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IDC School > PREVMED 1 > Flashcards

PREVMED 1 Flashcards

1
Q

. Who establishes a Person in Charge (PIC) or is the PIC?

A

Food Service Establishment Manager

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2
Q

What will the PIC demonstrate to the regulatory authority knowledge of?

A
  • Foodborne disease prevention, application of Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point (HACCP) principles, and requirements of the Tri-service Food Code manual.
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3
Q

What are the reportable symptoms

A

Vomiting

  • Diarrhea
  • Jaundice
  • Sore throat WITH A FEVER
  • A lesion containing pus such as a boil or an infected wound that is open or draining
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4
Q

If someone has a reportable lesion, what are some interventions they can take that allows them to remain working

A

Impermeable cover such as a finger cot or stall protects the lesion and a single use glove is worn OVER the impermeable cover

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4
Q

If someone has a reportable lesion, what are some interventions they can take that allows them to remain working

A

Impermeable cover such as a finger cot or stall protects the lesion and a single use glove is worn OVER the impermeable cover

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5
Q

For someone who was diagnosed with Salmonella Typhi and working with a Highly Susceptible population (HSP) will you exclude or restrict them?

A

exclude

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6
Q

. For someone diagnosed with an exposure to a Food Borne Illness and working with a non-hsp will they be excluded or restricted?

A
  • *REMEMBER: Restricted means they can work in the galley still but not around food and Exclude is nowhere near the facility.**
  • Restricted (For both HSP and non-HSP)
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7
Q

If diagnosed with Shigella spp. and the person is asymptomatic and working in a HSP exclude or restrict?

A

Exclude (Restrict if non-hsp)

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8
Q

If diagnosed with a sore throat and has a fever and working in a non-hsp?

A

Restrict (Exclude if HSP)

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9
Q

. If someone has been diagnosed with HEP A and is attempting to remove exclusions, what must be provided?

A

PIC obtains approval from the REGULATORY AUTHORITY and one of the conditions has been met.

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10
Q

For removing Salmonella (S. Typhi) exclusions how many stool samples must be provided?

A

3 negative stool samples

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11
Q

For removing exclusions from a person diagnosed with Shigella spp. how many stool samples must be provided

A

2 Negative stool samples

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12
Q

How long are you required to wash your hands?

A

At least 20 seconds in a designated hand washing sink

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13
Q

After washing your hands, what are approved methods of drying?

A

Disposable paper towels OR heated hand dryers

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14
Q

Alcohol based hand sanitizers shall contain a minimum of what percent of ethyl alcohol content?

A

60% and be used in accordance with label instructions

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15
Q

What is the authorized finger nail length for food service workers?

A

1/4 inch

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16
Q

What type of jewelry is authorized?

A
  • Plain ring wedding band. May not wear jewelry on their arms and hands.
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17
Q

Is recipe tasting authorized?

A

Yes, but the employee shall use a clean sanitized utensil and use only ONCE, Taste the food away from the food being cooked to avoid contamination

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18
Q

What are the 5 CDC foodborne illness risk factors?

A

a. food from unsafe sources
b. inadequate cooking
c. improper holding/temp time
d. contaminated equipment/ cross contamination
e. poor personal hygiene.

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19
Q

Refresher training for food employees must be conducted within 12 months of reporting but no earlier than how many days?

A

30 days

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20
Q

How many hours of food sanitation refresher training is required?

A

4 hours

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21
Q

Supervisor training is valid for what time period?

A

5 years max

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22
Q

New food service employees shall receive a min. of 4 hours of initial food training within how many days of hire?

A

30 days

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23
Q

Who maintains an original or a copy of a food employee certification document?

A

Maintained at the Food establishment where the employee works

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24
Q

What are the requirements for food presentation

A

Must be unadulterated and honestly presented

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25
Q

Who approves game animal ante-mortum and post-mortum?

A

Army Vet techs

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26
Q

How is package food labeled?

A

As specified in law

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27
Q

What is the temperature for receiving Refrigerated/temperature control foods?

A

41 degrees F (5C) or below

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28
Q

Raw eggs can be received at what temperature?

A

45 degrees F

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29
Q

TCS food that is cooked shall be received at what temperature?

A

135 degrees F

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30
Q

In regards to shellstock, on the harvesters tag or label what is the most important information that must be present?

A
  • Harvesters ID #

- Date of Harvesting

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31
Q

. How long is the harvesters tag or label kept on file?

A

90 days

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32
Q

What is the requirements for juice?

A
  • Be obtained from a processor with a HACCP system

- Must be obtained pasteurized

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33
Q

Who can approve bare hand contact with ready to eat foods?

A
  • Regulatory Authority

- Employees will minimize bare hand and arm contact with food that is not ready-to-eat

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34
Q

When disinfecting Fresh Fruit and Vegetables what are the solution requirements?

A

50 to 200 ppm Free available Chlorine (Sodium Hypochlorite) with a pH of 6.0-7.5
- Completely immerse for 1 minute

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35
Q

Cloths in use for wiping food spills from tableware and carry out containers that occur as food is being served in shall be?

A

Maintained dry and used for no other purpose

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36
Q

How often are dry cloths laundered?

A

Between uses and free from food debris and when visibly soiled

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37
Q

Cloths in use for wiping counters and other equipment surfaces shall be?

A

Held between uses in a chemical sanitizer solution

- Laundered Daily

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38
Q

In regards to food storage how far off the ground is it required to be?

A

At least 6 inches

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39
Q

Define food borne illness

A

Illness carried or transmitted to people by food

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40
Q

Define Foodborne illness outbreak

A

An incident where two or more people experience the same illness after eating the same food

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41
Q

What is a foodborne infection

A

An illness caused by consuming food that contains living disease-causing organism

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42
Q

What is foodborne intoxication?

A

An illness caused by consuming foods containing a hazardous chemical or toxin

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43
Q

What bacteria cannot be destroyed

A

Spore forming bacteria

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44
Q

What bacteria is easily destroyed with cooking?

A

Non spore forming bacteria

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45
Q

What are some spore forming bacteria?

A

Clostridium perfringes

  • Bacillus cereus
  • Clostridium botulinum
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46
Q

What are the symptoms of clostridium botulinum and what foods is it commonly found in?

A

Dizziness, SOB, headache, double vision

- Found in Canned foods

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47
Q

. What are some non-spore forming bacteria?

A

Campylobacter jujuni - commonly found in raw poultry/ raw milk

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48
Q

What is a toxin?

A

Naturally occurring biological toxins that are not caused by the presence of microorganisms

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49
Q

What is ciguatoxin caused by and what are the symptoms?

A

Fish toxin from toxic algae

- Symptoms: Nausea, diarrhea, dizziness and SOB

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50
Q

What is the symptoms of scombroid?

A

Dizziness, rash, hives, SOB, peppery taste, itching, teary eyes
- Toxin originating from histamine released by fish

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51
Q

What are the top two risk factors of contracting a foodborne illness?

A

Improper holding temps

- Poor personal hygiene

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52
Q

What are the three food safety hazards?

A

Biological, chemical and physical

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53
Q

What food safety hazard is most likely to cause a FBI?

A

Biological

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54
Q

What does FATTOM stand for

A
  • Food, acidity, temperature, time, oxygen and moisture

- These are the elements that disease causing bacteria need to multiply

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55
Q

What is the temperature danger zone?

A
  • 41 degrees F to 135 degrees F
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56
Q

If TCS remain in the temperature zone for how many hours or longer, will microorganisms grow?

A

4 hours or longer

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57
Q

What are the four phases of bacterial growth?

A

Lag phase, log phase, stationary phase, and decline phase

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58
Q

What happens in the lag, log, stationary and decline phase?

A

Lag: bacteria exhibit little or no growth

  • Log: Bacteria doubles
  • Stationary: Number of new bacteria being produced equals the number of organisms that are dying off.
  • Decline phase: Bacteria dies off quickly
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59
Q

What are the signs that frozen TCS foods have been thawed or frozen?

A

Ice crystals

  • Wet packaging
  • Product is discolored
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60
Q

How long can leftovers be retained and can they be frozen?

A

Up to 72 hours if chilled

- Freezing is prohibiting

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61
Q

. What percentage of lead solder is authorized for contact with food?

A

less than 0.2 percent

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62
Q

Is the use of copper authorized with food contact?

A

Use in limitation

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63
Q

What is approved as food contact surfaces?

A

Stainless steel

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64
Q

Where will temperature measuring devices be placed?

A

Warmest part of a mechanically refrigerated unit

- Coolest part of a hot food storage unit

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65
Q

When manually warewashing how many compartments shall be provided?

A

3 compartments

  • Wash, rinse, sanitize
  • 110F, 120F and 171F
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66
Q

Is the use of a two compartment sink authorized?

A
  • If PIC has it approved by a regulatory authority
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67
Q

Any time a chemical sanitizer is used, what must be provided?

A

Testing kit that accurately measures the concentration in mg/L or ppm of sanitizing solutions and a temperature measuring device

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68
Q

For counter top or table mounted equipment what is the clearance?

A

at least 4 inches between the floor and equipment

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69
Q

Floor mounted equipment shall be how far from the deck?

A

6 inches above the floor and equipment

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70
Q

If foodservice equipment or utensils do not meet NSF international standards but are approved as specified, is serviceable and does not present a hazard. Who can approve the use?

A

Regulatory authority

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71
Q

. If iodine is used in warewashing equipment what temp. Should it be?

A

68 degrees

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72
Q

. How often are ice machines cleaned and sanitized?

A

at least every 30 days

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73
Q

How often is ice machine water and air filters replaced?

A

At least once every 6 months and documented in a log

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74
Q

How long can tongs remain on the serving line?

A

8 hours for consumer self service utensils

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75
Q

How often should ice tea dispensers be cleaned?

A

at least every 24 hours

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76
Q

After being cleaned, equipment food-contact surfaces and utensils shall be sanitized in what?

A

Hot water manual operations: 3rd sink, at least 30 seconds

Mechanical wash: cycle through and achieve utensil surface temp of 160 degrees F

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77
Q

How often are wet-wiping cloths laundered?

A

Daily

Dry cloth- as needed to prevent contamination of food

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78
Q

What is the proper way to dry utensils?

A

Shall be air dried or used after adequate draining

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79
Q

Who ensures that the facility is testing the drinking water?

A

Medical authority or designated authority

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80
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring chlorine residual of bulk supplied potable water is tested and how often is bulk water tested?

A

Food service managers

tested daily

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81
Q

What is the desired temperature range of a hand washing sink?

A

100F to 120F

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82
Q

What sign or poster shall be provided at all handwashing sinks used by food employees?

A

Hand washing sign

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83
Q

10 Foot candles are used in what spaces?

A

dry food storage areas

walk-in fridge

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84
Q

20 foot candles are used in what areas?

A

handwashing
warewashing
toilet rooms
utensil storage

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85
Q

50 foot candles are used in what locations?

A

Where workers are working with knives, slicers, grinders, or saws

Where safety is a factor

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86
Q

What fire extinguisher is used to fight grease, gas, and solvents?

A

Red square B

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87
Q

How should wet mops be stored to dry?

A

Angled head down

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88
Q

What is the most common type of cockroach and how are they identified?

A

German

Strong oily odor
droppings appear like pepper

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89
Q

What fly is most likely to spread disease?

A

House fly

Proven carrier of E. Coli, Salmonella, shigella

90
Q

What are the common problem moth and beetles

A

Saw tooth grain beetle
Rice weevil
Indian meal moth

91
Q

Food service employees in a afloat, tactical, or deployed situation are considered to be non-HSP or HSP?

A

HSP

92
Q

who develops the medical screening policy

A

senior surgeon (command surgeon)

93
Q

What distance should a food service facility be away from latrines, water storage, and disposal areas?

A

300 feet or 100 yards

94
Q

What distance from sleeping areas and bodies of water is a food service facility?

A

90 feet or 30 yards

95
Q

Where is camo paint not authorized?

A

Preparing food
washing or sanitizing food equipment
performing kitchen patrol duties

96
Q

Define what color additive is

A

dye, pigment, or other substance by a process of synthesis or similar artifice or extracted or isolated or other wise derrived from a vegetable, animal, mineral, or other source.

97
Q

What is a cross connection?

A

physical link through which contaminates from non-potable sources can enter through a potable water supply

98
Q

What is dd form 2972

A

food facility risk assessment survey

99
Q

what is dd form 2973

A

food operation inspection report

100
Q

what is dd form 2974

A

tactical kitchen inspection report

101
Q

what is dd form 2971?

A

conditional employee or food employee reporting agreement

102
Q

What are the 5 types of inspection

A 
pre-operational
routine inspection
follow-up inspection
compliant inspection
walkthrough inspection
103
Q

what are the inspection ratings?

A

Fully compliant
Substantially compliant: no IHH and two or less critical COS and five or less non critical

Partially: No IHH, 3+ Critical COS, 6+ non critical

Non-Compliant: IHH present; any critical not COS

104
Q

What do capitalized words mean?

A

Alert the reader to the fact that there is a specific meaning to those words

105
Q

What does italicized words mean?

A

Provisions are not requirements

106
Q

How is critical identified?

A

with an asterisk *

107
Q

how is non-critical identified?

A

Bold Superscripted N

108
Q

What does Shall mean

A

Act is imperative

109
Q

What does may not mean

A

Absolute prohibition

110
Q

what does may mean

A

permissive and act is allowed

111
Q

what does should mean

A

Action is recommended

112
Q

What is a vector

A

any arthropod or rodent capable of transmitting disease to individuals

113
Q

what is a host?

A

individual potentially susceptible to illnes

114
Q

what is a reservoir

A

acts as an INTERMEDIATE HOST

115
Q

What is a pesticide?

A

any substance or mixture of substances that kill pests

116
Q

What are the functions of a Navy entomologist

A

onsite consultation
technical assistance
recommendation

117
Q

What is DOD Directive 4150.07

A

Dept. of Defense Pest management program

118
Q

What instruction provides Navy and USMC policies and procedures for implementing pest management programs

A

OPNAVINST 6250.4C

119
Q

What is the shipboard pest control MANUAL?

A

NAVMED P-5052-26

120
Q

Who is responsible for standardizing pesticide and equipment recommended by BUMED for use aboard ship

A

NAVSEASYSCOM

121
Q

Who is responsible for monitoring and evaluating shipboard pest management programs

A

BUMED

121
Q

Who is responsible for monitoring and evaluating shipboard pest management programs

A

BUMED

122
Q

Who is responsible for procuring approved pest control supplies and equipment

A

SMDR

123
Q

What are the three DOD pesticide standards?

A

Restricted (Trained)
Non-restricted (No training)
Nonstandard pesticides

124
Q

Insecticides can be divided into what categories

A

adulticide
larvicide
ovicide (egg)

125
Q

The pesticide Organophosphate consist of what two common types

A

malathion

dursban

126
Q

What types of synthetics are common?

A

Pyrethroids

d-Phenothrin

127
Q

What is FIFRA

A

Federal insecticide, fungicide and rodenticide act of 1972

128
Q

What warning statement has an antidote statement on it and is highly toxic?

A

Danger

129
Q

All pesticides must bear the words _____

A

Keep out of reach of children

130
Q

When using respirators, when will you change the canister

A

8 hours of use or when pesticide can be smelled

4 hours during heavy spraying

131
Q

What type of goggles will be worn when working with pesticides

A

unvented or indirectly vented goggles
or
face shield

132
Q

What kind of boots will be worn

A

rubber

133
Q

What bait station pesticides are authorized for use

A

Combat quick kill

avert bait station

134
Q

What aerosol pesticides are authorized

A 
Permethrin
Perma-dust
D-Phenothirn
PT 565 Plus XO
PT 22 
PT Crack and crevice
CB Air devil 
CB D-force
135
Q

What pesticides are growth regulators

A

Gentrol Point source

136
Q

organophosphates causes IRREVERSIBLE cholinesterase inhibition, what are the signs and symptoms

A

Mild: headache, dizziness, weakness, anxiety, miosis (pupil constriction) nausea and visual impairment

Moderate: Nausea, salivation lacrimation, abdominal cramps, slow pulse, resp. compromise, and muscle tremors

Severe: Pinpoint non reactive pupils, pulmonary edema, muscle spasms, LOSS OF Sphincter CONTROL , coma and eventual death

137
Q

Carbamate poisonings are reversible but what are some signs and symptoms

A

pupil constriction, salivation, profuse sweating, lassitude, muscle incoordination

138
Q

What is 2 PAM contraindicated with?

A

Carbamate poisoning

139
Q

What are the minimum requirements for a spill kit

A 
absorbent material 
shovel
leak-proof barrel
detergent and water or chlorine bleach 
Appropriate PPE
140
Q

In the event of a pesticide spill what is the number one priority

A

Confine the pesticide

141
Q

Shipboard pest control is documented in TWO places, in SAMS and a separate pest control log. What is in the pest control log?

A 
Material inventory
Pierside/onboard inspection
Ship sanitation control exemption certificate/ Ship sanitation control cert (SSCEC/SSCC)
Courtesy tech assist visits
Pesticide use
142
Q

What form will you send monthly to NECE via email?

A

e-DD1532-1

143
Q

What is Pediculus Humanus Humanus?

A

Body louse

nit attach to clothing and undergarments

144
Q

What is pediculus humanus capitis

A

Head louse

145
Q

what is pthirus pubis and where is it found

A

Crab louse

Found in hairs of pubis, anal region and eyebrows

146
Q

What is the treatment for lice

A

elimite

Family members treated simultaneously

147
Q

What temp will you wash clothing infected with lice at?

A

37.8C or 100F or higher as it greatly reduces eggs from hatching

148
Q

How can you identify an American Cockroach?

A

yellow posterior border stripe

149
Q

What is the control method for cockroaches

A

Sanitation

150
Q

How often will you survey food service areas for cockroach

A

every two weeks by using sticky traps

151
Q

After a space has been treated with a pesticide, how long will you wait until you wipe surfaces areas

A

24 hours

152
Q

What pest has a greyish band across the upper 1/3 of their reddish brown wings and is known for moth larvae spinning silk webbing

A

indian meal moth

153
Q

What are flour beetles also known as

A

Tribolium

154
Q

What beetle is medically important due to their outside hairs causing intestinal trauma, eye irritation, dermatitis and allergic reaction

A

Dermestid (Khapra)

155
Q

What beetle can live for several years without food?

A

Dermestid (Khapra)

156
Q

What is the most commonly found stored products pest aboard ship

A

saw tooth grain beetle

157
Q

What is the most destructive pest

A

rice weevil

158
Q

What are some food items with high insect infestation potential

A

Grain type food items
Dry mix
Flour
dry foods

159
Q

how often are routine inspections conducted by medical

A

monthly

160
Q

____ weeks at ____ degrees F is required to kill all stages of insects

A

2 weeks at 0F

161
Q

Which fly vomits on food and laps it up?

A

house fly

162
Q

What is the most widely distributed insect of importance to mankind?

A

house fly

163
Q

How long does the pupa stage of the house fly last?

A

usually 4-5 days

164
Q

What are the identifiable characteristics of blow fly?

A

Identifiable by their large metallic shining blue or green abdomens

165
Q

Which fly do only females have piercing mouth parts for sucking blood

A

sand fly

166
Q

Which fly folds their wings in a scissor-like fashion?

A

TSE TSE

167
Q

Fly in which both genders are bloodsuckers

A

TSE TSE

168
Q

Which fly causes Onochocerciasis (river blindness)?

A

BLACK FLY

169
Q

Which fly causes anthrax and tularemia?

A

HORSE OR DEER FLY

170
Q

Which fly has a short flight range?

A

SAND FLY

171
Q

Which mosquito has Lyre-shaped silver-white lines on the thorax

A

Aedes Aegypti

172
Q

Which mosquito lays eggs singly on the side of containers at or above the waterline?

A

Aedes Aegypti

173
Q
  1. Which mosquito transfers malaria
A

Anopheles

174
Q
  1. Which mosquito transfers Yellow Fever
A

Aedes Aegypti

175
Q

Which mosquito lays eggs in rafts of 100 or more

A

Culex

176
Q

Which mosquito lays eggs singly on the water surface and supported by lateral floats?

A

ANOPHELES

177
Q

House Fly Disease transmissions

A

many disease organisms or cause myiasis

178
Q

blow fly disease transmission

A

Larvae (surgical maggots) may cause myiasis

179
Q

sand fly disease transmission

A

i. Bacterial (Bartonella)
ii. Viral (Sand Fly or pappataci fever)
iii. Protozoal (leishmaniasis)

180
Q

TSE TSE fly disease transmission

A

i. Capable of transmitting Trypanosomiasis

181
Q

Horse fly or deer fly disease transmission

A

i. Bacterial (Anthrax or Tularemia
ii. Protozoan (Trypanosomiasis)
iii. Helminthic (Loa Loa) infections. Loiasis or African Eye Worm

182
Q

Aedes Aegypti disease transmission

A

i. Dengue Fever
ii. Yellow Fever
iii. Tularemia
iv. Filarial Nematodes

183
Q

what mosquito causes malaria

A

Anopheles

184
Q

what mosquito causes Encephalomyelitis

A

culex

185
Q

Fleas are what type of parasite?

A

Ectoparasites

186
Q

What flea is the exception, burrowing into the skin of its host, particularly between the toes, under toe nails, and tender part of feet?

A

Chigoe Flea

187
Q

Oriental rat fleas is chief vector of what disease

A

a. Bubonic plague

b. Flea borne typhus

188
Q

If building is infested how high do you spray

A

2 feet

189
Q

To prevent entry into structures how high do you spray

A

2-3 feet

190
Q

Which tick has a Scutum

A

hard ticks

191
Q

Which tick does NOT have Scutum

A

soft ticks

192
Q

what diseases are caused by hard ticks

A

a. Lyme Disease
b. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (Tick Typhus)
c. Tick-Borne Rickettsioses of Eastern Hemisphere

193
Q

Which tick causes a bacterial infection that causes a reoccurring fever

A

soft tick

194
Q

What is the best control method for ticks

A

clear vegetation from infested areas

195
Q

Scabies is also known as

A

itch mite

causes intense itching and occasionally erythema

196
Q

mite larva has how many legs

A

6 legs

197
Q

nymph and adult stage mites have how many legs

A

8 legs

198
Q

What is the treatment of mites parasitic on man

A

elimite

heat sterilization of clothing and bedding

199
Q

where does the itch mite burrow

A

Burrows in horny layer of the dermis

200
Q

Bedbugs are what type of feeders

A

nocturnal

201
Q

What can bedbugs affect?

A

Annoying and can seriously affect morale

202
Q

Where do bedbugs hide

A

in seams of mattresses

203
Q

Where will I apply my pesticides

A

a. Sides and seams of the mattresses.
b. Racks.
c. Corners of bunks.
d. Empty lockers.

204
Q

What is the most common type of rat

A

Rattus Norvegicus

Norway rat

205
Q

Which rat has a shorter tail than the head and body combined

A

Rattus Norvegicus

206
Q

What is the Rattus Norvegicus preferred food?

A

garbage, meat, fish, veggies, fruit, and ceral

207
Q

What rat is frequently found on ships

A

Rattus Rattus

Roof Rat

208
Q

What is the preferred food of the rattus rattus?

A

seeds, cereals, veggies, fruits, grass, leather goods and even weaker members of its own kind

209
Q

What is the smallest of domestic rodents

A

House mouse

210
Q

What is the largest rodent

A

norway rat

211
Q

What is the home range of the house mouse

A

10- 30 feet

212
Q

For all rodents what are some approved and not authorized control methods

A

Approved: traps

Not authorized: Rodenticides

213
Q

What is the minimum diameter of rat guards

A

36 INCHES

214
Q

How far away from the pier and how far away from vessel will the rat guard be placed

A

6 feet from pier

2 feet from ship

215
Q

The rat guard cone should face which direction

A

point of cone, faces the ship

216
Q

BUMEDINST 6210.4

A

SHIP SANITATION CERTIFICATE PROGRAM REQUIREMENTS

217
Q

All current Ship sanitation control exemption/ ship sanitation control certificate is required for?

A

Environmental Health surveys (EHS)
Medical readiness evaluation (MRE)
Entering foreign ports

218
Q

How long is the ship sanitation control exemption/ ship sanitation control certificate valid for>

A

6 months may be extended once for one month BY THE ORGINAL ISSUER

219
Q

What personnel are authorized to issue SSCE/SSCC

A

Prevmed- Tech

WITH NMCPHC prior approval the following may be authorized as an inspector

220
Q

What is NAVMED 6210/1

A

US Ship sanitation control exemption/ Ship sanitation control certificate

221
Q

What is NAVMED 6210/3

A

Declaration of Health Certificate

222
Q

Who maintains SSCE/SSCC

A

Medical Department

IDC School (13 decks)

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