UNIT 4 MED ADMIN Flashcards
1
Q
What is the purpose of a medical treatment record?
A
A chronological record of medical treatment afforded members of the naval service
2
Q
When is a medical record typically opened?
A
At MEPS, upon entry to regular or reserve naval service
3
Q
When is a dental record opened?
A
At the first appointment
4
Q
What form is used to request medical/dental records?
A
DD form 877
5
Q
What is the name of the place you request records from?
A
National Personnel Records Center
6
Q
Is a new record created when a midshipman or enlisted member commissions?
A
No, just make necessary grade changes
7
Q
What do you do and fill out when someone commissions?
A
Keep record
SF 600
NAVMED 6150/4 > Include date, place and grade appointed.
8
Q
When do you close a medical record?
A
In summary, When someone is not coming back to work.
9
Q
Who is in charge of medical records?
A
The commanding officer
10
Q
Who has custodial authority of medical records?
A
The SMDR/SMO
11
Q
How many days can someone be UA before their record is sent to PSD?
A
10 days
12
Q
What do you do with a record upon member transferring?
A
Verify
Fill out NAVMED 6150/7 “Charge out”
13
Q
What is the NAVMED 6150/7?
A
Pink Card
Medical record charge out
14
Q
How long is the NAVMED 6150/7 maintained for?
A
1 year
15
Q
What do you do if a medical record is lost or missing?
A
- Fill out a NAVPERS 1070/613 documenting the circumstances
- Write “REPLACEMENT” on newly created record
- SF 600 documenting the circumstances of the new record
16
Q
What do you do with the replacement record if the original is found?
A
Insert the replacement into the original
17
Q
What are the actions that should be taken if a record is destroyed?
A
- “DUPLICATE” is written on duplicated items
- SF 600 documenting the circumstances
18
Q
How are medical records filed?
A
Terminal digit filing system
19
Q
When is a medical record verified?
A
- Upon check in
- annually
- At time of physical exam
- When member transfers
20
Q
What is written on a NAVMED 6150/7?
A
Members prefix code and SSN
Members Name
Ship/Station
21
Q
Signatures in record must be_______
A
Identifiable; not legible
22
Q
What is DD form 2766 and where is it filed in the medical record?
A
Adult preventative and chronic care flow sheet
Part 1
23
Q
What is NAVMED 6230/4? Where is it filed?
A
Immunization Record
Part 1
24
Q
What is NAVMED 6000/2
A
Chronological record of HIV testing
PART 1
25
What is DD Form 2215
Reference Audiogram
Part 1
26
What is DD form 2216
Hearing Conservation data
Part one
27
What is OPNAV 5100/15?
Medical surveillance questionnaire
Part 1
28
What is SF 600?
Chronological Record of Medical Care
Part 2
29
What is SF 513?
Consultation sheet
Part 2
30
What is SF 509?
Progress notes
Part 2
31
What is SF 522?
Request for administration of anesthesia
32
What is DD form 2005?
Privacy act statement
Part 2 - preprinted
33
What is NAVMED 1300/1?
Medical, Dental, and Educational Suitability Screening for Service and Family Members
34
what is NAVMED 1300/2?
Medical, Dental, and Educational Suitability Screening for Service and Family Members Checklist and Worksheet
35
what is NAVPERS 1300/16?
Report of Suitability for Overseas Assignment Parts I, II, and III
36
What is DD form 2808
Report of medical examination
37
What is DD form 2807-1?
Report of medical history
38
What is NAVMED 6150/4?
Abstract of Service and Medical History
39
What is the required entries for Hypersensitivity/Allergies?
NAVMED 6230/4 - Immz record under remarks and recommendations
Placing "X" on front of medical record
SF 600 entry of the hypersensitivity/allergy to the drug or chemical
40
What is the form dental uses for hypersensitivities/allergy?
EZ 603/603A
41
What is the purpose of a medical warning tag?
To recognize special health problems when:
Medical records are not available
Patient is unable to give medical history
42
What is dental class 1?
(white)
Individuals having no pathological oral conditions and requiring no treatment
Exam and cleaning is completed
43
What is dental class 2?
(green)
Individuals with minor pathological oral conditions for which early clinical treatment is indicated
Exam done, cleaning is needed
44
What is dental class 3?
Yellow
Individuals with pathological oral conditions for which early clinical treatment is indicated
Non-deployable, dental condition that could become an emergency within the next 12 months
45
What is dental class 4?
Red
Individuals whose classification is unknown because they have not received an oral examination by a Dental Officer within the past 12 months or for whom no dental record exists.
46
What chapter of MANMED do we reference for medical records?
16
47
What is the largest article we use in MANMED chapter 16?
Article 23
16-23 is most useful
48
If a member is seen at the VA what are we going to do with their records?
A VA only gets a copy
Record is maintained at their MTF
49
How do you make a correction in a medical record?
One line and initial
50
What is NAVMED 6224?
TB
51
Key personnel responsible for administrating and supervising the execution of the privacy act
Navy - CNO who is also the secretary for the SECNAV
Marines- Commandant
52
What is HIPAA?
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
53
Who is authorized to release medical information?
officials having cognizance
54
What is the OPNAV 5211/9
Record of disclosure. Used in an investigation/ NCIS
55
Who is responsible for providing documentation (proof) to amend a record?
the individual
56
When amending a record what is the time line?
10 working days = acknowledgment
30 working days = completed
57
What is the maximum criminal penalty for a violation of the Privacy act?
Three criminal penalties are authorized against individuals for violation of the Privacy Act
All three are misdemeanors punishable by fines up to $5,000
Courts may also award civil penalties
- no jail time
58
HIPPA violation criminal penalties
Wrongful disclosure of individually identifiable health information includes the following penalties:
Fine of $50,000 and up to one-year imprisonment, or both
If committed under false pretenses, a fine of not more than
$100,000 and up to five years imprisonment, or both
If the wrongful conduct involves the intent to sell, transfer, or use individually identifiable health information for commercial advantage, personal gain, or malicious harm; a fine of not more than $250,000 and up to ten years imprisonment, or both
59
If a person does not sign the privacy act statement what do you do?
SF 600
60
What is the purpose of the 3M program?
managing maintenance and maintenance support to help achieve maximum equipment operational readiness
61
What are the objectives of the 3M program?
```
standardization
efficiency
documentation
analysis
configuration status accounting
scheduling
```
62
What does the 3M system NOT apply to?
does not apply to nuclear propulsion plants and associated test equipment, fleet ballistic missile systems, or aeronautical support equipment
63
Who has OVERALL responsibility of the 3M program?
The CO
64
Who is the 3M MANAGER?
The XO
65
Who is the 3M FUNCTIONAL MANAGER?
3-M System Coordinator
66
Who can be a 3-M System Coordinator?
This is a primary duty for an officer, CPO, or senior PO1, who has been assigned a secondary NEC of 9517; 3-MC is the ship’s subject matter expert in all aspects of the 3-M system
67
What is the Dept. Head responsibility in 3M?
Effective operation of the department
| Reviews and signs cycle and quarterly cycles
68
What is the responsibility of the DLCPO in 3M?
Shall be accountable to the department head
69
What is the division officers responsibility in 3M?
Responsible to the Department Head and will be qualified in the 3-M System; the Division Officer assists in managing the maintenance required for the equipment within division responsibility
Reviews and approves the weekly schedules, conducts weekly spot checks to ensure maintenance is being properly performed, ensures the departmental quarterly schedule is updated weekly
70
What is the WCS responsibility in 3M?
The senior person will be designated as the work center supervisor and are responsible for the effective operation of the 3-M system within the work Center
This responsibility shall not be delegated to subordinate maintenance personnel
Schedules weekly work center maintenance and supervises its proper accomplishment
Maintains a detailed working knowledge of all equipment deficiencies within the work center maintains all documentation and files applicable to the 3-M system within the work center
71
What is the responsibility of the Maintenance person in 3M?
Responsible to the work center supervisor; perform assigned scheduled maintenance requirements as indicated by the weekly schedule and promptly notify the work center supervisor of the status of maintenance including any problems encountered in its performance
72
What is the difference between preventative and corrective Maintenance?
Preventative: prevent or discover functional failures
Corrective: actions taken to fix equipment that have failed, or are not working to design specifications
73
What is the PMS Manual also known as?
43P1
74
What is in a PMS Manual or 43P1?
lists of effective pages (LOEP’s), MIP’s and MRC’s that apply to the work center
It is designed to provide a ready reference of planned maintenance requirements for the work center supervisor, and should be retained in the work area
75
What does the LOEP provide listings of?
maintenance index pages
76
What does the MIP identify?
Identifies the system, subsystem, or component involved and gives a brief description of each maintenance requirement
77
What does the MRC provide?
Provides detailed guidance for accomplishing each maintenance requirement
Each MRC explains how to perform the maintenance task in terms that everyone should understand and list tools and materials needed for the job
78
What color of stock paper is a classified MRC printed on?
Pink
79
When several identical components are covered by one MRC what is used?
an equipment guide list (EGL)
80
What does the EGL contain?
The EGL contains:
Controlling MRC code
Name of the components concerned and serial number if applicable
Location of each component
81
What is a Feedback Report (FBR) used for?
Used by shipboard personnel to notify Fleet Technical Support Centers (FTSCLANT/FTSCPAC) or the Type Commander (TYCOM) on matters related to PMS
82
What are the 3 types of feedback reports?
Category A, Category B and Urgent
83
What are the 3 types of feedback reports?
Category A, Category B and Urgent
84
What does a Category A feedback report mean?
Non-technical in nature
85
What does a Category B FBR mean?
Technical in nature
- submitted by the ship’s 3M coordinator for the following:
Technical discrepancies inhibiting PMS performance
Notification of shift of maintenance responsibilities
TYCOM assistance
86
What does a URGENT feedback report mean?
Safety of personnel
Safety of ship
Potential for damage to equipment and relates to the technical requirements of PMS
87
What is the Allowance parts list?
Identification of PMS part requirements in the Navy supply system
88
What is the Current Ship’s Maintenance Project (CSMP)?
A detailed or summary listing of deferred maintenance information; a management tool for guiding the accomplishment of repairs in the work center
89
What is the equipment status log? (ESL)
Used to verify the status of all equipment
90
What is the Allowance Equipment list? (AEL)
All equipage items and any other special tools/materials not covered under other categories will be supported through the AEL
91
What is COSAL?
Coordinated Shipboard Allowance List (COSAL)
92
What is listed in the COSAL?
Lists the following:
- Equipment installed on a ship to perform its operational mission
- Repair parts and special tools required for the overhaul and repair of equipment
- The items and consumables necessary for the safety, care, and upkeep of the ship
93
What is the standard pms item name? (SPIN)
A numbering system used for tools, parts, material, and test equipment
94
what is Standard PMS Materials Identification Guide (SPMIG)?
A reference guide which lists the SPIN and has the corresponding stock number identification (NSN)
95
What does the periodicity code R mean?
Situational
96
How long do you maintain weekly maintenance schedules?
13 weeks
97
What is the purpose of the suitability screening program?
Determines suitability for overseas, remote or operational assignments by identifying “special needs”
Match needs to capability of local medical, dental, school and community facilities
98
What is considered reasonable travel time?
2 hours one way by land
99
What instruction governs the suitability screening program?
BUMEDINST 1300.2B as of 23 JUN 06
***if it has 1300 its suitability***
100
What is the responsibility of the MTF in the suitability screening process
Provides a suitability recommendation to transferring command
Does medical/dental/educational screening
101
What responsibility does BUMED have regarding the Suitability Screening Program?"
Prescribe procedures for medical, dental, and educational screening
Monitor the execution of screening procedures
Determine the cause and institute corrective action for screening deficiencies
102
what is the responsibilities of the SSC (suitability screening coordinator)
Designated by MTF commander
Coordinates suitability screening process
Performs paperwork review/preliminary screening
Refers to MTF/DTF staff for screenings
Forwards suitability inquiry to gaining MTF
Provides recommendation to transferring command
As required, coordinates to NAVPERSCOM, PSD, HRO, etc…
103
what is the purpose of the EFM program?
Assist SM in providing for the special needs of their EFM before, during, and after relocation required by change of duty assignments
104
What is the instruction governing the EFM program?
EFM is a mandatory program governed by the OPNAVINST 1754.2C
105
What is the enrollment criteria for EFMP?
Family member with long term or chronic medical, psychological, or educational needs
Enrolled in DEERS
Resides with sponsor
Exception: Geo-Bachelor
106
what is category I of EFMP?
Monitoring Purposes
107
what is category II of EFMP?
Pinpoint overseas assignment
108
what is category III of EFMP?
No overseas assignment
109
What is category IV?
Assignments near major medical facilities INCONUS
110
what is category V?
Homestead
111
What is category VI?
Temporary Category
112
Who are EFMP recommendations forwarded to?
Recommendations are forwarded to Chief, Navy Personnel Command (CNPC) for final disposition
113
What are some misconceptions of EFMP?
Choice assignments will be denied
No overseas assignment
No sea duty assignment
Member is restricted to Norfolk, VA and San Diego, CA
114
How often does a file have to be updated to EFM?
Update file every 3 years, 12 months prior to receiving orders, or as family needs change.
115
What does S mean in a scheduling report?
Semiannually
116
What are some reasons for disenrollment of EFMP?
- sufficiently recovered from impairment
- Divorced or legally separated
- EFM dies
- EFM no longer resides in home, or is no longer DEERS eligible
117
What is the commanding officers responsibility in regards to pregnant service women, professionally?
a) Must ensure that the pregnant servicewoman retains a high degree of commitment to fulfill professional responsibilities.
(b) Ensure no preferential treatment shall be given because of
pregnancy status.
(c) Not harassed
118
When does a pregnant SM need to be off ship?
20 weeks
119
Whats some restrictions of a pregnant SM 28 weeks and beyond?
Allowed to rest 20 minutes every four hours
Limited to 40-hour workweek (over 7 days, not 5) including
watch standing. A pregnant Service member may request a
waiver through their CO and OB provider if the desire to waive
this time restriction.
120
when can a pregnant SM no longer fly?
28 weeks
121
How long is con-leave after delivery?
Post-delivery convalescent leave of 12 weeks will normally be
granted by the servicewoman’s Commanding Officer
122
What are the 3 disposition of remains programs?
current
graves registration
concurrent
123
How soon after death does PNOK need to be notified?
within 24 hours
124
What is the decedent affairs instruction?
BUMEDINST 5360.1 series
125
Who is the official responsible for the administration of decedent affairs program?
Commander, Naval Military Personnel Command
126
who is the officials responsible for directing the disposition of unidentified remains
Commander, Naval Medical Command (MEDCOM-332) directs disposition of unidentified remain
127
How should remains be properly refrigerated?
Remains should be refrigerated above the freezing point at 36-40 degrees Fahrenheit (2.2-4.4 degrees Celsius) for short periods of time pending arrival in port or the arrival of an embalmer
128
What are the casket requirements for a burial at sea?
```
metal
A minimum of 20 holes, 2 inches diameter is placed in the casket to permit rapid entry of seawater.
a) 8 in base
b) 4 in each half of the lid
c) 2 in each end
```
129
When casket and remains weigh less than _____ you should use weights
300 pounds
130
How many nylon bands are placed on the lid of the casket?
5
2 on each half of the lid
1 length wise
131
What is DD form 2992?
```
Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special
Operations Duty (Aeromedical)
```
132
what is the purpose of the DD form 2992?
notify the commanding officer or officer in
charge and other designated individuals that the named aircrew member is no longer
medically recommended for flying duties
133
What are some reasons for a grounding notice?
a) Personnel admitted to the sick list
(b) Those who are hospitalized
(c) Personnel determined to have a medical problem that could impair performance of duties involving flight
d)Administration of routine immunizations, which require temporary grounding, does not require issuance of an Aeromedical Grounding
Notice
134
who receives copies of "down chits"?
a) The original goes to the Commanding Officer or Officer in Charge
(b) First copy goes to the Operations Officer
(c) Second copy is for the Training Officer
(d) Additional copies should be made for the Service Member
135
who may issue Aeromedical Clearance Notices?
is the responsibility of the aviation trained medical officers (Flight Surgeons or Aviation Medical Examiners).
136
The following publication and directives cover units and locations
without aviation trained medical officers
NAVMED P-117, Manual of the Medical Department (MANMED) Chapter
15, Physical Examinations and Standards for Enlistment, Commission, and
Special Duty
2) BUMEDINST 6410.9 - Medical Monitoring Flight Personnel in Locations
where Flight Surgeons are not Available
3) OPNAVINST 3710.7T - NATOPS General Flight and Operating Instructions,
Chapter 8, Aeromedical and Survival
4) These directives specify that the authority to issue an Aeromedical Clearance
Notice may be given to an IDC, physician assistant, or non-aviation trained
medical officer under specific guidelines
137
When aircrew personnel are unable to meet required physical standards for periods exceeding ______ days, an aviation physical examination shall be completed. A typed DD 2808 with appropriate consultations and flight surgeon recommendations shall be forwarded to NAVOPMEDINST DET
NAVAEROMEDINST (Code 342) for review and recommendation to BUPERS or CMC as appropriate.
60 days
138
what has to be approved by congress in regards to decedent affairs
return of remains
139
what program designates a CACO?
casualty assistance call program
140
What geographical area designates a CACO?
PNOK area
141
What is the rank of a CACO?
Officer or experienced senior enlisted
142
What is the purpose of the decedent affairs program?
high standards and uniformity
143
who is the causality assistance call program ran through
chief of naval personnel
144
What is the major difference between primary and secondary expenses
Primary- for the deceased
| Secondary- for the family
145
what uniform is the service member buried in and who provides those uniform items?
dress blues
navy will cover cost of blues, shoes, cover, and ribbons (whole thing)
146
What is DD form 2064?
Certificate of Death (overseas)
147
What form is used when grounding aviation personnel?
DD form 2992 (Aeromedical)
148
Who may issue a grounding notice
Any medical personnel.
HM
Nurses
IDC
etc
149
Where is a grounding notice noted at in the medical record?
Special duty medical abstract
NAVMED 6150/2
150
Why would a grounding notice be issued?
person admitted to sick list
person who is hospitalized
person determined to have a medical problem that could impair duties
Admin of routine vaccines does not require a grounding notice but the member is temporarily grounded.
151
When issuing a down chit where do the copies go?
CO or OIC gets original
Ops
Training officer
additional copies are given to the patient and other personnel as needed
152
How long is a down chit issued for?
until member has been examined by a flight surgeon and issued an Up chit
153
Who can issue an up chit
Flight surgeon
IDC, non-qualified MO if no flight surgeon is available but communication must be established with a flight surgeon before issuing the member an up chit.
154
if the BAS or Sick bay is detached from the squadron and a down chit has been issued, what would you do?
Give the CO, XO, & OPS a courtesy call
155
How often does aviation personnel need to be evaluated?
Annually and must be physically qualified and aeronautically adapted for continued aviation duties
156
When must air crew personnel be evaluated by a flight surgeon?
following any period of medical grounding
157
What is an exception to air crew personnel not needing to see a flight surgeon following a medical grounding?
The self limited grounding notice issued by a dental officer
158
What instructions can you find information for aviation physical standards?
NAVMED P-117
| MANMED CH. 15
159
What publications and directives cover units and locations without trained medical officers?
- NAVMED P-117
- BUMEDINST 6410.9
- OPNAVINST 3710.7V
160
If an aircrew member is taking medication, can they be issued an up-chit?
Not without concurrence from the flight surgeon
161
How long is a copy of physical exams kept on file for?
3 years by the facility
162
When does the periodic exam expire for aviation personnel?
The last day of the members birth month
163
What time period does the aviation mishap statement have to cover?
last 72 hours
164
What lab specimens have to be obtained? (What color tube and how many?)
2 grey tubes
2 purple tubes
3 red tubes
urine sample containing at least 75 ml
165
When obtaining labs following an aviation mishap, what should you NOT do?
use an alcohol swab
166
Can an aircrew member take over the counter medications and still remain in a flight status?
No
167
if an aircrew member is taking an approved antibiotic when can they be considered for an "up-chit"?
Prior to course completion if symptoms have resolved.
168
What directives are used in medical supply?
COMNAVSURFORINST 6000.1
| NAVSUP P-485
169
Upon assuming duty, in regards to supply, the SMDR will at minimum do what tasks?
- Ensure all durable med equip. required by AMAL are onboard
- Current inventory actively reflects
- ensure ongoing actions effecting status of medical
170
What is the responsibility center?
a command designated to receive and administer an operating budget.
171
What is a cost center?
a SUBDIVISION of responsibility center for which identifies cost is desirable to control
172
What is an operating budget?
Annual budget and financial authority of an activity or command containing the financial resources to perform its mission
173
What is an operating target? (OPTARS)
annual funds issued by TYCOM to lower command in order to perform their assigned tasks and function
174
What are the 3 types of normally issued funds?
C - consumables
E - equipment
R - Repair parts
175
What fund code is N?
Pacific fleet
176
What fund code is S?
Atlantic fleet
177
What fund code is associated with medical supplies?
7
| ex: N7 or S7
178
What is an obligation?
when an order is placed or a contract is awarded
179
What is an expenditure?
the final charge against available transactions
180
What is procurement?
any means of acquiring materials
181
what does the SMDR develop a financial plan based on?
Experience
projected requirements
shelf life
ships schedule
182
What is special mission usage requirements?
items may be authorized to meet known &/or anticipated required incident to a specific voyage or deployment.
The requirements may be determined by the force medical officer or by ships medical officer
183
If requirements are not mission specific an allowance change should be submitted to who?
Naval medical logistic command via force/fleet medical officer
184
Medical OPTAR funds for a DDG may be used for purchases under _____?
$1500
185
What is the OPTAR funds allowance for LHA/LHD?
$5000
186
What is the OPTAR funds allowance for a LSD/LPD
$2500
187
What is a DD form 200
Financial liability investigation or loss of property
188
Who is the appointing and the approving official when a survey is being conducted?
The CO
189
Who can serve as a surveying officer?
Commissioned Officer
Warrant Officer
Enlisted E-7 or above
Civilian GS-09 or above
190
What is a DD form 1149?
Requisition and invoice/shipping document
191
What is a NAVSUP 1250-1?
Single line item consumption
Used primarily for procuring materials or services
also used for reporting consumption
192
What is DD form 1348?
Issue Release Receipt document
193
What is the correlation between DD form 1348 and a NAVSUP 1250-1/DD form 1149?
Transfer between bulk stock and working stock.
No money involved with a 1348
194
What is the Defense Health Agency(DHA)?
a field activity of the undersecretary of defense for personnel and readiness
195
When was DHA established?
October 1, 2013
- Previously known as TRICARE management activity
196
Who does Military Medical Support Office (MMSO) serve?
AD service members enrolled in tricare prime remote
non-enrolled ADSM not managed by a MTF
Reserve component SM in remote area with service approved line of duty (LOD) injury, illness, or diseas.
197
What are the eligibility requirements for DHA?
Active duty/ retired member
Spouses
Children (up to age 21) (up to age 23 if in school)
198
If a service member is divorced but served up to 20 years active duty while married to their spouse can the spouse still receive benefits?
Yes, if unremarried
199
If a service member dies who can receive benefits?
un-remarried spouses
| Children (under 21) (under 23 if in school)
200
What is DD form 2642
Tricare DOD/ Champus medical claim, Patients request for medical payment
201
What documents will need to accompany the DD form 2642?
Original and two copies of claim form
itemized bills
across the front of the bill should be a statement signed by patient that care was received and satisfactory
202
If a change to an AMAL is needed who would you route that request to?
Naval Medical Logistics Command
--->TYCOM ---> Naval Medical logistics Command
203
If you need money for a single line item supply request over $1500, who would that request go to?
TYCOM
204
What is computed by TYCOM prior to a deployment that is NOT part of the core AMAL?
Immunizing agents
205
What can medical OPTAR funds NOT be used for?
- Medical equipment over $1500 (ship dependent)
- weight control aids or provisions for special diets
- open purchase medications for dependent use
- hearing conservation materials (ear pro)
- pest, rodent, insect supplies
- non medical/dental material
206
Who can NOT serve as a survey officer?
1) Person on whose records the material being surveyed is carried
2) person charged with custody of material being surveyed
207
What are some reasons a survey may be conducted?
(1) Sensitive items regardless of dollar value.
(2) Narcotics.
(3) Classified items regardless of dollar value.
(4) Arms, ammunition, and explosives, regardless of dollar value.
(5) Pilferable items that is easily convertible to personal use when the single dollar value of
a line item is $800 or more.
(6) Any discrepancy or repetitive loss when there is an indication or suspension of fraud,
theft, or negligence.
208
Who determines if a survey should be initiated?
The Division Officer or Department Head
209
who can approve an open purchase?
C.O.
210
Why was the NAVSUP 1250-1 created?
(1) To improve inventory control procedures
| 2) To report consumption under the maintenance data system (MDS
211
How is a cycle schedule divided? (3M)
3 month quarters
212
What are medical records used for?
- plan patient care
- furnish evidence
- document communication between providers
- provide data for continuing education
- justify third party costs
- serve as a vehicle of communication
213
What types of forms are found in part 4 of the medical record?
Ancillary forms
214
What is the field activity for personnel and readiness?
DHA
215
What is the first priority in an aviation mishap?
Patient care
216
What does Chapter 15 of MANMED cover?
physical standards
217
Who grants waivers to an aviator?
Commandant
Chief of naval personnel
218
If you need further guidance on an aviator's medication who would you contact?
NAMI
219
Which program in decedent affairs is used when in search and recovery?
Graves registration program
220
What is DD Form 2642?
- Request for payment
221
What is another preprinted form in the medical record ASIDE FROM the privacy act statement?
OPNAVINST 5211/9 record of disclosure)
| 911- police usually need the release
222
Who is the judication authority for payment overseas?
Wisconsin Physician Services
223
Who has judication authority for payment CONUS?
Managed medical support center
224
What is the purpose of the suitability screening program?
Decrease early returns
Quality of life
Command meets the needs of the SM and FM
225
How many regions of Tricare are there and what are they?
3
| East, West, Overseas
226
Who does the original DD form 2992 form go to?
C.O.
227
Where do the copies of the dd form 2992 go to?
OPS
| Training officer
228
Who designates the CACO?
Casualty assistance call program coordinator
229
What is the purpose of the decedent affairs program?
Uniformity
High standards
Things happen quickly
230
When downing an aviator where is it documented?
6150/2
DD form 2992
SF 600
231
What are some side effects of a nasal decongestant?
Insomnia, tachycardia, diplopia
232
What are some side effects of petroleum jelly?
Mask discomfort
| Crusting
233
Who is responsible for EFM enrollment at the command?
CO
also provides EFM POC
Annual training on EFMP
CCC
234
How often does a 28 week pregnant service member have to rest?
every 4 hours for 20 minutes
235
How long is a work week for a SM at 28 weeks
40 hour work week with watch standing
236
When should a shore command request a PRD extension for a pregnant service member?
12 months prior to PRD
237
When should an operational command request for a transfer of a pregnant SM?
immediately
No longer allowed on ship at 20 weeks
238
Who surveys for potential reproductive hazards in a work place?
Naval Environmental health center
239
What is MILPERSMAN 1770.10
Personnel casualty reporting requirements
240
If a patient is being medevac what happens to the medical record?
Goes with the patient
241
Who is responsible for creating a new record?
Cognizant custodian
242
What will you do with damaged forms within a medical record?
Microfiche
| or place in envelope
243
if an aviator is taking Motrin what should you do?
Ground them, unless medication is cleared by flight surgeon
244
Who forwards a EFM package?
MTF coordinator
245
Who does the MTF coordinator for the EFMP also work alongside with?
the suitability screening coordinator
246
Who does the suitability recommendation come from?
Transferring MTF
247
Who owns the suitability screening program?
The commanding officer of transferring command
248
What are the requirements for a breast feeding room?
Private, clean, running water
249
If a service member goes to boot camp (training) and is pregnant she will be discharged without benefits but how long after post partum could she re-enlist?
4 months postpartum
250
How long after delivery can a SM take a PRT?
6 months
251
What does TYCOM stand for?
Type commander
252
Who is the medical TYCOM?
Force/Fleet Surgeon
253
What does OPTAR stand for and who issues the annual funds?
Operational Target
| TYCOM issues the funds
254
Define purchase
Procurement from a commercial source
255
Who determines the special mission usage?
Force medical officer
256
What type of ship carry refugee materials?
LHD
Repair Ships
Subtenders
257
Where can you find information on the NAVSUP 1250-1
NAVSUP 485
258
What form do you use at SERVMART/MEDMART?
NAVSUP 1250-1
259
What documents the results of a survey conducted? (Supply)
DD Form 200
260
When would you use a DD Form 1149
items excluded from MILSTRIP (open purchase)
261
What is DD Form 1348?
Issue release and receipt document
262
How many different part forms are within a DD form 1348?
The form is available as two-part, four-part, or six-part carbon interleaved forms for manual
use or as a single-card form for mechanized use
263
What is the DD form 1348 mainly used for?
is used to requisition material from naval supply activities
264
What instruction governs the 3M program?
NAVSEAINST 4790.8
265
define efficiency
Affective use of available manpower and resources
266
What list has all equipment items and any other special tools?
AEL
267
define standardization
Achieve uniform maintenance standards and criteria
268
define scheduling
Standardize method of planning, managing, executing and tracking
maintenance requirements
269
A numbering system used for tools, parts, material, and test equipment
SPIN (standard PMS item names)
270
A reference guide which lists the SPIN and has the corresponding stock number identification (NSN).
Standard PMS Materials Identification Guide (SPMIG)
271
What periodicity code is used when in the shipyard/overhaul?
LU
| Lay up
272
What periodicity code is used for out of shipyard/overhaul?
SU
| Start up
273
Planning and scheduling of maintenance requirements are accomplished on the cycle, quarterly, and weekly schedules. Define what a cycle, quarter and week consist of
Cycle - Yearly
Quarterly - 3 month quarters
Weekly - 13 weeks in a quarter
274
When is an annual budget due?
October 1st
275
Where can you find individual responsibilities in survey procedures?
NAVSUP 485
276
Who is responsible for formulation and promulgation of policies in the decedent affairs program?
Commander, naval medical command
Commandant of the marine corps
