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Lab exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

How are contractile cells similar to muscle cells

A
  1. they are striated, meaning that they have similar arrangements of sarcomeres with thick and thin filaments.
  2. they have actin and myosin
  3. when myosin binds to actin force is generated.
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2
Q

How do the cells in the artia and in the ventricles contract

A

All of the cells of the atria must contract simultaneously, then all of the ventricular contractile cells must contract simultaneously.

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3
Q

_____ cells are specialized fluid filled cells that are able to spread en electrical signal rapidly. These cells make up 1% of the myocardial cells and they serve as the wiring system for the heart.

A

conducting myocardial cells

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4
Q

_____ is used to study the electrical activity of the heart

A

electrocardiography (ECG)

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5
Q

the ___ is the artery that is coming off the left ventricle and pumping blood to the rest of the body in the systemic circut

A

aorta

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6
Q

The _____ is the artery that is coming out of the right ventricle. The pulmonary semilunar valve is connected to it

A

pulmonary artery

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7
Q

______ valve is between the pulmonary artery and the right ventricle

A

the pulmonary semilunar valve

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8
Q

the ___ valve is between the right atrium and right ventricle

A

tricuspid valve (aka the right atrioventricular valve)

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9
Q

the ____ is in between the right and left ventricles

A

the interventricular septum

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10
Q

the ____ is between the left atrium and ventricle

A

the bicuspid valve (aka the left atrioventricular valve or mitral valve)

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11
Q

the valve right before the aorta is called the

A

aortic semilunar valve

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12
Q

what are the two types of myocardial cells

A
  1. conducting cells (aka pacemaker or autorhythmic cells)
  2. contracting cells
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13
Q

_____ are specialized fluid filled cells that are able to spread an electrical signal rapidly.

A

conducting cells

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14
Q

These cells make up only 1% of myocardial cells. And they are the “wiring system” of the heart

A

conducting cells

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15
Q

the _____ is the wiring system of the heart, designed to spread a signal rapidly through the atria and then the ventricles. this allows the upper and lower chambers of the heart to function in a coordinated manner.

A

electrical conduction pathway

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16
Q

the ______ is located in the right atrium. The cells of this structure serve as the pacemaker of the heart because it is where action potentials are generated. the cells at this location are the best at self-depolarizing

A

sinoatrial node (SA node)

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17
Q

______ is the characteristic where cells will depolarize on their own without any external influence.

A

autorhythmicity

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18
Q

this pathway is what a signal travels along from the sinoatrial node to the atrioventricular node

A

internodal pathway

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19
Q

during the electrical conduction pathway the signal slows down at the _____ so that the atria have time to complete their contraction

A

atrioventricular node

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20
Q

the ____ part of the electrical conduction pathway follows the atrioventricular node and is also the first part of the pathway that is on the ventricles

A

the bundle of His (aka the AV bundle)

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21
Q

After the bundle of His in the conduction pathway the following step that goes down the interventricular septum is _____

A

the left and right bundle branches

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22
Q

the last area of the electrical conduction pathway is the ____

A

Purkinje fibers

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23
Q

What allows an electrical signal to spread from cell to cell in the heart is the presence of ______. They are connexin complexes that connect the cytosol of one cell to another

A

gap junctions

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24
Q

_____ allows us to view the conduction of the electrical signals through the heart

A

Electrocardiography

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25
Q

If there is a problem with the heart conduction there may be an issue with ______

A

pumping

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26
Q

The P wave represents _____ (in an ECG)

A

atrial depolarization

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27
Q

The first point where the P wave deflects updards is the electrical activity at the _____ (in an ECG)

A

SA node

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28
Q

The flat area after the P wave is called the _____ and indicated that the signal is not moving - at least not very fast - This is the area representing the delay of the signal at the atrioventricular (AV) node

A

PR segment

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29
Q

Movement of the depolarization wave through the large mass of the ventricles is reflected in the _____ (in an ECG)

A

QRS complex

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30
Q

The _____ represents the ventricles repolarizing (in an ECG)

A

T wave

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31
Q

There is no wave for ______ because it would be a tiny deflection that coincides with the QRS complex. (in an ECG)

A

atrial repolarization

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32
Q

The _____ is when the atria are depolarizing and contracting (in an ECG)

A

the PR interval

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33
Q

The _____ interval is when the ventricles are depolarizing and contracting (in an ECG)

A

QT interval

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34
Q

a _____ abnormality in an ECG may indicate decreased blood flow to regions of the heart itself. This is caled coronary ischemia.

A

ST segment alteration

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35
Q

_____ _____ which is damage or death to heart tissue. It can also mean a heart attack

A

Myocardial infarction (also a ST segment alteration)

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36
Q

This ECG abnormality: _____ are conduction problems in the AV node

A

PR interval alterations

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37
Q

This ECG abnormality: _____ aka _____ can indicate ion channel defects, low calcium or potassium levels or drug related complications

A

QT interval alterations (aka elongations)

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38
Q

normal heart rhythm that originates at the sinoatrial node is called _____

A

sinus rhythm

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39
Q

sinus rhythm sets the _____, which under normal resting conditions is between 60 - 100 beats per minute.

A

heart rate

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40
Q

sometimes heart rate (beats per minute) is abnormally fast. This condition is called _____

A

tachycardia

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41
Q

What is abnormally slow heart rate called

A

bradycardia

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42
Q

A _____ originates at the sinoatrial node (sinus) but is irregular. the length of one cardiac cycle to the next can vary because of this.

A

sinus arrhythmia

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43
Q

This state is called _____ when an action potential signal is generated by other cells of the heart before the SA node cells can. This results in a sequence with no normal conduction. The signal originates somewhere in the ventricles and the SA node is not able to regain control as the pacemaker of the heart

A

ventricular tachycardia

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44
Q

When the electrical signal originates elsewhere other than the SA node the cells that originated that signal are called _____

A

ectopic pacemaker

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45
Q

This condition is reported by a person that feels a jump in their heart occasionally. It is called ______. In this condition there is mostly normal sinus rhythm with the occasional ectopic origin. Normal rhythm would be seen on the ECG with a random weird spike and inverted T wave.

A

premature ventricular contractions (PCV)

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46
Q

in a condition called _____ there is no sinus or ectopic rhythm. all cells of the heart are depolarizing at their own rates. there is no coordination - the heart will not work as a pump under this condition. A defibulator must be installed to correct this condition.

A

ventricular fibrillation

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47
Q

A _____ delivers a jolt of electricity to the heart, causing all of the cells to depolarize at once. This allows the cells and the SA node to take over as the pacemaker of the heart and set the heart back to the normal sinus rhythm. This is needed in people experiencing ventricular fibrillation.

A

defibrillator

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48
Q

With no outside influence the heart would beat at ____ bpm

A

100

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49
Q

What is the neurotransmitter released at the SA node by each branch of the ANS

A

parasympathetic releases acetylcholine onto the muscarinic receptors
sympathetic releases norepinephrine onto B1 receptors

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50
Q

the measurement of the number of cardiac cycles per minute is the definition of _____

A

heart rate

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51
Q

the measure of electrical activity in the heart is called _____

A

electrocardiograph

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52
Q

the pacemaker of the heart is the

A

sinoatrial node

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53
Q

when this neurotransmitter binds to its receptors at the cells of the heart’s pacemaker heart rate decreases

A

acetylcholine

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54
Q

when this neurotransmitter binds to its receptors at the cells of the heart pacemaker heart rate increases

A

norepinephrine

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55
Q

the special 1% of myocardial cells that spread an impulse very rapidly through the heart cells are called _____

A

conducting cells

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56
Q

the amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle with every contraction is called

A

stroke volume

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57
Q

the amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle every minute is called

A

cardiac output

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58
Q

The electrical conduction pathway. List 6 steps.

A
  1. sinoatrial node
  2. internodal pathway
  3. atrioventricular node
  4. bundle of His
  5. right and left bundle branches
  6. Purkinje fibers
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59
Q

action potentials can spread from one cells to the next because myocardial cells have these cell-to-cell connections

A

gap junctions

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60
Q

during an ecg these _______ are placed on the participants

A

electrodes

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61
Q

Blood pressure is measured in these units

A

Millimeters of mercury mmHg

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62
Q

heart rate is measured in these units

A

beats per minute bpm

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63
Q

the contraction phase of the cardiac cycle is called

A

systole

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64
Q

the relaxation or refilling phase of the cardiac cycle is called

A

diastole

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65
Q

this measurement is the number of cardiac cycles per minute

A

heart rate

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66
Q

excessively high blood pressure is called

A

hypertension

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67
Q

measuring blood pressure requires the use of this instrument to listen for specific sounds

A

stethoscope

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68
Q

the highest pressure measured during blood pressure monitoring is called the ___ blood pressure

A

systolic

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69
Q

the name of the instrument used to measure the pressure of blood in a blood vessel is

A

sphygmomanometer

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70
Q

the name of the sounds heard while measuring blood pressure are called the _____ sounds

A

Korotkoff

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71
Q

list the three factors that affect blood pressure

A

total peripheral resistance, total blood volume, cardiac output

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72
Q

the number one cause of death for women and men in the US is _____. blood pressure analysis helps us to determine what individuals are at risk for this.

A

cardiovascular disease

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73
Q

elevated blood pressure at rest is called _____. A major risk factor for heart disease.

A

hypertension

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74
Q

The amount of blood pumped by the left ventricle during one contraction.

A

stroke volume

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75
Q

The time when the heart is contracting.

A

systole

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76
Q

The part of the cardiovascular system that carries blood from the right ventricle to the lungs, then to the left atrium

A

pulmonary circulation

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77
Q

The time when the heart is relaxing.

A

diastole

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78
Q

The amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle every minute.

A

cardiac output

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79
Q

The part of the cardiovascular system that carries blood from the left ventricle, to the body, then back to the right atrium.

A

systemic circulation

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80
Q

This occurs when blood vessels increase in inner diameter, resulting in less resistance.

A

vasodilation

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81
Q

The sum of all opposition to blood flow in the arterioles.

A

peripheral resistance

82
Q

The number of heartbeats per minute.

A

heart rate

83
Q

This occurs when the lumen of the blood vessels narrows, resulting in more resistance.

A

vasoconstriction

84
Q

The period of time from the end of one heartbeat through the end of the next beat.

A

cardiac cycle

85
Q

when blood pressure is measured in one of the systemic arteries (typically the brachial artery) the measurement reflects the pressure that the _____ is working against

A

left ventricle

86
Q

As heart disease develops it is the _____ that is commonly the chamber that is most negatively affected

A

left ventricle

87
Q

systolic blood pressure is measured when the left ventricle is ______ or in _____

A

contracting/systole

88
Q

diastolic blood pressure is measured when the left ventricle is _____ or in _____

A

relaxed and refilling/diastole

89
Q

what is the equation for pulse pressure

A

pulse pressure = SBP - DBP

90
Q

what is the equation for mean arterial pressure

A

MAP (mean arterial pressure) = DBP + 1/3 (SBP - DBP)

91
Q

the average pressure vessels face over time is called _____

A

mean arterial pressure (MAP)
MAP = DBP + 1/3 (SBP - DBP)

92
Q

in a clinical setting blood pressure is measured using the _____ method.

A

auscultation method (listening)

93
Q

A _____ is used to measure pressure and a _____ is used to listen for the sounds

A

sphygmomanometer
stethoscope

94
Q

True or false: arm level relative to the heart can significantly affect the accuracy of the resting

A

true

95
Q

Before you start to take the BP measurement you need to locate the brachial artery at the _____

A

antecubital fossa

96
Q

Before taking BP you need to locate the _____ artery

A

brachial

97
Q

true or false: When placing the cuff on the arm for a BP reading you should align the arrow or the tubes of the cuff on the artery.

A

true

98
Q

The ends of the stethoscope are _____ meaning that they use both ears

A

binaural

99
Q

proper placement of the stethoscope is the ear pieces facing ____ from the user when placing them in the ear

A

away

100
Q

Turn the valve of the bulb attached to the cuff in this direction _______ to close it

A

clockwise

101
Q

When you start to take a manual blood pressure you need to bring the pressure meter on the sphygmomanometer up to _____ mmHg. If you hear heart beats at this point you need to raise the pressure further

A

140 mmHg, sometimes higher like 160 mmHg

102
Q

When beginning to take blood pressure the pressure on the sphygmomanometer from the cuff inflating needs to be high enough to cut off blood flow. at this point you should hear _______

A

no sounds because there is no blood passing through the vessel

103
Q

The next step of taking blood pressure we release the release valve a little. Pressure on the sphygmomanometer is slowly going down 2-3 mmHg per second. when the pressure in the cuff is equal or slightly less than the highest pressure in the artery blood will start to squeeze through and the first sound will be heard. This first sound marks _____

A

systolic blood pressure

104
Q

After hearing the first sound when taking blood pressure the pressure will continue to fall about 2-3 mmHg per second. When finding diastolic pressure we want to listen for _____

A

the disappearance of all sound.

105
Q

The sounds one listens for when measuring blood pressure are known as _____

A

Korotkoff sounds

106
Q

There will be no sound when the pressure in the cuff exceeds the pressure in the artery. The blood flow is _____ so there is no sound

A

Occluded

107
Q

As pressure in the cuff is lowered some blood will begin to pass through. Partial compression of the vessel causes the blood that does squeeze out to swirl around. this swirling motion is called _____

A

turbulent flow

108
Q

when taking blood pressure sound is only heard when there is _____ flow (specific kind)

A

turbulent

109
Q

When the pressure inthe BP cuff falls below the lowest pressure in the artery the blood flow returns to normal, free flow, called _____

A

laminar flow

110
Q

during blood pressure reading the first sound is heard when the blood first starts to squeeze through the occluded vessel, that flow is called _____ flow. the last sound is heard just prior to the return to free or _____ flow

A

turbulent, laminar

111
Q

how many distinct korotkoff sounds are there

A

5

112
Q

What happens with endurance athletes and the korotkoff sounds

A

It is not uncommon to hear sounds all the way to a pressure reading of 0. when that happens you read their diastolic pressure as the most muffled sound you hear. or the 4th korotkoff sound.

113
Q

what is the first korotkoff sound definition

A

tapping sound, may be soft at first. the 1st sound heard as pressure is lowered in the cuff; coincides with systolic blood pressure reading. this indicates the onset of turbulent flow and the highest pressure in the artery.

114
Q

what is the second korotkoff sound

A

sound gets longer (dragged out) described as a murmur

115
Q

what is the third korotkoff sound

A

sharp tapping sound. louder

116
Q

what is the fourth korotkoff sound

A

muffled quiet

117
Q

what is the fifth korotkoff sound

A

sound disappears, coincides with diastolic blood pressure. this represents the return to laminar flow.

118
Q

Why is the auscultation method for measuring blood pressure better than using the pulse?

A

palpating the radial pulse for identification of SBP occurs later than the first sound is heard. that why the auscultation method is still considered best.

119
Q

what is total blood volume

A

the total amount of blood in the cardiovascular system

120
Q

both cardiac output and total peripheral resistance are heavily regulated by the _____

A

autonomic nervous system

121
Q

What are the target cells for altering heart rate (location and type of myocardial cells)?

A

conducting cells at the sinoatrial node

122
Q

what is the neurotransmitter released at the target cells on the SA node of the sympathetic system

A

norepinephrine

123
Q

which specific receptors are found in the heart for norepinephrine

A

Beta 1

124
Q

what is the neurotransmitter released at the target cells of the parasympathetic system

A

acetylcholine

125
Q

which specific receptors are found in the heart for acetylcholine

A

muscarinic

126
Q

what are the target cells for altering stroke volume (location and type)

A

contractile cells at the left ventricle

127
Q

what type of adrenergic receptor is found on arterioles that will stimulate smooth muscle contraction and vessel constriction

A

alpha 1

128
Q

which signal molecule is most likely going to bind to and activate Alpha 1 receptors

A

norepinephrine

129
Q

what type of signal molecule is norepinephrine and where does it come from

A

it is a monoamine neurotransmitter from the sympathetic postganglionic neurons

130
Q

what type of adrenergic receptor is found on arterioles that will stimulate smooth muscle relaxation and vessel dilation

A

beta 2

131
Q

which signal molecule binds to beta 2 receptors on the arterioles

A

epinephrine

132
Q

what type of signal molecule is epinephrine and where does it come from

A

monoamine neurohormone from the adrenal medulla chromaffin cells

133
Q

What happens with the influence of the parasympathetic and sympathetic system on the heart during the rest and digest stage of life

A

the parasympathetic has no influence on stroke volume and little on arterioles and total peripheral resistance. instead the decrease in stroke volume and total peripheral resistance observed during rest is due to a reduction in sympathetic input.

134
Q

what is the primary integrating center for regulation of the cardiovascular system

A

medulla oblongata

135
Q

high blood pressure is called

A

hypertension

136
Q

hypertension is a risk factor for _____

A

cardiovascular disease

137
Q

what is normal systolic and diastolic blood pressure

A

<120/<80 (and)

138
Q

what is elevated blood pressure numbers

A

120-129/<80 (and)

139
Q

what is the blood pressure reading for stage 1 of hypertension

A

130-139/80-89 (either or)

140
Q

what is the blood pressure reading for stage 2 of hypertension

A

Greater than or = to 140/greater than or = to 90 (either or)

141
Q

what is the blood pressure for hypertension crisis (emergency response)

A

> 180/>120 (either of these they dont both have to meet this)

142
Q

true or false: high blood pressure needs to be recorded multiple times for a diagnosis of hypertension. a single high measurement is not enough for a diagnosis

A

true

143
Q

what are the recommendations for blood pressure for older adults by the american college of physicians

A

otherwise healthy adults should maintain a SBP of <150 mmHg. Adults with a history of hypertension or other related health issues should maintain a SBP of <140 mmHg

144
Q

the technical name for red blood cells

A

erythrocytes

145
Q

the technical name for white blood cells

A

leukocytes

146
Q

the technical name for platelets

A

thrombocytes

147
Q

these are proteins or glycoproteins on the surface of a cell, which can stimulate an immune response

A

antigen

148
Q

the technical term for antibody is

A

immunoglobulin

149
Q

one of two or more possible forms of a gene coding for a specific characteristic

A

allele

150
Q

to test positive/negative (choose one) for something means that a specific characteristic, trait, or condition is present

A

positive

151
Q

to test positive/negative (choose one) for something means that a specific characteristic, trait, or condition is absent

A

negative

152
Q

If the incorrect blood type is transfused into a person the blood cells will clump in a process called

A

agglutination

153
Q

these Y shaped proteins are produced by white blood cells called B-lymphocytes. they bind and mark foreign substances for destruction

A

Antibodies (immunoglobulins)

154
Q

what are the two blood type classification systems

A

the ABO system and the Rh system

155
Q

Blood type is based on the presence or absense of specific _____ on the extracellular side of the erythrocyte cell membranes

A

antigens

156
Q

The specific set of genes that a person possesses (e.g., (A,O))

A

genotype

157
Q

Clumping of cells when antibodies bind

A

agglutination

158
Q

One of two or more different forms of a gene that create slightly different proteins.

A

allele

159
Q

Surface protein or marker that causes an immune response.

A

Antigen

160
Q

Immunoglobulins that bind to a pathogen and cues its disposal/destruction.

A

antibody

161
Q

antigens that are coded in an individuals DNA are celled _____. in other words they are normal in that individual

A

self-antigens

162
Q

antigens that are not coded for in the DNA are called _____ and these will elicit an immune response

A

foreign antigens

163
Q

if a foreign antigen is introduced into a body the immune system will produce _____. these proteins will bind to and mark the foreign antigen for destruction

A

antibodies or immunoglobulins

164
Q

when antibodies bind to antigens on erythrocytes the blood cells will clump together in a process called _____

A

agglutination

165
Q

lack of blood flow is called _____

A

ischemia

166
Q

low oxygen levels is called _____

A

hypoxia

167
Q

cell death is called _____

A

necrosis

168
Q

A patient that receives the wrong blood could suffer a reaction that leads to _____, _____, _____and death

A

blood vessel blockage, ischemia, hypoxia

169
Q

close to _____% of transfusions with the incorrect blood type - with volumes of 50ml or less- end in death. 50ml is 1/100 of total blood volume.

A

20%

170
Q

The average transfusion is ____ L according to the red cross. someone receiving this amount of incorrect blood would have little to no chance of surviving.

A

1.4 L (3 pints)

171
Q

the _____ classification system of blood typing is based off the presence of the A or B antigens

A

ABO classification system

172
Q

How does a certain antigen or antigens correspond to the kind of blood type? list all 4 different ABO types

A
  1. people with A antigen have type A blood
  2. people with B antigen have type B blood
  3. people with A and B antigens have type AB blood
  4. people with neither antigens have type O blood
173
Q

Which ABO alleles are dominant?

A

Both A and B alleles are dominant, if they are present they will be expressed.

174
Q

The two allele combination make up the _____ for the blood type trait

A

genotype

175
Q

When are the antibodies for the A and B antigens developed

A

early in live

176
Q

in which component of the blood are antibodies located?

A

Plasma (globulins)

177
Q

List the foreign antigen and the antibody for type A blood

A

foreign antigen: B antigen
antibody: anti B antibodies

178
Q

List the foreign antigen and the antibody for type B blood

A

foreign antigen: A antigen
antibody: anti A antibodies

179
Q

List the foreign antigen and the antibody for type AB blood

A

Foreign antigen: none
antibodies: no antibodies

180
Q

List the foreign antigen and the antibody for type O blood

A

foreign antigen: both A and B antigens
antibodies: anti A and anti B antibodies

181
Q

Which blood type can donate erythrocytes to any other blood type?

A

O- blood type
It has no antigens that would set off an immune response

182
Q

which blood type can receive erythrocytes from any other blood type?

A

Type AB+ blood. They have no antibodies for A B or Rh

183
Q

What is the Rh factor

A

the Rhesus antigen or factor. Those with the Rh antigen are positive and those without are negative

184
Q

when are antibodies for the Rh antigen produced

A

when someone who is Rh negative is exposed to the Rh antigen. This can be problematic in transfusions and in pregnancy.

185
Q

If a woman is Rh _____ and her fetus is Rh _____ the mother could produce antibodies to the Rh antigen when she comes into contact with the babies blood.

A

Mother: Rh -
Baby: Rh +

186
Q

What happens in erythroblastosis fetalis or hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)?

A

When a mother is Rh - and has an Rh + baby she will develop Rh antibodies when their blood is mixed. Then on her second pregnancy she will have these antibodies that could attack the baby. The mother’s antibodies are small enough to pass the placenta and can attack the babies erythrocytes. the symptoms of this are anemia, low blood cell count, edema in the newborn. A blood transfusion may be needed.

187
Q

How does one avoid erythroblastosis fetalis or hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)?

A

If the mother is Rh - she will be given a shot of the antigen for the Rh antigen (a medication called RhoGAM). Administered around the time of birth. to prevent the mother from producing the Rh antibodies when she is exposed.

188
Q

erythrocytes with a certain antigen will react with the antibodies for that antigen. the antibodies will bind to the antigen and cause _____. Which will look like grains in the trays

A

agglutination

189
Q

what did we use to poke our fingers in the blood typing lab

A

lancet

190
Q

erythrocytes, leukocytes and thrombocytes make up this major component of blood

A

formed (cellular) elements

191
Q

proteins and glucose are found in this major component of blood

A

plasma (organic molecules)

192
Q

antibodies fall into this sub-category of plasma proteins

A

globulins

193
Q

Blood type is based on the presence of antigens on these cells

A

erythrocytes

194
Q

when antibodies bind to antigens on erythrocytes, the cells will clump together this clumping is called

A

agglutination

195
Q

If when testing blood type clumping occurs with the Anti-D and anti B the blood type is

A

B+

196
Q

someone with type A blood has these antibodies

A

anti B antibodies

197
Q

when testing for the Rh factor, the blood cells will clump only if the blood is Rh _____

A

positive Rh+

198
Q

the Rh factor may only be of concern if the mother is Rh _____

A

Rh-

199
Q

what are the possible genotypes for someone with type B blood

A

(B,O), (B,B)

200
Q

what is the name of the hormone that stimulates red blood cell production

A

erythropoietin (EPO)

201
Q

having low hemoglobin or red blood cell count is called

A

anemia

202
Q

What are the possible genotypes for AB blood

A

(A,B) only

phys (6 decks)

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