Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Microbiology Final > Unit 4 - part 7 Viruses of medical importance: Vaccine-preventable viral disease (VPVD) > Flashcards

Unit 4 - part 7 Viruses of medical importance: Vaccine-preventable viral disease (VPVD) Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

what is the causitive agent of poliomyelitis

A

poliovirus types 1, 2, and 3 - all 3 can cause paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what type of virus is the poliovirus

A

small ss RNA non-enveloped viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what family is the polio virus in

A

picornaviridae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the major reservoirs for polio

A

humans especially children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the modes of transmission for polio

A

PTP via feacl-oral route
contact with throat secretions
rarely spread by contaminated vehicles or formites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the Ro value for polio

A

5-7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the incubation period for polio

A

7-14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the period of communicability for polio

A

as long as the virus is excreted

1 week in the throat, 3 weeks in feces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

4 phases of poliomyelitis pathogeneis

A

ailmentary phase
lymphatic phase
viremic phase
neurologic phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what occurs in the ailmentary phase of polio

A
  1. virus replicates in the oropharyngeal and intestinal mucosa
  2. spreads to tonsils and multiplies in peyer’s patches, cervical and mesenteric nodes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what occurs in the lymphatic phase of polio

A

virus is absorbed into the bloodstream and spreads to the internal organs and lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the two options in the viremic phase of polio

A
  1. no further of virus, pt. is asymptomatic or mild febrile

2. virus spreads to spianl cord and brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

if polio spreads to the spinal cord and brain what stage of pathogenesis occurs

A

neurologic phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what occurs in the neurologic phase

A

paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are the 4 risk factors for polio

A
  1. living in the same house with an infected person
  2. unvaccinated and inadequately vaccinated people
  3. immunocompromised
  4. poor sanitation and hygeine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what does it mean when a disease has been eradicated

A

completely gone from earth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what does it mean when a disease is eliminated

A

gone at country level or continent level for at least 3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the S & S of polio

A 
sore throat and vomiting
fever and headache
fatigue and muscle pain
stiffness of neck limbs and back
photophobia
flaccid and asymmetric paralysis
paralysis of respiratory muscles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are common clinical features and complications of polio

A

quadrapeligic patient
paralysis
crawling
crouching gait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Polio vaccine used in canada is effective agaisnt what types of polio and what is it called

A 
IPV (inactivated polio vaccine)
all 3 (trivalent)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what 3 countries is polio still present in

A

afganistan
nigeria
pakistan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is AFM

A

acute flaccid myelitis
mostly seen in children
poliomyelitis-like symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the causative agent for the influenza virus

A

types A and B viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what type genome does the influenza virus have

A

ss RNA enveloped virus with segmented genome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what family is the influenza virus from

A

orhtomyxoviridae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the major resevoir for influenza

A

aquatic birds but also circulate in among other animals such as pigs
humans are a major reservoir for 3 subtypes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are the main modes of transmission for influenza

A

droplet and contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the Ro value for influenza

A

1.27-1.8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the incubation period for the flu

A

average 2 days

1-4 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the POC of the flu

A

day before symptom onset until about 4 days after (7-10 days or longer for children)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are complications for inluenza

A

pneumonia
febrile seizure
hospitalizations
death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

4 steps of parthogenesis of the flu

A
  1. aerosol incubation of virus
  2. replication in respiratory tract
  3. desquamation of mucus-secreting ciliated cells
  4. influenza syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

5 risk factors for the flu

A 
age
immunocompromised
chronic illness
pregnancy
obesity (BMI >40)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the causative agent for measles

A

measles virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what type of genetic make up is the measles virus

A

ss RNA enveloped virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what type of spikes does the mealses virus have

A

H spikes - different from those of the influenza virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the major reservoir for measles

A

humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the major mode of transmission for measles

A

PTP via airborne, droples, nasal or throat secrtions or contact with fomites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is the Ro value for measles

A

12-18 one of the most contagious disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the IP for measles

A

14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the POC for measles

A

usually 4 days before and after rash appears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what are S & S for measles

A 
high fever
cough 
runny nose
conjunctivitis 
kopliks spots
maculopapular rash
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what does a maculopapular rash look like

A

small raised bumps may appear on top of the flat red spots - on face, neck, trunk, arms, legs and feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what are the 4 risk factors for measles

A

lack or incomplete vaccination
international travel
vitamin A deficiency
immunocompromised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is the measles vaccine commonly offered with

A

measles mumps and rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is the measles vaccine made up of

A

attenuated (weakened) live viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what does attenuation mean

A

a process to make the live viruses non-pathogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is the causative agent of mumps

A

mumps virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

true or false: measles and mumps are both part of the same family paramyxoviridae

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is the major reservoir of mumps

A

humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is the mode of transmission of mumps

A

droplet spread and direct contact with saliva of infected persons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is the Ro value for mumps

A

4-7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is the incubation period for mumps

A

16-18 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is the POC for mumps

A

7 days before the onset of parotitis to 9 days afterwords

55
Q

what are the S&S of mumps

A 
fever
headache
muscle aches
fatigue
parotitis
56
Q

what is parotitis (as seen in mumps)

A

swollen and tender salivary glands under the ears on one or both sides

57
Q

what are 4 complications of mumps

A

orchitis
oophoritis
meningitis and encephalitis
pancreatitis

58
Q

what is orchitis (seen in mumps)

A

swelling of testes in 20-30% of post pubertal males (rarely causing infertility)

59
Q

what is oophoritis (seen in mumps)

A

swollen ovaries, seen in about 5% of post-pubertal females

60
Q

what is rubella commonly referred to as

A

german measles

61
Q

what is the causative agent for rubella

A

rubella virus

62
Q

what type of virus is rubella

A

ss RNA eveloped virus

63
Q

what family is rubella in

A

togaviridae

64
Q

what is the MR for rubella

A

humans

65
Q

what is the MT for measles

A

PTP via droplet spread and direct contact with nasopharyngeal secreiona

66
Q

what is the Ro value for measles

A

6-7

67
Q

what is the Ip for rubella

A

14-17 days

68
Q

whats the POC for rubella

A

7 days before the onset of rash to 4 days or longer afterwards

69
Q

what are the S&S of rubella

A

similar to those of measles except:
low grade fever
absence of Koplik’s spot
rash - less intensely red

70
Q

where is the rubella virus developed

A

nasopharynx

71
Q

once the rubella virus is developed in the nasopharynx where can it spread to

A 
respiratory tract
skin
lymph nodes
joints 
placenta or fetus
72
Q

the rubella virus in the respiratory tract can cause what symptoms

A

sore throat

cough

73
Q

rubella virus spread to the skin what symptoms do you experience

A

rashes and lesions

74
Q

the rubella virus in joints what S& S occur

A

mild arthralgia

arthrtitis

75
Q

what S & S would you expect if rubella spread to the pacenta or fetus

A

pacentitis

fetal damage

76
Q

A woman infecd with rubella during the first 3 months of pregnancy has up toa a____% chance of giving birth to a baby with congenital rubella syndrom

A

90%

77
Q

congenital rubella syndrome can lead to what four problems

A

blindness
deafness
heart disease
other birth defects

78
Q

what is the causative agent for hepatitus B

A

hepatitits B virus

79
Q

what is the major resevoir for hep B

A

humans esp. chronic carriers (people who have been infected greater than 6 months)

80
Q

what is the mode of transmission for hep B

A

PTP via contact with blood and body fluids (IV drug use, needle-stick, contaminated blood supply/products, sex and congenial transmission

81
Q

what is the Ro value for hep B

A

2.4

82
Q

What is the IP for HBV

A

2-3 months

83
Q

what is the POC for HBV

A

as long as the infected erson is shedding the virus

84
Q

what are the two different types of HBV

A

acute

chronci

85
Q

what percentatge of HBV infections are acute

A

90-95%

86
Q

chronic HBV infection is most likely the resutl of

A

infection at/around birth

87
Q

What are the S&S of HBV

A 
fever
N/V
fatigue
abdominal & joint pain
dark urine
jaundice
88
Q

what are 3 complications associated with HBV

A

cirrhosis

liver cancer

89
Q

what type of vaccine is used for HBV

A

recombiant DNA product containing the surface antigen HBsAg

90
Q

antibodies made against the ______ confers protect against

A

HBsAg

91
Q

does HCV have a vaccine?

A

no

92
Q

is their treatment available for HCV

A

yes, sofosbuvir inhibits viral replication of the enzyme

sofosbuvir in combination with other drugs have shown high cure rates

93
Q

What is the causative agent for human papilloma virus (HPV)

A

> 120 types

94
Q

what type of virus is the HPV virus

A

ds DNA non-enveloped virus

95
Q

what family is the HPV virus

A

papilomavirdae

96
Q

what is the MR for HPV

A

humans

97
Q

what is the MT for HPV

A

PTP via direct contact shed such as sexual intercourse for genital warts and skin to skin contact or sharing of contaminated formites

98
Q

what is the Ro for HPV

A

0.52

99
Q

what is the IP for HPV

A

2-3 months

100
Q

what is the POC for HPV

A

unknown

101
Q

True or False most HPV infections are symptomtatic

A

false they are asymptomatic

102
Q

infection resolved by immune response for HPV within a year?

2 years?

A

one year: 70%

90% within 2 years

103
Q

What are the 6 complications of HPV

A 
cancer of:
cervix
vagina
penis
anus
rectum
throat
104
Q

What are 4 risk factors for HPV

A

increasing number of lifetime sexual partners and early age of sexual activity
risk of HPV infection
immunocompormised
co-infection with chlamydia and possibly HSV

105
Q

The HPV vaccine is made from

A

subunit vaccines made by recombinant DNA technology

106
Q

What is chickenpox caused by

A

varicella zoster virus *VZV

107
Q

shingles is considered a ____ infection of what virus

A

latent

varicella zoster virus

108
Q

what type of virus is varicella zoster virus

A

ds DNA enveloped virus

109
Q

what is the MR for chickenpox

A

humans

110
Q

what is the MT of chickenpox

A

PTP via droplets and direct contaact with vesicular fluid of blisters on people with chickenpox or shingles

111
Q

what is the Ro value for chickenpox

A

7-12

112
Q

what is the IP for chickenpox

A

12-21 days

113
Q

what is the POC for chickenpox

A

4-8 days before lesions appear and 4-5 days after crusting

114
Q

what are the S&S of chickenpox

A 
rash
fever
fatigue
headache
loos of appetite
115
Q

what type of rash appears in chickenpox

A

itchy, fluid filled blisters that eventually turn into scabs

116
Q

what are the risk factors for chicken pox

A

age (infants, adolescents and adults)
unvaccinated persons
immunocompromised
pregnancy

117
Q

what are 4 complications of chickenpox

A

secondary bacterial skin infections
pneumonia
encephalitis
sepsis

118
Q

Chickenpox and shingles vaccine contains

A

live attenuated viruses

119
Q

what % of children vaccinated with the chickenpox or shingles still get breakthrough varicella

A

15-20%

120
Q

what vaccine is used for people who are over 60 for protection against chickenpox and shingles

A

herpse zoster vaccine

14X more potent

121
Q

what is the causative agent for rotavirus diarrhea

A

rotavirus

122
Q

what type of virus is the rotavirus

A

ds DNA non-enveloped virus

123
Q

what family is hte rotavirus from

A

reoviridae

124
Q

what is the MR for rotavirus

A

probably humans

125
Q

what is the MT for rotavirus

A

PTP via contact with formites including food and water contaminated feces and possibly respiratory droplets

126
Q

what is the Ro value for rotavirus diarrhea

A

17.6-19.2

127
Q

what is the IP for rotavirus

A

1-3 days

128
Q

what is the POC for rotavirus

A

up to 8 days

129
Q

what are the 4 signs of gastroenteritis caused by rotavirus

A

fever
stomach pain
vomiting and watery diarrhea
loss of appetite

130
Q

what are the risk factors for rotaviru

A

age 3-35 months old
immunocompormised
children in care settings
adults caring for children

131
Q

what seasons is it more common to contract the rotavirus

A

winter and spring

132
Q

what are the two common complications of rotavirus

A

hospitalizations and severe dehydration

133
Q

in canada, about ____% of all severe cases of childhood diarrhea and vomiting can be attributed to rotavirus

A

20

134
Q

what is provided to children for free to prevent rotavirus

A

oral vacccine

2 attenuated live vaccines available in canada (monovalent and pentavalent)

Microbiology Final (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions