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NURS 2228 - Microbiology > Unit 4 - Part 7 Vaccine Preventible Diseases > Flashcards

Unit 4 - Part 7 Vaccine Preventible Diseases Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What types of polio can cause paralysis (3)?

A

Type 1
Type 2
Type 3

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2
Q

What kind of genome does Polimyelitis have?

A

Single-strand RNA non-enveloped viruses

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3
Q

What is the mode of transmission for poliomyelitis?

A

Person-person

fecal-oral route) or (contact with throat secretions

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4
Q

What is the incubation period of poliomyelitis?

A

7 - 14 days

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5
Q

What is the period of communicability of poliomyelitis?

A

As long as the virus is excreted

  • 1 week in throat
  • 3 weeks in feces
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6
Q

True or False:

Poliomyelitis is a disease that can be prevented with a vaccine

A

True

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7
Q

Describe the steps of pathogenesis of polimyelitis

A
  1. Virus replicates in oropharyngeal and intestinal mucosa
  2. Virus spreads to tonsils and multiplies in Peyer’s patches
  3. Virus is absorbed in bloodstream and spreads to internal organs and lymph nodes
  4. Virus spreads to spinal cord and brain
  5. Paralysis
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8
Q

What are the 4 phases of poliomyelitis?

A
  1. Alimentary phase
  2. Lymphatic phase
  3. Viremic phase
  4. Neurologic phase
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9
Q

What are risk factors for developing poliomyelitis?

A
  • living with infected person
  • unvaccinated or inadequately vaccinated
  • immunocompromised
  • poor sanitation
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10
Q

True or False:

Botulism causes ASYMMETRICAL paralysis

A

False

- Botulism causes SYMMETRICAL paralysis

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11
Q

True or False:

Polio causes ASYMMETRICAL paralysis

A

True

- also causes flaccid paralysis

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12
Q

Why can polio lead to death?

A

Paralysis of respiratory muscles could lead to death

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13
Q

True or False:
Photophobia is a symptom of poliomyetlitis
(What is photophobia?)

A

True

- Photophobia is a condition, where the light hurts your eyes

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14
Q

What are clinical features of untreated polio?

A

Abnormal limb development and respiratory distress

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15
Q

What kind of polio vaccine is used in Canada?

A 
Inactivated vaccine (killed viruses)
- protects against all 3 types of polio
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16
Q

What are the only 3 countries left in the world that have not been declared polio free?

A
  1. Afghanistan
  2. Nigeria
  3. Pakistan
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17
Q

Is it true that a patient can live a long time, being infected with polio as long as the lungs aren’t affected?

A

True!

- it WILL cause physical deformities though

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18
Q

What does it mean to say that the influenza virus is “segmented”?

A

There are 8 different segments to the genome
- therefore, it is possible for ONE cells to be infected with multiple strains of influenza and these strains can recombine themselves to create a mutant strain that has never been seen before

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19
Q

What is the main reservoir for the flu virus?

A

Humans

- can be pigs and birds though too

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20
Q

True or False:

The influenza virus is a single stranded RNA enveloped virus?

A

True

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21
Q

What is the period of communicability of influenza?

A

Day before symptom onset until about 5 days after

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22
Q

Is a fever a sign of the common cold or the flu?

A

The Flu

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23
Q

What are 4 complications of the flu?

A
  1. Pneumonia
  2. Febrile seizures (CNS complications)
  3. Hospitalizations
  4. Death
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24
Q

What are the risk factors for getting the flu?

A
  • Age = young children and older adults
  • Immunocompromised
  • Chronic illness (asthma/diabetes)
  • Pregnancy (greater chance of complications during 2nd and 3rd trimester)
  • Obesity ( BMI > 40)
  • Living in facilities (nursing homes)
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25
Q

Describe the genome of the measles

A

Single strand RNA virus

- it has H spikes but they are different from those of the influenza virus

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26
Q

What is the POC for measles?

A

Usually 4 days BEFORE and after the rash appears

- by the time we know that the kid is affected, the virus has already spread

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27
Q

What is Koplik’s spots indicative of? What are they?

A

Measles

- white spots in the mouth

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28
Q

Describe the rash that is seen in measles

A

Maculopapular rash

  • small raised bumps may appear on top of the flat red spots
  • on face, neck, trunk, arms, legs and feet
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29
Q

What are the 4 outcomes that can happen as a result of measles?

A
  1. Recovery
  2. Postinfectious encephalitis
  3. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
  4. No resolution of acute infection (fatal)
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30
Q

What are 4 risk factors that increase the likelihood of contracting measles?

A
  1. Lack or incomplete vaccination
  2. International travel
  3. Vitamin A deficiency
  4. Immunocompromised
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31
Q

What is the measles virus typically offered with?

A

Mumps and Rubella

Measles, mumps, rubella = MMR

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32
Q

What is attenuation?

A

A process to make live viruses non-pathogenic

- but they are still ALIVE

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33
Q

Describe the measles vaccine

A

Made up of attenuated (weakened) live viruses

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34
Q

What is a telling sign that a patient has mumps?

A

Enlargement of the salivary glands

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35
Q

What is the period of communicability for mumps?

A

7 days BEFORE the onset of parotitis and 9 days AFTERWARDS

36
Q

What is parotitis?

A

Swollen and tender salivary glands under the ears on one or both sides

37
Q

What are 4 complications of mumps?

A
  1. Orchitis
  2. Oophoritis
  3. Meningitis and encephalitis
  4. Pancreatitis
38
Q

What is orchitis?

A

Swelling of the testes

- occurs in 20-30% of post-pebertal males that get mumps

39
Q

What is oophoritis?

A

Swollen ovaries

- occurs in 5% of post-pubertal females that get mumps

40
Q

True or False:

Research has shown that mumps and rubella are associated with the onset of type 1 diabetes

A

True

41
Q

Describe the genome of rubella (german measles)

A

Single strand RNA enveloped virus

42
Q

How are enveloped viruses released from the host’s cells?

A

Budding process

43
Q

What is the period of communicability of rubella?

A

7 days before the onset of rash to 4 days or longer afterwards

44
Q

What is different between the s/s of rubella and measles?

A 
Measles = high grade fever, koplik's spots
Rubella = LOW grade fever, absence of koplik's spots, rash is less intensely red
45
Q

True or False:

Arthralgia and arthritis are complications of rubella

A

True

  • rare in children
  • quite common in adult women
46
Q

What is arthralgia?

A

Pain in the joint

47
Q

What can happen if a non-immune pregnant woman acquires rubella during the 1st trimester?

A

There is a 90% chance that the infant will develop CRS

- Congenital rubella syndrome

48
Q

What are the s/s of CRS (congenital rubella syndrome) (5)?

A
  • cataracts
  • heart defects
  • deafness
  • microcephaly
  • possibly fetal death
49
Q

True or False:

It is possible to vaccinate against rubella

A

True

  • it is a combo vaccine
  • MMR (measles, mumps, rubella)
50
Q

What is the mode of transmission for hepatitis B virus?

A

Person to person

- via contact with blood and body fluids

51
Q

True or False:

Age is a risk factor for developing a chronic Hepatitis B infection

A

True

  • Neonate: > 90%
  • 1 year: > 80%
  • 5 years: 10-30%
  • 12+ years: < 10%
52
Q

What is the period of communicability of Hepatitis B virus?

A

As long as the infected person is shedding the virus

53
Q

True or False:

Hepatitis B infections can be acute or chronic

A

True

  • acute = 90 - 95%
  • chronic = most likely the result of infection at/around birth
54
Q

What are some s/s of Hepatitis B?

A
  • fever
  • n/v
  • fatigue
  • abdominal and joint pain
  • dark urine
  • jaundice
55
Q

What are two serious complications of chronic hepatitis B infections?

A
  1. Cirrhosis

2. Hepatocellular carcinoma (liver cancer)

56
Q

Describe the vaccine for Hepatitis B.

A

A subunit vaccine

  • recombinant DNA product
  • containing the surface antigen
  • not the whole virus
  • not the live virus
57
Q

If a person has antibodies against HBsAg - what are they protected against?

A

Hepatitis B

- the person makes antibodies against the surface antigen

58
Q

True or False:

There is a vaccine available for Hepatitis C

A

False

59
Q

Since there is no vaccine for Hepatitis C, what is used for treatment?

A

Sofosbuvir

- inhibits viral replication enzyme

60
Q

Which hepatitis viruses have DNA genmoes, which have RNA genomes?

A

Hep A = RNA
Hep B = DNA
Hep C = RNA

61
Q

Which hepatitis viruses have an envelope, which do not?

A

Hep A = no envelope
Hep B = envelope
Hep C = envelope

62
Q

Describe the genome of human papilloma virus (HPV)

A

Double stranded DNA

- non-enveloped virus

63
Q

What is the period of communicability of HPV?

A

Unknown

- may be transmitted when skin lesions are present or no longer visible

64
Q

True or False:

Most HPV infections are symptomatic

A

False

- most HPV infections are Asymptomatic

65
Q

How long does it typically take for the immune system to resolve HPV?

A
  1. 70% within a year
  2. 90% with 2 years
  3. Remaining 10% = persistent infection
66
Q

What are the complications of HPV?

A

Cancers of the cervix, vagina, penis, anus, rectum and throat

67
Q

What are the risk factors for HPV?

A
  • increasing number of lifetime sexual partners and early age of sexual activity
  • immunocompromised
  • co-infection with chlamydia and possible HSV
68
Q

How is the HPV vaccine different now than back in 2006?

A

Now: protects against 9 types of HPV
2006: protected against 4 types of HPV

69
Q

Describe the vaccine for HPV

A

Subunit vaccines made by recombinant DNA

70
Q

What does the varicella zoster virus cause (2)?

A
  1. Varicella (chickenpox)

2. Herpes zoster (shingles)

71
Q

Describe the genome for varicella zoster

A

Double strand enveloped virus

72
Q

What are the s/s of varicella zoster?

A
  • rash (turns into itchy, fluid-filled blisters)
  • fever
  • fatigue
  • headache
  • loss of appetite
73
Q

What are the risk factors for varicella zoster?

A
  • age
  • unvaccinated persons
  • immunocompromised
  • pregnancy (higher risk of pneumonia for mom)
74
Q

What are the complications of varicella zoster?

A
  • Secondary bacterial skin infections
  • Pneumonia
  • Encephalitis
  • Sepsis
75
Q

True or False:

The chickenpox vaccine can also provide protection against the flesh eating disease

A

True

76
Q

What does the varicella zoster vaccine contain?

A

Live attenuated viruses

77
Q

What is breakthrough varicella?

A

Varicella in 15-20% of vaccinated children

- occurs more than 42 days after vaccination with a shorter duration of illness and less severe

78
Q

What is now done to prevent breakthrough varicella?

A

2 doses of the vaccine are given

79
Q

Describe the genome for the rotavirus

A

Double stranded DNA

- non-enveloped

80
Q

What are the s/s of rotavirus?

A

Acute gastroenteritis

  • fever
  • stomach pain
  • vomiting and watery diarrhea
  • loss of appetite
81
Q

What are the risk factors of rotavirus?

A

AGE ( 3 months - 35 months old)

  • immunocompromised
  • children in child care settings
  • older adults and adults caring for young children
82
Q

What is the seasonal trend for rotavirus?

A

Winter and Spring

83
Q

What is the main complication of rotavirus

A

Dehydration

84
Q

What is contained in the vaccine for rotavirus?

A

Attenuated live vaccines

85
Q

True or False:

The nasal spray for the flu virus contains inactivated viruses or are subunit vaccines

A

False!

  • the nasal spray contains live viruses
  • the injected vaccines contain the inactivated/subunit vaccines

NURS 2228 - Microbiology (9 decks)

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