Unit 4 lecture 16-20 Flashcards

1
Q

Define infection

A

person ingests pathogen which enters GI tract and multiplies
- delay in symptoms with fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

4 mechanisms of GI tract illness

A
  • ingestion of food containing preformed toxins
  • bacteria enter GI tract and adhere to intestinal epithelial cells
  • ingestion of pathogen that adheres to and invades epithelial cells
  • Bacteria enter GI tract, pass through intestinal mucosa and become systemic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

1.) ingestion of food containing preformed toxins
bacteria involved

A
  • staph aureus
  • bacillus cereus
  • clostridium botulism
  • clostridium perfringes
  • (food poisoning)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

2.) adhere to epithelial cells
bacteria

A
  • enterobacteriaceae
  • vibrionceae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

3.) adheres to and invades epithelial cells
bacteria involved

A
  • shigella
  • salmonella sps
  • Invasive E. coli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

4.) pass through intestinal mucosa and become systemic

A
  • salmonella typhi
  • listeria monocytocogenes
  • yersinia enterocolitica
  • yersinia psuedotube
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

1.) Staph Aureus bacteria
- gram stain
- known for
- s/s
- disease process

A
  • gram + cocci
  • most common cause of food poisoning
  • resistant to environmental stress
  • severe diarrhea, no fever
  • produces enterotoxins that are very heat stable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

1.) Bacillus cereus bacteria
- gram stain
- known for
- disease process
- s/s

A
  • gram + rods
  • spore forming
  • food contains endospores- produce 2 enterotoxins
  • diarrhea and vomiting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

1.) Clostridium Botulinum bacteria
- gram stain
- known for
- disease process
- s/s

A
  • gram + rods
  • spire forming
  • produce neurotoxins, CNS, Paralysis
  • nausea, vomiting, hard to swallow, double vision, paralysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

1.) Clostridium prefringes
- gram stain
- known for
- s/s

A
  • gram + rods
  • spore forming
  • enterotoxins produced
  • a cute abdominal pain, diarrhea, no vomiting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

which GI tract bacteria is most common cause of food poisoning

A

staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which GI tract bacteria form spores

A
  • bacillus cereus
  • clostridium botulinum
  • clostridium prefeinges
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

2.) Enterobacteriaceae family
- gram stain
- antigens
- virulence factors
- bacteria

A
  • gram - rods
  • O,H,K antigens
  • colonization/adherence, toxins causing fluid loss, invade epithelial cells
  • E. coli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

O,H,K antigens meaning

A
  • O: outer LPS membrane
  • H: flageller antigens
  • K: capsular antigens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

2.) Vibrionaceae family
- gram stain
- bacteria

A
  • curved gram (-) rods
  • vibriochlera
  • campylobacter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

vibriochlera
transmission
s/s
toxin

A
  • dehydration and loss of electrolytes
  • severe watery diarrhea
  • decal oral route
  • waterborne
  • chloragenotoxin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Campylobacter

A

diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

3.) shigella
- gram stain
- process
- spread
- s/s

A
  • gram - rod
  • shiga toxin secreted that inhibits protein synthesis and kills epithelial cells
  • contact with infected person
  • severe diarrhea with blood and mucus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

define dysentery

A

severe diarrhea with blood and mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

3.) Salmonella
- gram stain
- process
- s/s

A
  • gram - rod
  • bacteria invade intestinal lining
  • can become systemic
  • headache, abdominal pain, vomiting, diarrhea, fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

3.) Enteroinvasive E.coli
- gram stain
- process
- s/s

A
  • gram - rod
  • invade intestinal epithelial cells and produces toxins
  • inflammation, fever, diarrhea, abdominal pain, blood, mucus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

4.) Salmonella Typhi
gram stain
process

A
  • gram - rod
  • enters blood and infects various tissues and organs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

4.) Listeria Monocytogebes
gram satin
found
know

A
  • gram + rod
  • excreted in animal feces
  • dangerous for pregnant women and immunosuppressed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

4.) Yersinia
gram stain
s/s
know

A
  • gram - rod
  • diarrhea, fever, headache
  • lymph node swelling: mocks appendicitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

protozoa: Entamoeba histolyca
- movement
- spread
- process
- s/s

A
  • pseudopods
  • fecal/oral: ingest contaminated food or water
  • cyst-trophozoite- toxins kill epithelial cells
  • lesions and severe dysentery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Cyst vs trophozoite form

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

protozoa: Balantidium coli
movement
shape
spread
s/s

A
  • large, oval
  • cilia
  • fecal/oral: swine pigs
  • bloody diarrhea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

protozoa: Giardia Lambila
- movement
causes
spread
s/s
know

A
  • flagella
  • frequent cause of waterborne diarrhea
  • ingest fecally contaminated food to water
  • abdominal pain, gas, nausea, diarrhea
  • resistant to chlorination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

protozoa: toxoplasma gondii
movement
spread
know

A
  • non motile
  • undercooked meats and cats
  • dangerous for pregnant and immunosuppressed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

protozoa: Cyrptosporidium parvum
movement
know
spread

A
  • non motile
  • not recognized until aids
  • dangerous for immunosuppressed
  • resistant to normal chlorination
  • ingest fecally contaminated food or water
  • lakes and streams commonly contaminated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Protozoas of GI

A
  • entamoeba hsitolyca
  • balantidium coli
  • giardia lambilla
  • toxoplasma gondii
  • cryptosporidium parvam
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

viruses of GI

A
  • local intestinal: norwalk and rotavirus
  • enter GI and become Systemic
    (enteroviruses)
  • polio
  • coxsackie
  • echovirus
  • Hep A, B, C, D, E
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

local: Norwalk like
- dna or rna
- s/s
- also known as

A
  • SsRNA
  • sudden severe nausea and vomiting
  • winter vomiting disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

local: Rotavirus
- dna or rna
- s/s
- know

A
  • RNA
  • fever, diarrhea, vomiting
  • can be fatal for infants bc of loss of fluids/shock
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

systemic: Enteroviruses

A
  • fecal oral route
  • human only host
  • common in warm weather
  • 30 mil non polio cases/year
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Systemic: Polio
dna or rna
child v adult
severe consequence
spread
vaccine

A
  • RNA
  • mild in children, severe as adult
  • paralysis 0.1%
  • fecal oral route: human-human
  • salk: formalin killed
  • sabin: live attenuated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

disease process of polio

A
  • ingested
  • infects GI tract
  • invade tonsils/lymph nodes
  • invade blood then meninges
  • CNS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

systemic: Coxsackie
dna or rna
also known as
vaccine

A
  • RNA
  • hand/foot/mouth disease
  • no vaccine or medications
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

systemic: Echovirus
dna or rna
also known as

A
  • RNA
  • Croup
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

systemic: Hep A
dna or rna
spread
chronic carriers
incubation
vaccine

A
  • RNA, non envelopes
  • fecal oral from infected person or infected waters
  • shell fish
  • no chronic carriers
  • 15-40 days: most infectious
  • inactivated whole virus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Systemic Hep B
- dna or rna
- spread
- incubation
- chronic carriers
- vaccine
- linked to

A
  • DNA
  • blood, bodily fluids
  • 50-180 days
  • 10% chronic carriers
  • recombinant HBsAG(genetic engineering)
  • liver cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is dane particle

A

complete HBV particle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Systemic Hep C
- rna or dna
- spread
- incubation
- chronic carriers
- linked to

A
  • RNA
  • blood, bodily fluids: STD
  • 14-150 days
  • yes chronic carriers
  • chronic liver disease and liver cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

systemic Hep D
- rna or dna
- spread
- chronic carriers
- linked to

A
  • RNA
  • Blood and bodily fluids
  • chronic carriers
  • always occurs with HBV
  • higher mortality rate and liver damage with both HBV and HDV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

systemic: Hep E
- rna or dna
- spread
- chronic carriers
- incubation
- bad for

A
  • RNA
  • fecal oral route
  • no chronic carriers
  • few weeks duration
  • 20% mortality rate in pregnant women
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

HEP A AND E

A
  • no chronic carriers
  • short incubation
  • fecal oral
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

HEP B,C,D

A
  • chronic carriers
  • blood/bodily fluids
  • long incubation except D
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Oral Tract Bacteria

A
  • streptococcus
  • dental carrie
  • periodontal disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

bacteria: streptococcus
gram stain
hemolysis
potential consequences

A
  • gram + cocci
  • alpha hemolytic
  • subcutaneous bacterial endocarditis if enters blood stream
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

bacteria: dental carrie

A
  • cavities
  • sugar + s mutans + host habits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

process of dental carrie formation

A
  • glycoproteins in saliva adhere to tooth
  • sucrose turns into glucose and fructose bc of strep mutans
  • glucose polymerized to dextran
  • dense mass forms on tooth: plaque
  • plaque produced acids from sugar fermentation
  • acids dissolve tooth enamel which forms cavities
52
Q

bacteria: periodontal disease

A

gingivitis and periodontitis

53
Q

define gingivitis

A

infection restricted to gums

54
Q

define periodontitis

A

infection in gums and tissues between teeth that result in tooth loss

55
Q

Oral Tract Fungi

A

candida albicans

56
Q

Fungi: candida albicans
produces?
know

A
  • yeast that produces psuedophae
  • kept in check by normal flora
  • opportunistic
  • causes oral thrush
57
Q

define oral thrush
conditions?

A

warm, moist conditions when skin is irritated or damaged
- hospitals, birthing

58
Q

Oral Tract Viruses

A
  • Herpes Simplex 1
  • cytomegalovirus
  • epstein barr
59
Q

virus: heroes simplex 1
- dna or rna
- disease
- spread
- s/s
- process

A
  • DNA
  • oral herpes
  • oral/respiratory route
  • possible blindness/ destroys epithelial cells
  • blisters, latency, recurrnace
60
Q

virus: Cytomegalovirus
dna or rna
spread
s/s
serious consequences

A
  • DNA
  • oral route
  • nuclear inclusions and swelling
  • pneumonia in immunosuppressed
  • congenital defects in pregnant women
  • latency
61
Q

virus: epstein barr
disease
spread
s/s
process
cancers

A
  • mono
  • close oral contact
  • swollen lymph nodes
  • paranoid glands, blood, b cells, third line of defense
  • burkitts lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma
62
Q

Genitourinary Tract
bacterial infections and diseases

A
  • UTIs
  • Vagintis
  • STDs
63
Q

UTIs
- leading cause
- bacteria that causes
- criteria

A
  • nosocomial infections: catheters
  • E. Coli
  • > 10,000 bacteria/ml and pure
64
Q

define cystitis

A

uti confined to bladder

65
Q

define pyelonephritis

A

UTI in kidneys

66
Q

define vaginitis

A
  • can be caused be endogenous organisms as wells as sexually transmitted organisms
67
Q

types of vaginitis

A
  • candida albicans
  • gardenella vaginalis
  • trichomonas vaginalis
68
Q

vaginitis: candida albicans

A
  • endogenous organisms
  • opportunist
  • yeast found in mouth, intestinal tract, and genitourinary tract
  • disturbance in normal flora
69
Q

vaginitis: gardebella vaginalis

A
  • STD
  • small, pleomorphic, gram - rod
70
Q

Vaginitis: Trichomonas vaginalis

A
  • STD
  • flagellated protozoa
71
Q

how does pH affect vaginitis

A
  • pH decreases: gardenella: decreases lactobacilli
  • pH increases: trichomonas: over grow normal flora
72
Q

STD risk factors

A
  • number of sexual partners
  • age of sexual activity
  • injection drug use
    some people symptomatic and some asymptomatic
73
Q

define STD coinfection

A

transmission of more than one pathogen at the same time
- gonorrhea and chlamydia

74
Q

STD local infection

A
  • herpes
  • papillomavirus
75
Q

STD systemic infections

A
  • syphilis, gonorrhea, aids
  • all may cause systemic infections when passed form mother to child
76
Q

STD: pelvic inflammatory disease

A
  • extensive bacterial infection of pelvic organs in females
  • caused by chlamidia trachomatis and neiserria gonorrhea
77
Q

Reproductive tract bacteria

A

chlamydia trachomatis
neiserria gonorrhea
treponema pallidum
strep agalactiae

78
Q

RT: chlamydia trachomatis
gram stain
types

A
  • D-K: STD types: asymptomatic
  • L1-L3: invasive types: sexual contact and lesions
  • A, B, Ba, C: blindness: direct contact
  • gram - coccoid or rod
79
Q

RT: Neisseria gonorrhea
gram stain
virulence
s/s

A
  • gram - diplococci
  • pilli/fimbriae, destroys IgA antibodies, other membrane proteins, penicillinase enzymes
  • inflammation/pus in men
  • burning when urinating in women: bacteremia and lesions
80
Q

RT: Treponema Pallidum
disease caused
gram stain
disease process

A
  • syphilis
  • thing, tightly coiled spirochete
  • primary, secondary, latent, tertiary
81
Q

TP primary

A

local infection: localized ulcer

82
Q

TP secondary

A

systemic: lymph node swelling, rash and lesions

83
Q

TP latent

A

organisms persists in body

84
Q

TP tertiary

A

recurrence years later: serious damage to organs

85
Q

RT: Strep agalactiae
know
serious consequences

A
  • grp B beta strep:
  • can be normal flora in some women
  • in newborns: bacteremia, pneumonia, meningitis
  • post partum endometritis
86
Q

Respiratory Tract viruses

A
  • herpes simplex 2
  • Hep B
  • Human Papillomavirus
  • HIV
87
Q

RT: Herpes Simplex 2
dna or rna
disease
process
serious consequences

A
  • genital herpes
  • sexual contact, lesions, healing, latent virus
  • infections in new born fatal or severe
88
Q

RT: Hepatitis B
rna or dna
process
vaccination

A
  • DNA
  • targets liver cells, kills infected cells, virions released into blood stream
  • HBsAg vaccination
89
Q

RT: Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
dna or rna
productive forms
non productive forms
serious consequences
vaccine

A
  • DNA
  • 6, 11: warts dependent on viral type
  • 16,18: transformation of infected cells
  • cervical cancer
  • gardasil: recombinant
  • cerverax: purified L1 protein
90
Q

RT: HIV
dna or rna
disease result
process

A
  • RNA
  • cause of AIDS
  • virions, host cell lysis, paralysis of immune system, opportunist infections
  • latent: virus remains integrated indefinitely
91
Q

Skin pathogens: bacterias

A
  • staph aureus
  • strep pyogenes
  • pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • leptospira interrogans
  • clostridium tetani
  • clostridium perfringens
92
Q

skin bacteria: staph aureus
test results
gram stain
virulence
found
most common infection

A
  • catalase +, beta, coagulase +
  • gram + cocci
  • cell wall protein, coagulase, enzymes and toxins
  • hair, wound, intestine, bone infections
  • infection of hair follicles
93
Q

skin bacteria: strep pyogenes
test results
gram stain
diseases

A
  • catalase -, beta
  • gram + cocci
  • impetigo, eryispelas, necrotizing fascitis
94
Q

skin bacteria: pseudomonas aeruginosa
test results
gram stain
know
virulence

A
  • oxidase +
  • gram - rod
  • oppurtunistic organisms: very resistant
  • toxins and enzymes, motile, slime layer, antibiotic resistant
95
Q

skin bacteria: leptospira interrogans
gram stain
spread
s/s
process

A
  • spirochete, hooked ends
  • though contaminated urine
  • flu like symptoms
  • enters skin abrasions then blood
96
Q

skin bacteria: clostridium tetani
causes
gram stain
other tests
virulent toxin

A
  • lock jaw
  • gram + rod
  • spore forming, anaerobic
  • tetanospasmin: inhibits nerve cells responsible for relaxation of muscles
    • constant contraction of voluntary muscles
97
Q

skin bacteria: clostridium perfringens
causes
gram stain
other tests
process

A
  • gas-gangrene
  • gram + rod
  • spore forming anaerobic
  • virulent toxin kills host cells and causes necrosis
98
Q

Skin pathogens Fungi

A
  • mycoses
  • cutaneous
  • subcutaneous
  • dermatophyte
  • subcutaneous mycoses
99
Q

define mycoses

A

disease caused by fungal infections

100
Q

define cutaneous

A

superficial infections of the skin, hair and nails

101
Q

define subcutaneous

A

penetrates deeper into dermis to infect tissues

102
Q

define dermatophyte

A

fungi that colonize hair, skin, nails,
- utilize karat in for growth

103
Q

subcutaneous mycoses

A

fungal spores/ mycelia fragments enter deeper tissue
- caused by sporothrix schenkill

104
Q

Zoonooses

A
  • direct: bacteria, viruses
  • indirect: bacteria, protozoa, viruses
105
Q

define zoonoses

A

diseases that occur primarily in animals transferred to humans

106
Q

direct zoonoses

A

direct contact with infected animal or animal product

107
Q

indirect zoonoses

A

intermediate carrier through insect vectors
- harder to treat

108
Q

direct zoonoses bacteria

A
  • bacillus anthracis
  • brucella abortive
  • Bartonella hensiae
109
Q

direct bacteria: Bacillus anthracis
gram stain
spread
virulence
forms

A
  • gram + rods
  • sheep, cattle, horses
  • capsule, enzymes, toxins
  • cutaneous, gastric, pulmonary
110
Q

direct bacteria: brucella abortus
gram stain
spread
symptoms
know

A
  • gram - coccobacilli
  • cattle
  • mild flu like symptoms
  • most common in USA
111
Q

direct bacteria: Bortonella hensiae
gram stain
disease
know

A
  • gram - rods
  • cat scratch disease
  • very low ability to invade
112
Q

direct zoonose viruses

A
  • rabies
113
Q

direct virus: rabies
rna or dna
shape
process

A
  • RNA
  • bullet shaped
  • bite of infected animal, muscle and connective tissue, PNS/CNS
114
Q

indirect Zoonose bacteria

A
  • yersinia pestis
  • Francisella tularensis
  • Borella burgdoferi
  • Rickettsiae
115
Q

indirect bacteria: yersinia pestis
gram stain
disease
virulence
process

A
  • gram - rod, bipolar staining
  • bubonic plague
  • capsule and toxins
  • wild rodents- rate flea- human
116
Q

pneumonic plague

A

rapid spread and difficult to control
when plague reaches lungs

117
Q

indirect bacteria: Francisella tularensis
gram stain
disease
virulence
process

A
  • gram - rod
  • rabbit fever
  • not known, grow in WBCs
  • wild animal- deer lice/ tick-human
118
Q

indirect bacteria: borella burgdorferi
gram stain
disease
virulence
process

A
  • spirochete
  • lymes disease
  • survive in macrophages, alters antigenic molecules
  • animal/human-deer tick- human
119
Q

lymes disease prevention

A
  • pesticides
  • constant checks
  • insect repellent
  • cover skin
120
Q

indirect bacteria: rickettsia
need
3 types

A
  • need anthropoid vector
  • rickettsii: rocky mountain spotted fever: tick-human
  • prowazekhi: epidemic typhus: body lice-humans
  • typhi: endemic typhus: rodent, rat flea, human
121
Q

Zoonoses protozoa

A
  • hemoflagellates: flagellates protozoa in blood, long, slender
  • sporozoa: none motile protozoa
122
Q

hemoflagellate trypansoma

A
  • carried by tste fly: Africa sleeping sickness
  • carrie’s by reduridbug: chagas disease
123
Q

hemoflagellate leishmania

A
  • carried by sand fly ( tropical areas)
  • cutaneous or visceral disease
124
Q

sporozoa plasmodium

A
  • 4 species
  • carried by female anapheles masquito
  • cause malaria
125
Q

sporozoa babeslamicroti

A
  • carried by ixodes scapularis tick
  • can resemble malaria
126
Q

Zoonose viruses

A
  • togaviridae
  • bunyaviridae
  • RNA viruses carried by vectors to humans
  • mosquito most common vector
  • enters lymph tissue, internal organs, CNS (encephalitis)
127
Q

what is meant by ARBO virus

A