and superior nuchal line of occipital bone - function: laterally flex the head and contralaterally rotate the head - innervated by CN XI
279
what is the superior portion of the trapezius?
- innervated by CN XI - origin: external occipital protuberance and superior nuchal line of occipital bone - insertion: scapula and clavicle - function: elevation of scapula, lateral flexion, dorsiflexion of head, rotation of scapula
280
what is the levator scapulae?
- deep to trapezius - origin: c1-c4 - insertion: medial border of scapula - function: elevation of scapula, rotation of scapula
281
what muscles are involved in smiling?
- depressor anguli oris - zygomaticus major - zygomaticus minor - risorius - levator labii superioris
282
what muscles are involved in frowing?
- corrugator supercilli - depressor anguli oris - depressor labii inferioris

BPK326 (5 decks)

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