Unit 4 Lecture Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Cardiac muscle cells are held together end-to-end at complex junctions called ________ that consist of interdigitated membranes.

A

Intercalated disks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Within the junctions (intercalated disks) the cells are physically tethered by these strong connections that allow force created in one cell to be transferred to the adjacent cell.

A

Desmosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

______ a component of Intercalated disks allow cardiac muscle cells to be electronically connected. These direct conduits between myocardial cells allow waves of depolarization to pass rapidly between cells causing them to contract almost simultaneously.

A

Gap junctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

These specific myocardial cells make up about 99% of the heart, are striated muscle, and have thick and thin filaments organized into sarcomeres

A

Contractile cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

These specific myocardial cells make up about 1% of the heart and mostly lack thick and thin filaments. Rather they are specialized for passing electrical signals around the heart.

A

Conducting cells (autorhythmic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

This general category of vessel directly returns blood back to the heart atria.

A

Veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

This general category of vessels directly receives blood from the heart ventricles

A

Arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

These blood vessels are the primary site of vasoconstriction and vasodilation because they contain large amounts of smooth muscle

A

Arterioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

These blood vessel are where gas, nutrient, and waste exchange occurs in the body

A

Capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

These blood vessels receive deoxygenated blood from the capillaries

A

Venules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The circuit of the cardiovascular system that conducts deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs and returns oxygenated blood back to the heart is called the _____

A

Pulmonary circuit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The circuit of the cardiovascular system that conducts oxygenated blood from the heart to body tissues and returns deoxygenated blood back to the heart is called the

A

Systemic circuit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

_____ defines the amount of blood that is pumped by one ventricle during a single contraction

A

Stroke volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The total volume of blood pumped by one ventricle during a given period of time - typically one minuet - is called the _____

A

Cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

This concept explains that the heart must pump all the blood that returns to it and the force of heart contraction is determined by the volume of blood returning to it at any given moment

A

Frank starling law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

_____ is a term that describes all the electrical and physical events that happen in the heart during one contraction-relaxation cycle

A

Cardiac cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If we count the number of contraction-relaxation cycles that happen in one minute that defines a persons _____

A

Heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The volume of blood entering the heart form the Venus circulation at any given moment is called _____

A

Venous return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

_____ defines the volume of blood left in a ventricle at the end of its contraction phase

A

End-systolic volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

_____ defines the maximum amount of blood that a ventricle can hold when it is fully relaxed

A

End-diastolic volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

_____ describes the time when a heart chamber (atria or ventricles) are contracting and pumping blood

A

Systole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

_____ describes the time when a heart chamber (atria or ventricles) are relaxing and filling with blood

A

Diastole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which ion are funny If channels more permeable too?

A

Na+ ions (they are less permeable to K+ ions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

At the peak of the depolarization of a conducting cell, the funny If channels close and _____ channels open, resulting in the repolarization phase.

A

Slow K+ channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When contractile cells receive a depolarization fro the adjacent conducting or contractile cell, they immediately depolarize through the opening of _____ channels.

A

Voltage gated Na+ channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When the membrane potential reaches +20 mV channels for this ion open and close quickly, causing a very brief repolarization. For contractile cells action potential

A

K+ channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What channels are open during the pacemaker potential segment of a conducting cell action potential

A

If (funny) channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

In the SA node the conduction action potential, what channel is open during the depolarization phase

A

Voltage gated Ca2+ channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

In the SA node conducting action potential the part of the action potential before the threshold is the _____. Is gets a special name to denote how it automatically climbs toward the threshold. What is that special name

A

Pacemaker potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the resting membrane potential if contracting cells action potential

A

-90 mV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When contractile cells receive a depolarization from an adjacent conducting or contractile cell they immediately depolarize - Through the opening of these channels.

A

Voltage gated Na+ channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When the membrane potential reaches +20mV stage in the contractile cells action potential this ion channel is open very quickly and closes very quickly. Causing a brief repolarization

A

K+ channel (creating the nubbin of the action potential)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The plateau of the contractile cells action potential is due to _____ channels opening. This ion moving into the cell leads to power strokes in the contractile less and sarcomere shortening.

A

Voltage gated Ca2+ channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

After the voltage gated Ca2+ channels close (in the contractile cell action potential) the cell will rapidly repolarize. This change in membrane potential is due to the opening of what kind of channels?

A

Slow K+ channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Stats about oxygenated blood

A
  • Higher O2 pressure and lower CO2 pressure.
  • blood is coming back from the pulmonary circuit after getting oxygenated
    -blood enters the left side of the heart through left pulmonary veins
  • oxygenated blood then is pumped out of the heart from the left ventricle to all body cells via the systemic circuit.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Stats about deoxygenated blood

A
  • Lower O2 pressure higher CO2 pressure
  • O2 is a nutrient for ATP production, so it gets deflected as the blood runs through the body
  • CO2 is a waste product made in ATP
  • deoxygenated blood is returning from the systemic circuit
  • the right side of the heart receives the deoxygenated blood and then pumps the blood to the lungs via pulmonary circuit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the frank starling law

A

The heart must pump all blood that returns to it and it’s force of contraction is partially determined by how much blood returns to it (venous return stretching the sarcomeres)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The pulmonary circuit

A

From the right side of the heart to the lungs
Blood picks up O2 and drops off CO2
Returns to the left side of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The systemic circuit

A

From the left side of the heart to all body cells
Blood drops off O2 and picks up CO2 and other metabolic wastes
Also distributes hormones, stored nutrients (glucose, triglycerides, etc) immune cells, and immunoglobulins around the body
Returns to the right side of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the three portal systems in the body and what does that mean

A

Means that there are two capillaries that blood flows through in one circuit
1. Digestive system/liver
2. Kidneys
3. Brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the components of the cellular matrix of blood

A

Red blood cells (erythrocytes), white blood cells (leukocytes) and platelets (thrombocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is in the liquid matrix of the blood

A

The liquid matrix is plasma
Contains: nutrients for atp, glucose, lipids, signal molecules (hormones/neurohormones) cytokines, immunoglobulins (antibodies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are cytokines

A

Signal molecules any nucleated cell can make. They are made on demand and released into the blood (immune ones sometimes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Why are arteries the thickest?

A

They are closest to the left ventricle and need to handle the most pressure. They need to be strong and large in diameter. They have fibrous tissue that gives strength to the artery. They also have elastic tissue that gives stretchiness to the artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Stats about the makeup of arterioles

A

They have smooth muscle cells surrounding them allowing them to change in diameter. Smooth muscle cells in arterioles are the effector in total peripheral resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The smallest and most delicate, very leaky, doe exchange of nutrients and waste pickup

A

Capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the standard unit for liquid pressure (BP) and gas pressure

A

MmHg (millimeters of mercury)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is needed for fluid to flow from one place to another

A

A pressure gradient, if there is no pressure gradient then there will be no flow in the system. The difference in pressure between two points on a vessel determines the flow rate (Volume per unit time)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

_____ prevent back flow is pressure builds up on one end

A

One way valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What vessels in the cardiac system have the most pressure

A

The pressure is at the highest closest to the left ventricle. Highest in the arteries and then lowest in the veins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the two body pumps that help get blood back to the heart

A

The respiratory pump and the muscle pump
- the respiratory pump is pressure fluctuations during ventilation that push blood to the heart.
- the muscle pump is skeletal muscles that squeeze on veins with 1 way valves to aid in venous return.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The way we measure blood pressure is called _____. Also known as the pressure against the walls of a closed container. The force is exerted on the walls of the container by the fluid inside

A

Hydrostatic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What do we use to measure blood pressure

A

And inflatable cuff and a sphygmomanometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

_____ is a blood pressure measurement that can be measured within the artery. It’s more invasive and is typically only done in surgery or extreme cases

A

Hydraulic blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the three factors that directly effect blood pressure

A

Total peripheral resistance
Cardiac output
Total blood volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Total blood volume facts card

A
  • the total volume in most adults is about 5L
  • direct relationship with blood pressure. Increase in blood volume = increase in BP, decrease = decrease in BP.
  • regulated very slowly by the urinary system. The effectors are the kidneys
  • dehydration or water intoxication can change the volume of blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the effector for total blood volume

A

Kidneys, in the urinary system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Total peripheral resistance facts card

A
  • total peripheral resistance is: how hard your heart has to work to push blood through your blood vessels, also defined as the opposing force the heart must overcome to pump blood around the body.
  • friction that your heart has to pump against. Blood cells bouncing off one another and off of the vessel walls.
  • vasoconstriction = increase in per resistance (direct relationship) = increase in BP
  • vasodilation = decrease in per. Resistance (inverse relationship) = decrease in BP
  • smooth muscle cells on the arterioles are the effector for both
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the effector for stroke volume

A

Contracting cells at the left ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the effector for heart rate

A

Conducting cells at the sinoartial node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the three sub factors that effect total peripheral resistance

A

Vessel diameter, blood viscosity, and vessel length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

These blood vessels have the smallest diameter. They are also the site of exchange for nutrients, wastes, and signal molecules between the blood and body tissues since they are composed only of a single layer of loosely connected endothelial cells

A

Capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

These blood vessels deliver blood to specific tissues and the smooth muscle cells embedded in their walls give them variable resistance. These characteristics make them ideal for fine tuning blood flow to meet the metabolic demands of different tissues around the body

A

Arterioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

These blood vessels collect blood just after is has had a chance to exchange nutrients, wastes, and signal molecules with body tissues and start its return journey to the heart

A

Venules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

These blood vessels have the widest diameters and therefore hold more than help of the blood in our bodies. They also typically run close to the surface of our skin, so they must have both fibrous tissue for strength and elastic tissue for flexibility

A

Veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

These blood vessels are structurally reinforced with elastic and fibrous tissue, since they must withstand the highest blood pressures

A

Arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

When considering blood pressure two values are always recorded. The _____ pressure represents the maximum pressure that occurs in an artery near the heart and follows ventricular contraction

A

Systolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The _____ pressure represents the minimum pressure in an artery near the heart and coincides with ventricular relaxation

A

Diastolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

There are three main factors that determine your blood pressure at any given moment. One factor referred to as _____ focuses in how hard your heart is working at that moment. This factor combines the number of beats per minute and the volume of blood pumped per ventricular contraction, both of which are controlled by the autonomic efferent pathways

A

Cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Another key factor in determining blood pressure is the water content of the blood plasma. This factor is referred to as _____ and is regulated primarily by the kidneys with guidance from both autonomic and hormonal efferent pathways

A

Total blood volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

A third factor that influences your blood pressure, called____is determined by the variable diameter or radius of the arterials. This factor is mostly under tonic, sympathetic control and strategically divert more blood flow to hard-working areas and sends less blood flow to less-essential organs at any given time.

A

Total peripheral resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The skeletal muscles, liver, and heart muscle will receive more or less blood at times of exercise?

A

More

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The digestive system, urinary system and reproductive organs will all receive mor or less blood flow during exercise?

A

Less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

When high levels of nitric oxide is released as a paracrine signal molecule by neurons, that will cause _____ blood flow to those neurons

A

Increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The area around an infection will become red and swollen due to _____ blood flow to that area.

A

Increased

76
Q

When you have a cut in the skin, thrombocytes (platelets) in the blood will be attracted to the area and release high levels of serotonin. This signal molecule stimulates _____ blood flow in the damaged area to limit its loss from the body as the injury is repaired

A

Decreased

77
Q

When body tissues have very high levels of oxygen present this gas acts as a paracrine signal leading to _____ blood flow to that area. This change allows cells in the area to use up the surplus oxygen and return conditions to homeostasis.

A

Decrease (rest and digest mode)

78
Q

When body tissues are very active they will increase their production of ATP. This in turn causes more production of carbon dioxide and H+ ions. Which theme leads to increased pH. Under these conditions those ions will be signal molecules and will cause an _____ in blood flow through that area to help return conditions to homeostasis.

A

Increased

79
Q

Vasopressin is a neurohormone released by posterior pituitary. It is released at high levels when the body becomes dehydrates and total blood volume drops. Vasopressin therefore acts at a _____ to increase peripheral resistance around the body and help to bring blood pressure back up.

A

Vasoconstrictor

80
Q

Low levels of hormone called angiotensin II are produces when the body is over hydrated and total blood volume increases. Under these conditions angiotensin II functions as a _____ to help bring blood pressure back down

A

Vasodilator

81
Q

Natriuretic peptides are hormones that produced at high levels when blood volume and blood pressure are high. Therefore under these conditions these hormones functions as a _____to help bring blood pressure back down

A

Vasodilator

82
Q

There are two main types of capillaries scattered around the body. _______ are located in areas that need maximum exchange between the blood and interstitial fluid, such as in capillaries passing through the kidneys or around the small intestines. These capillaries are extremely leaky, due to their loose junctions between endothelial cells and pores in their plasma membrane

A

Fenestrated capillaries

83
Q

All other areas of the body that just need regular levels of exchange between the blood and interstitial fluid have _______. These capillaries are only moderately leaky at the junctions between endothelial cells

A

Continuous capillaries

84
Q

These porous blood vessels are not technically capillaries, but they do allow for exchange of blood cells and plasma proteins with surrounding tissues. They are also much wider than standard capillaries. These kinds of vessels are found only in the bone marrow, liver, and spleen

A

, Sinusoids

85
Q

Levels of oxygen, glucose, amino acids, and hormones are higher in the blood plasma passing through capillaries, relative to the interstitial fluid around nearby body cells. By contrast, metabolic wastes, such as carbon dioxide, creatinine, or urea, are released by cells. The level of these molecules is higher in the interstitial fluid than in the blood plasma passing through nearby capillaries. Movement of these solutes into or out of the leaky capillaries occurs down their individual concentration gradients by the process of ______.

A

Diffusion

86
Q

Large proteins that are too bulky to pass through loose junctions between endothelial cells or fenestrations use a different mechanism to leave the blood plasma. They enter capillary endothelial cells by endocytosis, get trafficked across the cytoskeleton in vesicles, and then leave these cells by exocytosis to join the interstitial fluid of tissue cells. This membrane transport mechanism is called ________.

A

Transcytosis

87
Q

When water leaves capillaries and enters the interstitial fluid around tissue cells that process is called

A

Filtration

88
Q

When water enters the capillaries and leaves the interstitial fluid around tissue cells that process is called

A

Absorption

89
Q

Two pressures dictate how much water leaves a capillary and how much enters it. This pressure drives absorption and uses osmotically- active solutes to pull water from the interstitial fluid into the capillaries.

A

Colloid osmotic pressure

90
Q

This pressure drives filtration and describes the pressure pushing out against the inner walls of the capillaries. This pressure is also typically synonymous with “blood pressure”, at least for the intents and purposes of this class.

A

Hydrostatic pressure

91
Q

When more water leaves a capillary network than enters it, tissue swelling, more technically called ______, will occur in that localized area.

A

Edema

92
Q

This is the term for the liquid matrix of the blood. It is made up of 92% water, 7% dissolved proteins, and 1% other dissolved biomolecules

A

Plasma

93
Q

plasma is identical to interstitial fluid except for the presence of _____ in blood.

A

plasma proteins

94
Q

This is the most abundant protein in the liquid matrix of the blood. It
makes up about 60% of the total protein content of that fluid

A

albumin

95
Q

This protein dissolved in the liquid matrix of the blood is essential for
creating clots after an injury to the vascular system occurs.

A

fibrogen

96
Q

Another important category of protein that is dissolved in the liquid
matrix is _________, which provide defense from foreign invaders by
binding to their surface and “tagging” them for destruction.

A

immunoglobulins

97
Q

The technical name for red blood cells is _______. They lose their
nucleus by the time they enter the bloodstream, where they carry
oxygen and carbon dioxide. They also only live for about 4 months.

A

erythrocytes

98
Q

The technical name for white blood cells is _______. They are cells of
the immune system and defend the body against pathogens.

A

leukocytes

99
Q

These cellular elements, commonly called platelets, also lack a nucleus
and are critical for blood clotting after a vascular injury.

A

thrombocytes

100
Q

The larger cell type that platelets split off from during development is
called a __________.

A

megakaryocyte

101
Q

All the cellular elements in blood are descended from a single
precursor cell type known as a __________ stem cell.

A

pluripotent hematopoietic

102
Q

pluripotent hematopoietic resides in the _______ , and can develop into many different cell types.

A

Bone marrow

103
Q

_______ is the term for the synthesis of blood cells, which begins
during embryonic development and continues throughout a person’s
life

A

hematopoiesis

104
Q

Signal molecules in this category control hematopoiesis (synthesis of blood cells). They are made on-demand (not stored in
vesicles) by any nucleated cell and travel through the blood stream

A

cytokines

105
Q

This specific signal molecule stimulates hematopoietic stem cells to
grow and differentiate into all types of blood cells, especially white
blood cells.

A

Colony-stimulating factors

106
Q

This specific signal molecule influences the growth and differentiation
of red blood cells specifically. It is produced by the kidney.

A

Erythropoietin

107
Q

This specific signal molecule influences the growth and differentiation
of the parent cell for platelets.

A

Thrombopoietin

108
Q

The ratio of red blood cells to plasma is indicated clinically by the
_____ and is expressed as a percentage of the total blood volume.

A

Hematocrit

109
Q

Because each red blood cell has lost its _____, they cannot synthesize
new proteins to maintain their membrane or enzymes to carry out
other repair processes. This contributes to their short, 4-month
lifespan

A

nucleus

110
Q

Because red blood cells lack ___, they must rely on glycolysis for their
ATP production.

A

mitochondria

111
Q

In some red blood cell disorders, the shape or ______ of the cells can
give clues as to the specific disease.

A

morphology

112
Q

For example, in this disorder, the red blood cells change shape to
resemble a crescent. This abnormal shape causes these cells to jam up
in small blood vessels, blocking blood flow to tissues, which causes
tissue damage and sometimes extreme pain

A

sickle cell disease

113
Q

When red blood cells are microcytic, often due to an iron deficiency,
their _____ is abnormally small.

A

Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)

114
Q

This protein is the main component of red blood cells and is best
known for its role in transporting oxygen. We will also see in lecture
that it also transports carbon dioxide as well as hydrogen ions

A

Hemoglobin

115
Q

When blood cells are removed from circulation, the liver converts
remnants of hemoglobin into a
colored pigment called ______

A

Bilirubin

116
Q

Bilirubin (the pigment made from the remnants of hemoglobin) is then used to
synthesize _____, which is an important part of the digestive process.

A

Bile

117
Q

f a person has very low levels of hemoglobin in their blood, they have
a condition called _____. This condition can be caused by accelerated
red blood cell loss or decreased red blood cell production.

A

anemia

118
Q

This term includes all the physiological mechanisms engaged to keep
blood within a damaged vessel.

A

Hemostasis

119
Q

As soon as vessel damage occurs, the first step in repair is a reflex that
causes release of paracrine signal molecules that cause _____ in the
immediate area, which minimizes blood loss. Putting pressure on a
bleeding wound also aids in this underlying process.

A

Vasoconstriction

120
Q

Exposed collagen fibers at the site of damage will cause ______ to
adhere and start the process of clotting.

A

Platelets (thrombocytes)

121
Q

when platelets (thrombocytes) adhere to the
collagen, they become activated and release ____ into the area around
the injury. Two specific examples are serotonin and thromboxane A2,
which are localized vasoconstrictors to again help minimize blood loss

A

cytokines

122
Q

The secretion of the specific signal molecules mentioned in the
previous question, along with another called platelet-activating factor
(PAF), stimulate more platelet aggregation and more secretion of these
signal molecules. This is an example of a (positive or negative)
feedback loop

A

posative

123
Q

The final hemostatic mechanism is called the ______ and occurs when
a fibrin protein mesh ensnares erythrocytes and stabilizes the platelet
plug to form a clot (see Figure 16.11b for a visual).

A

coagulation cascade

124
Q

Once the damaged vessel is repaired through the process of mitosis,
the clot retracts when the fibrin mesh is slowly dissolved by an enzyme
called ____

A

plasmin

125
Q

Hemostasis is a delicate balance between too little response (which
can lead to excessive bleeding) or too much, which could create a ____
that can block blood flow in an undamaged vessel and deprive all its
tissues of vital nutrients

A

Thrombus (blood clot)

126
Q

_____ are chemicals released by endothelial cells that prevent
coagulation from taking place

A

anticoagulants

127
Q

The body naturally produces three anticoagulants. Two of these have fairly obscure names, like
protein C and antithrombin III, but the third is commonly used in a
clinical setting to prevent a blood sample from clotting prior to
analysis. It is called______

A

Heparin

128
Q

People who are at risk of developing small blood clots are sometimes
told to take one ____ tablet every other day to thin the blood.
However, this chemical does not really affect blood viscosity. It
actually prevents platelet plug formation and therefore helps to inhibit
clot formation and prevent heart attacks or strokes

A

asprin

129
Q

This is the best-known coagulation disorder where one of the factors in
the coagulation cascade is either defective or lacking, leading to
excessive bleeding

A

Hemophilia

130
Q

A disease causing invader is generally called a ____

A

pathogen

131
Q

any foreign particle (molecule, cell, etc) that can trigger an immune response is called an

A

antigen

132
Q

_______ are single-celled organisms that can survive and reproduce
outside a host if conditions are ideal

A

Bacteria

133
Q

_______ are not composed of cells, so they are not considered alive.
Rather these organisms have a protein coat or capsid, as well as an
additional protective envelope sometimes.

A

Viruses

134
Q

These pathogens are not very common in the United States, but do
pose a serious health threat elsewhere in the world

A

parasites

135
Q

These pathogens can have DNA or RNA as their genetic material.

A

viruses

136
Q

These single-cell microorganisms are susceptible to antibiotics.

A

bacteria

137
Q

Some varieties of these microorganisms can cause damage to your
cell’s DNA and therefore may sometimes cause cancer.

A

viruses

138
Q

_______ are multi-cellular organisms that must invade a host cell and
use its resources to reproduce

A

parasites

139
Q

these are the smallest of the three pathogens discussed in this section
and cannot reproduce without invading a host cell.

A

viruses

140
Q

These microorganisms are also not susceptible to antibiotics, but there
are a few drugs that can disrupt parts of their replication cycle

A

viruses

141
Q

These microorganisms do not package their DNA in a nucleus and
typically surround their cell membrane with a protective cell wall.

A

bacteria

142
Q

Your body’s ability to combat the disease-causing microorganisms
discussed in this block of questions is called ______

A

immunity

143
Q

If your immune system is weakened or destroyed, then you would not
be able to fight off infections that you normally could handle. This lack
of normal response is called a(n) _________

A

immunodeficiency disease

144
Q

This kind of immunity is present from birth and is characterized by a
nonspecific response to invasion by any potential pathogen

A

innate immunity

145
Q

This kind of immunity is directed at specific invaders and can vary in
magnitude and type depending on the specific pathogen. This kind of
immunity also requires experience with a specific pathogen and
“remembers” that prior exposure

A

adaptive immunity

146
Q

The general name for sites in the lymph system where immune cells
form and mature are called _______

A

primary lymphoid tissues

147
Q

The general name for lymph structures where mature immune cells
interact with pathogens and initiate a response are called ____

A

secondary lymphoid tissues

148
Q

This is a two-lobed organ located just above the heart. This gland
produces T lymphocytes

A

thymus gland

149
Q

Besides the thymusgland, this is another area
where immune cells form and mature

A

bone marrow

150
Q

This encapsulated lymph structure contains immune cells that monitor
the blood for foreign invaders.

A

spleen

151
Q

These encapsulated lymph structures are part of the lymphatic
circulation and contain immune cells that screen the lymph fluid for
any foreign invaders

A

lymphnodes

152
Q

The _______ are aggregations in immune cells that appear in smaller
organs around the body, including the tonsils in the mouth and gut-
associated lymphoid tissue (just under the epithelium of the esophagus
and intestines)

A

diffuse lymphoid tissue

153
Q

These signal molecules are proteins released by immune cells that
affect the growth and activity of other immune cells

A

cytokines

154
Q

The technical name for white blood cells is ______.

A

leukocytes

155
Q

This morphological category of white blood cells includes basophils,
mast cells, neutrophils, and eosinophils. It is so named because of the
dark bodies that are visible within each of these cells after staining

A

granulocytes

156
Q

The cells mentioned in the previous question can release enzymes and
other molecules that are toxic to invaders from those dark bodies by
exocytosis. That process of release is called _______

A

degranulation

157
Q

White blood cells can also be grouped by function. This functional
group of white blood cells will engulf and ingest their targets

A

phagocytes

158
Q

In another functional group, white blood cells will engulf pathogens,
break them down, and display fragments of those foreign proteins on
their cell membrane to alert the rest of the immune system. That
group is called _____

A

antigen presenting cells

159
Q

A third functional group of white blood cells will directly attack and kill
foreign invaders by puncturing their membrane and secreting enzymes
which destroy their DNA.

A

cytotoxic cells

160
Q

This specific type of white blood cell is the most numerous, but only
lives for 1-2 days. They kill foreign invaders by ingesting them

A

neutrophils

161
Q

This specific type of white blood cell is the rarest in the circulation, and
releases histamine when it detects foreign antigens. They are similar
to mast cells which live inside your tissues.

A

basophils

162
Q

This specific type of white blood cell is cytotoxic and destroys invaders,
especially antibody-coated parasites

A

eosinophils

163
Q

This specific type of white blood cell is phagocytic and moves through
your tissues, looking for invaders. It is also an antigen-presenting cell.

A

macrophages

164
Q

These immune cells are antigen-presenting cells, and are characterized
by long, thin processes that resemble neuronal dendrites. They are
found in the skin and various organs.

A

dendritic cells

165
Q

This group of white blood cells is diverse (as you will learn in the
coming questions). They mostly mediate the acquired immune
response of the body. You contain about a trillion of these cells at any
given time.

A

lymphocytes

166
Q

One of the specific cell types that belongs to the category lymphocytes is ________. These cells are part of the innate
response to virus-infected cells. They induce these infected cells to
commit suicide.

A

natural killer cells

167
Q

The technical term for cell suicide or programmed cell death is _____

A

apoptosis

168
Q

The immune cells that specifically deal with virus-infected cells secrete
______ which are molecules that interfere with viral replication

A

interferons

169
Q

Some specialized plasma proteins called complement are also
mobilized when viruses and bacteria invade the body. These
specialized proteins, called __________, insert themselves into the cell
membrane of pathogens and virus-infected cells and form giant pores
which causes those infected cells to die

A

membrane attack complexes

170
Q

When a specific pathogen activates ________, they secrete antibodies,
which bind specifically to the invader and tag it for destruction by
other immune cells

A

B lymphocytes

171
Q

When B lymphocytes is actively secreting
antibodies, it is called a ________

A

plasma cells

172
Q

There are two main forms of T lymphocytes that we will learn about in
this course. This type will directly attack and destroy virus-infected
cells

A

cytotoxic T cell

173
Q

This type of T lymphocyte is activated by macrophages that present
fragments of foreign invaders on their membrane. This type of cell
then acts as an “alarm bell” or “town crier” by activating B
lymphocytes and other T cells that actually attack the invader.

A

helper T cells

174
Q

The ________ are a family of membrane protein complexes where
foreign antigens can be displayed and activate other immune cells.

A

major histocompatibility complexes

175
Q

This specific class of the proteins named major histocompatibility complex is
found in all nucleated cells of the body. These platforms are used to
display bits of viral or bacterial proteins on their surface when they
become infected. This alerts the rest of the immune system of the
invasion

A

major histocompatibility complex class 1

176
Q

This specific class of proteins named major histocompatibility complex is found primarily
in antigen-presenting cells. When they engulf an invader, they use
these platforms to display bits of the virus or bacteria. This again alerts
the rest of the immune system of the invasion

A

major histocompatibility complex class 2

177
Q

What are the local vasodilators at high levels

A

Bradykinin, Histamine, Natriuretic peptides

178
Q

what are the local vasoconstrictors at high levels

A

serotonin, vasopressin, angiotensin II

179
Q

what is atrial natriuretic peptide

A

a local vasodilator

180
Q

what does high perfusion in the capillaries mean

A

high blood flow. The precapillary sphincters are open. High waste pickup and high nutrient drop off.

181
Q

What does low perfusion in the capillaries mean

A

low blood flow, the precapillary sphincters are mainly closed, there is lower waste pickup and low nutrient drop off.

182
Q

what is net filtration in the capillaries

A

the water that is leaving the bloodstream at the capillaries. Mostly leaves at the arteriole side of the capillaries. this happens when hydrostatic pressure is greater than osmotic pressure.

183
Q

what is net absorption in the capillaries (Pi symbol)

A

the water that is moving back into the blood capillary bed. that happens at the venous end of the capillary. this is happening because of osmotic pressure being more than hydrostatic pressure.

184
Q

what is hydrostatic pressure (PH)

A

pressure pushing on the walls of blood vessels. also how we get blood pressure.

185
Q
A