Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Microbioloy > FINAL EXAM > Flashcards

FINAL EXAM Flashcards

1
Q

define microbiology

A

study of microscopic life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hooke

A

cell theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

van leuwenhoek

A

discovered microscope and microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

pasteur

A
  • final disproof of spontaneous generation
  • pasteurization: mild heat
  • fermentation: sugar converted to alcohol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

redi

A
  • 3 jars of meat
  • biogenesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

koch

A
  • bacteria cause disease (germ theory)
  • koch’s postulates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

define spontaneous generation

A

life can spontaneously generate
- living organisms can come come from non living matter
- redi proved biogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

define cell theory

A
  • cells are the smallest form of life and make up everything
  • hooke
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

define germ theory

A
  • microorganisms cause disease
  • different organisms cause different diseases: koch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

define bacteriology

A

study of bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

define mycology

A

study of fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

define virology

A

study of viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

define phycology

A

study of algae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the five kingdoms of life

A
  • monera: archaea and bacteria
  • protista: algae and protozoa
  • fungi: yeasts and molds
  • animals
  • plants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Binomia nomenclature
- define
- rules
- who made it

A
  • rules for naming organisms
  • capitalize Genus but not species
  • underline and italicize both
  • carl von linne
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

define polymer

A

large macromolecules made by putting smaller macromolecules together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the major macromolecules and elements do they contain

A
  • Carbs, proteins, lipids, nucleic acids
  • C, H,O, n
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Carbohydrates
- building blocks
- bonds
- enzymes
- function

A
  • simple sugars/ polysaccharides
  • glycosidic bonds
  • hydrolysis
  • nutrients, energy, support, protection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Proteins
- building blocks
- bonds
- enzymes
- function

A
  • amino acids: carboxyl group+amino group+R group
  • peptide bonds
  • peptidase
  • structure and catalysts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

3 types of lipids

A
  • triglycerides
  • phospholipids
  • steroids/waxes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Triglycerides
- building blocks
- bonds
- enzymes
- function

A
  • glycerol and 3 fatty acids
  • ester bonds
  • lipase
  • lots of energy storage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Phospholipids
- building blocks
- bonds
- enzymes
- function

A
  • glycerol+2 fatty acids+phosphate group+ organic group
  • ester bonds
  • lipase
  • cell membrane structure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Steroids and waxes function of each

A
  • animal hormones
  • mycolic acid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Nucleic Acids; DNA and RNA
- building blocks
- bonds
- enzymes
- function

A
  • nucleotides: base/pentose/phosphate group
  • phosphodiester and hydrogen(DNA)
  • nuclease
  • genetic info and protein synthesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

DNA

A
  • double stranded
  • thymine
  • millions of nucleotides
  • genetic info
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

RNA

A
  • single stranded
  • uracil
  • thousands of nucleotides
  • protein synthesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

explain the lock and key model of enzymes

A

enzymes are specific for a particular substrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Factors that influence enzymes activity

A
  • PH: optimal at 7
  • temp: higher temp higher activity
  • concentration: high concentration higher activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Prokaryotes: exterior cell structures

A
  • flagella
  • pili
  • fimbriae
  • axial filaments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

prokaryotic flagella

A

long slender thread like appendages composed of protein
- propeller like motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

prokaryotic axial filaments

A
  • protein fibrils wound around organism and attached at two poles
  • rapid motility in cork screw motion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

prokaryotic fimbriae

A
  • short hairlike fibers composed of protein
  • adherence factor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

prokaryotic pilli

A
  • elongated and tubular
  • bacterial conjugation: transfer DNA using plasmids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Prokaryotes: cell surface layers

A
  • capsule
  • cell wall
  • plasma membrane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Prokaryotic capsule

A
  • glycocalyx
  • exterior coating of cell wall
  • capsule or slime layer
  • made of carbs and proteins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

prokaryotic cell wall

A
  • peptidoglycan
  • shape, support, flagella attachment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

plasma membrane

A
  • phospholipid bilayer and proteins
  • allow material to enter or exit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

gram + cell wall

A

thick layer of peptidoglycan + teichoic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

gram - cell wall

A

thin layer of peptidoglycan + outer plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

prokaryotes: internal cell structure

A
  • cytoplasm
  • nucleoid
  • ribosomes
  • inclusion bodies
  • endospores
    -plasmids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

prokaryotic cytoplasm

A

gelatinous substance of cell inside plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

prokaryotic nucleiods

A

single long continuously arranged threas of DNA tightly coiled around proteins
- bacterial chromosome/genetic info

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

prokaryotic ribosomes

A
  • free or bound to cell membrane
  • 2 subunits
  • protein synthesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

prokaryotic plasmids

A
  • small circular extrachromosomal dna
  • transfered by pili
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

inclusion bodies

A
  • storage vessels or reserves for nutrients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

bacterial cell measurement

A

micrometer= 1/1,000 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Unusual prokaryotes

A
  • rickettsia
  • chlamydiae
  • mycoplasma
  • bdellovibrios
  • actinomycetes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

unusual rickettsia

A
  • obligate intracellular organism
  • small
  • need arthropod vector
  • RASH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

unusual chlamydiae

A
  • obligate intracellular
  • small
  • elementary-reticulate-elementary
  • binary fission reproduction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

unusual mycoplasma

A
  • no cell wall
  • fried egg colony appearance
  • smallest organism capable of living outside of host cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

unusual bdellovibrios

A
  • leech/curved
  • parasitize other gram - rods
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

unusual actinomycetes

A
  • actinomyces, nocardia, streptomyces
  • filamentous appearance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Eukaryotes: exterior cell structure

A
  • flagella
  • cilia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

eukaryotic flagella

A

long projection composed of 9+2 microtubules
- much thicker than prokaryotes and few per cell
- mermaid motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

eukaryotic cilia

A
  • like flagella but short and many per cell
  • movement and feeding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Eukaryotes: cell surface layers

A
  • cell wall
  • plasma membrane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

eukaryotic cell wall

A
  • carbs and no peptidoglycan
  • algae, fungi, plants
  • shape and protection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Eukaryotes: interior cell structures

A
  • organelles
  • cytoskeleton: microfilaments, intermediate, microtubules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

eukaryotic cytoskeleton

A
  • cell skeleton
  • support, shape, transport
  • microfilaments, intermediate, microtubules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Eukaryotic nucleus

A
  • command center
  • RNA synthesis and DNA genetic info
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Eukaryotic mitochondria

A
  • power plant
  • generate energy in the form of ATP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

eukaryotic ribosomes

A
  • protein factories
  • mede in nucleus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

eukaryotic endoplasmic reticulum

A
  • rough: protein synthesis, packaging
  • smooth: lipid synthesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

eukaryotic Golgi body

A
  • protein packager
  • modifies and targets proteins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

eukaryotic lysosomes

A
  • garbage disposal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

eukaryotic microorganisms

A
  • algae
  • fungi
  • protozoa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what eukaryotic organism is photosynthetic

A

algae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

reaction for photosynthesis

A

6CO2 + 6H20 = C6H12O6 + 602

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what photopigment do all algae possess that make some green

A

chlorophyll but other photopigments present as well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

how are protozoa classified

A

locomotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

do protozoa have members involved in human disease

A

all classes of protozoa have members involved in human disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

dimorphic fungi

A

mold in nature and yeast in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

how do yeast reproduce and what are they

A

budding and single cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

how do molds reproduce and what are they

A

spore formation and filaments of cells called hyphae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what is a mass of hyphae called

A

mycelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Are viruses RNA or DNA

A

either RNA or DNA but not both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

define nucleocapsid

A

nucleic acid with viral capsid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

how are viruses measured

A

nanometers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

explain icosahedral structure

A
  • polyhedral
  • 20 faces throughout
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

explain helical structure

A
  • nucleic acid and capsomeres helically coiled together
  • Hallow rod
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

how is a viral envelope acquired

A

as virion buds through cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

purpose of viral spikes

A

allow viruses to penetrate host cells and cause infection
- can only be on enveloped structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

5 stages of interaction between animal virus and host cell

A
  • attachment
  • penetration
  • uncoating
  • assembly
  • release
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

attachment stage of virus

A

most important stage for stopping infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

penetration stage of virus

A

endocytosis or membrane fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

uncoating phase of virus

A

replication, transcription, translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

assembly stage of virus

A

DNA in nucleus , RNA in cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

release stage of virus

A

lysis without an envelope and budding with envelope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

explain endocytosis

A
  • no envelope
  • engulfment of virions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

explain membrane fusion

A
  • envelope fuses with host cell
  • nucleocapsid move in
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

explain lytic cycle

A
  • phage attaches, penetrates, and injects itself into dna which is assembled into virions
  • cell bursts and virions are released
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

explain lysogenic cycle

A

phage attcahes and infects dna in chromosome: prophage
- cell division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

DNA cancers

A
  • epstein barr
  • hepatitis b
  • Herpes virus 8
  • HPV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

RNA cancers

A
  • retrovitus
  • HIV
    -AIDS
  • hepatitis C
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

TSG

A

Suppress proliferation
- mutations cause cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

protooncogenes

A

stimulate proliferation
- mutations can cause cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

physical requirements for bacterial growth

A
  • temp: 37
  • pH: 6-8, 7-7.2bacteria, 5-6 fungi
  • gas: CO2 and O2
  • osmotic pressure: isotonic conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

chemical requirements for bacterial growth

A
  • Carbon
  • Nitrogen
  • Phosphorus
  • Sulfur
    -… oxygen for most
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

how do bacteria reproduce

A

binary fission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

process of binary fission

A
  • cell elongates/dna replication
  • invagination at mid point
  • cross wall formation
  • cells separate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

bacterial growth curve phases

A
  • lag
    -log
  • stationary
  • death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

lag phase of growth

A
  • cells adapting
  • little to no cell division
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

log phase of growth

A
  • rapid cell division
  • lots of nutrients
    -cells most vulnerable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

stationary phase of growth

A
  • nutrients decrease
  • toxins present
  • cell death=cell growth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

death phase of growth

A
  • nutrients depleted
  • toxins increase
  • cell death > cell growth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

methods to measure bacterial growth

A
  • turbidity
  • direct microscopic count
  • standard plate count
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

standard plate count measurement calculation

A

colony count x dilution factor

108
Q

define sterilization

A

destruction of all forms of microbial life

109
Q

define disinfection

A

destruction of pathogenic organisms

110
Q

Factors that influence control methods

A
  • size
  • time
  • concentration of agent
  • higher temps
  • pH
  • special protection
  • organic matter
111
Q

7 physical methods of control

A
  • heat
  • filtration
  • pasteurization
  • osmotic pressure
  • radiation
  • desiccation
  • low temps
112
Q

Heat method of control

A
  • superior method
  • inactivates proteins
  • moist heat superior to dry heat
113
Q

filtration method of control

A

separate microbe from source

114
Q

pasteurization method of control

A

mild heat destroys pathogens

115
Q

osmotic pressure method of control

A

high concentrations dehydrate microbes

116
Q

radiation method of control

A

damage to protiens and dna

117
Q

desiccation method of control

A

dehydration inhibits bacterial growth

118
Q

refrigeration method of control

A

decrease enzyme activity and cant reproduce

119
Q

define antiseptic

A

chemicals applied to the body

120
Q

define disinfectant

A

chemicals used on non living objects

121
Q

action of chemical methods

A

denature proteins and disrupt plasma membrane

122
Q

cidal vs static

A

cidal = kill
static=inhibit

123
Q

spectrum of resistance from least to most

A

envelope-gram+-no envelope-fungi-gram–protozoa-mycobacterium-endospores

124
Q

what are the superior chemical methods

A
  • chlorine
  • hydrogen peroxide
  • aldehydes
  • gaseous sterilants
125
Q

3 reasons for decrease in infectious disease

A
  • sanitation
  • drugs/antibiotics
  • vaccines
126
Q

define antimicrobial drug

A

synthetic drug made in lab

127
Q

define antibiotic

A

natural product made by 1 microbe that kills or inhibits another

128
Q

how do sulfa and trimethoprin drugs work

A

inhibit folic acid synthesis

129
Q

how do ethambutol and isoniazid drugs work

A

inhibit mycolic acid in cell wall

130
Q

6 mechanisms of antibiotics

A
  • inhibition of cell cell
  • inhibition of protein synthesis
  • disruption of nucleic acids
  • disruption of plasma membrane
  • inhibit folic acid
  • inhibit fungal infections
131
Q

drugs used to inhibit cell wall

A
  • penecillins
  • cephalosporins
  • bacitracin
  • vancomycin
132
Q

drugs used to inhibit protein synthesis

A
  • aminoglycosides
  • tetracycline
  • chloramphenicol
133
Q

drugs used to disrupt nucleic acids

A
  • quinolones
  • rifampin
134
Q

drugs used to disrupt plasma membrane

A
  • polymyxins
135
Q

drugs used to inhibit folic acid synthesis

A
  • sulfonamides
  • trimeothorpin
136
Q

drugs used to inhibit fungal infections

A
  • polyenes
  • imidazole
  • griseofulvin
137
Q

explain the kirby bauer test

A
  • tests effectivness of agent against organisms
  • zones of inhibition measured
  • organisms tested for SIR to drug
138
Q

explain MIC test

A

determines minimum concentration of antibiotic that prevents growth

139
Q

5 mechanisms of antibiotic resistance

A
  • enzymes inactivate drug
  • drug cannot enter cell
  • pumps drug out of cell
  • mutations and drug cannot bind
  • alternate pathway or enzyme
140
Q

define normal flora

A

microorganisms normally found on a habitat of the body consistently

141
Q

microbe and host interactions

A
  • mutualistic: host and microbe benefit
  • commensal: microbes benefit
  • opportunistic: microbes benefit host is harmed
142
Q

3 major interacting factors of that determine if infection occurs

A
  • virulence of organism
  • number of organisms
  • state of immune response
143
Q

6 virulence factors

A
  • optimal body site
  • adherence
  • escape
  • invasion
  • siderophores
  • toxicity
144
Q

3 major concerns of pathology

A
  • etiology: cause of disease
  • pathogenesis: development
  • effects on patient’s physiology
145
Q

Define reservoirs and what are they

A
  • continual source/origin of organism
  • humans, animals, soil, food, water
146
Q

Define transmission route and what are they

A
  • how pathogen spreads
  • contact, vehicle, animal
147
Q

5 portals of entry for pathogen

A
  • respiratory
  • gastrointestinal
  • genitourinary
  • skin/mucus membranes
  • blood
148
Q

4 phases of disease development

A
  • incubation
  • prodromal
  • illness
  • recovery
149
Q

incubation phase of development

A
  • time between infection and first s/s
150
Q

prodromal phase of development

A

short period of mild s/s

151
Q

illness phase of development

A

acute, full blown disease, over s/s. highest level of organisms

152
Q

recovery phase of development

A

recovery time, s/s subside

153
Q

define acute

A

rapid for short duration

154
Q

define chronic

A

slow but mild and lasts longer

155
Q

define primary infection

A

bodys defenses overcome by pathogen

156
Q

define secondary infection

A

opportunistic organisms cause infection after primary infection

157
Q

define inapparent infection

A

no signs and symptoms but still contagious

158
Q

define endemic

A

constantly in geographical area

159
Q

define epidemic

A

increase during specific period of time

160
Q

define sporadic

A

occasionally in random sporadic ways

161
Q

define prevalence

A

percentage of population with disease at any given time

162
Q

define incidence

A

percentage of population with disease during specific period of time

163
Q

purpose of the first line of defense

A

impede entry of microbes

164
Q

physical barriers of first line of defense

A

skin and mucucs membranes
- physical, chemical, and genetic barriers

165
Q

chemical barriers of first line of defense

A

lysozymes, acids, interferons

166
Q

genetic barriers of first line of defense

A

some pathogens only infect specific species

167
Q

components of second line of defense

A
  • fever
  • inflammation
  • phagocytosis
  • interferons
  • compliment
168
Q

steps of phagocytosis

A
  • ingestion
  • chemotaxis
  • adherence
  • ingestion
  • digestion
169
Q

steps of inflammation

A
  • tissue damage
  • chemicals released
  • vasodilation
  • chemotactic factors
  • phagocytes respond
  • tissue repair
170
Q

major WBC of 1st and 2nd line of defense

A

phagocytes

171
Q

components of third line of defense

A
  • humoral response
  • cell mediated response
172
Q

what is the humoral response

A

production of antibodies

173
Q

interaction between antigens and antibodies in humoral response

A

antibodies bind to epitope of antigen

174
Q

antibody structure

A
  • glycoproteins produced in response to antigen
  • y shaped structure
  • 4 polypeptide chains: 2 heavy and 2 light
  • epitope
  • hapten
175
Q

5 classes of antibodies

A
  • IgG*
  • IgM*
    -IgA
  • IgE
  • IgD
176
Q

IgG

A
  • primary secondary response
  • crosses placental barrier
  • major class in circulation
177
Q

IgM

A
  • largest
  • first Ig to increase in antigen response
178
Q

IgA

A
  • 1st line of defense
  • body secretions
179
Q

IgE

A
  • allergic reactions
  • bound to surface of other cells
180
Q

direct pathway of antibody production

A
  • proteins
  • APC-TH2 Cells-B cells-plasma cells- antibodies
181
Q

indirect pathway of antibody production

A
  • carbs
  • B cells- Plasma cells- antibodies
182
Q

primary antibody response

A

directly after exposure, IgM responds then IgG

183
Q

secondary antibody response

A

second exposure, memory cells, IgG is the primary response and greatly increases

184
Q

T/F T cells respond to antigen only in context of MHC molecules

185
Q

Cell types involved in humoral response

A

B cells
Plasma cells
lymphocytes

186
Q

What is the cell mediated response

A

direct cell-cell contact leading to destruction of infected/abnormal cells

187
Q

cell types involved in cell mediated response

A

APC, MHC-2, TH1, cytokines, cytotoxic cells

188
Q

T cytotoxic cell lysis process

A
  • T cells recognize antigen
  • granules move to point of contact between cells and fuse with membrane
  • enzyme cause lysis of target cells
  • Tc Cells released unharmed to target another cell
189
Q

major WBC involved in third line of defense

A

lymphocyte

190
Q

natural passive immunity

A

antibodies passed from mother to fetus

191
Q

artificial passive immunity

A

anti serum containing preformed antibodies

192
Q

natural active immunity

A

natural immune response produces antibodies

193
Q

artificial active immunity

A

antigen exposure through vaccine created antibodies

194
Q

define vaccine

A

provides active acquired immunity to infectious disease

195
Q

categories of vaccines

A
  • killed bacteria or viruses
  • live attenuated bacteria or virus
  • toxoids/recombinant (genetic engineering)
196
Q

MMR vaccine

A
  • mumps, measles, rubella
  • live attenuated
197
Q

DTaP

A

Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis

198
Q

define antiserum

A

serum containing antibodies
immunoglobulin

199
Q

body parts with normal flora

A
  • skin
  • eyes
  • mouth/throat
  • ear/nose
  • LARGE INTESTINES
  • external urethra
  • reproductive tract
200
Q

sterile body parts with no normal flora

A
  • larynx/trachea/lungs
  • stomach
  • small intestines
  • uterus
  • blood/tissues
201
Q

Respiratory tract bacteria pathogens

A
  • streptococcus pyogenes/pneumonia
  • neisseria menengitidis
  • hamephilus influenza
  • bordetella pertusis
  • cornybactreium diptheria
  • mycobacterium tuberculosis/leprae
  • legionella pneumophila
202
Q

Strep pyogenes/pneumonia

A
  • gram + cocci, catalase -, hemolysis
  • pyogenes: strep throat, beta
  • pneumonia: alpha, diploccocci
203
Q

Haemphilius influenza
- gram stain
- type

A
  • gram - coccobacilli
  • type b
204
Q

Neiserria meningitidis
- gram stain

A
  • gram - diplococci
205
Q

Bordetella pertiussi
- gram stain
- infection caused

A
  • gram - coccobacilli
  • whooping cough
206
Q

Corynebacterium diptheria
- gram satin

A
  • gram - rods
  • DTaP
207
Q

Mycobacterium

A

acid fast organism
- leprae and tuberculosis

208
Q

legionella pnuemonia
- gram stain
- transmission
- know

A
  • gram - type wall
  • inhalation of contaminated water
  • resistant to normal chlorine
209
Q

unusual prokaryotic pathogens of respiratory tract

A
  • mycoplasma pneumonia
  • chalmydiae pneumonia/psittaci
  • coxiella burnetti
210
Q

general fungal information

A
  • fungal spores inhaled
  • dimorphic
  • most do not become systemic but they can
211
Q

bacterial pathogens that cause menengitis: inflammation of meninges

A
  • streptococcus pneumonia
  • neisseria meningitidis
  • Haemphilus influenza
212
Q

fungal pathogens of the respiratory tract

A
  • cryptococcus neoformans
  • pneumocystis carnii
  • coccidroides immitis: SW USA
  • histoplasma capsulatum: Central/MW USA
  • Blastomyces dermatididis: Eastern US
213
Q

what two fungi pathogens were rare before AIDS and found worldwide

A
  • cryptococcus neofromans
  • pneumocystis carnii
214
Q

what are the five cold viruses of the respiratory tract

A
  • Rhinovirus (leading cause)
  • parainfluenza
  • RSV
  • Coronavirus
  • reovirus
  • all RNA
215
Q

Viruses of the respiratory tract

A
  • cold viruses
  • adenovirus
  • influenza
  • Mumps, measles, rubella
  • hentavirus
  • varicella zoster
  • variola
216
Q

Adenovirus

A

DNA and conjunctivitis

217
Q

Influenza

A
  • RNA
  • spikes
  • antigenic changes
  • formulated inactivated chick embryo
218
Q

influenza spikes

A
  • hemagglutinin: attachment to host cell
  • nuerominidase: penetration from host cell
219
Q

influenza antigenic changes

A
  • shift: major change in spike
  • drift: minor change in spike
220
Q

Mumps, measles, rubella

A

RNA, one type, human host, MMR vaccine
-measles is the most serious
- mumps involves parotid glands
- congenital rubella syndrome

221
Q

hentavirus vector

222
Q

varicella zoster disease

A

DNA, herpes family, chicken pox

223
Q

variola disease

224
Q

intoxication vs infection

A

ingest toxin vs ingest pathogen that forms toxin

225
Q

4 mechanisms of GI intestinal disease

A
  • intoxication
  • adherence
  • adherence/invasion
  • systemic
226
Q

intoxication bacteria’s of GI

A
  • staphylococcus aureus
  • bacillus cereus: gram + rods
  • clostridium botulinum/perfringens
227
Q

staphylococcus aureus GI
- gram stain
- disease caused

A
  • gram + cocci
  • most common cause of food poisoning
228
Q

clostridium botulinum
- gram stain
- consequences

A
  • gram + rods
  • neurotoxin, CNS, paralysis
229
Q

adherence bacterias of GI

A
  • enterobacteriaceae: gram - rods, E.coli
  • Vibrionceae: curved gram - rods
230
Q

vibriochlera

A
  • severe dehydrateion and lost electrolytes
231
Q

adherence and invasion bacteria of GI

A
  • Shigella
  • Salmonella
  • E.coli
232
Q

systemic bacteria of GI

A
  • salmonella typhi: infects tissues/organs
  • Yersinia
  • listeria monocytogenes
233
Q

yersinia
- s/s

A

swelling of lymph nodes that mock appendicitis

234
Q

Listeria monocytogenes
- gram stain
- serious consequences

A
  • gram + rod
  • dangerous for pregnant women and immunosuppressed
235
Q

protozoa of GI and significance and motility of each

A
  • entamoeba histolytica: pseudopods
  • balantidium coli: cilia, swine pigs
  • giardia lambila: flagella, waterborne diarrhea
  • toxoplasma gondii: uncooked meat/cats
  • cryptosporidium parvum: AIDS, found in lakes and streams
236
Q

viruses of GI

A

-local: norwalk and rotavirus
- systemic (enteroviruses): polio, coxsackie, echovirus, Hep A
- Hepatitis viruses

237
Q

local norwalk Virus GI
-RNA or DNA
-disease

A
  • RNA
  • winter vomiting disease
238
Q

significance of local rotavirus GI

A

loss of fluids/shock fatal for infants

239
Q

hand/foot/mouth disease caused by what virus

240
Q

croup caused by what virus

241
Q

Hepetitius A and E

A
  • fecal/oral route
  • no chronic carriers
  • short incubation
242
Q

HEP B,C,D

A
  • Blood/bodily fluids
  • chronic carriers
  • long incubations
243
Q

Bacteria of oral cavity

A
  • dental carrie
  • gingivitis/periodontitis
244
Q

process of dental carrie formation

A
  • sucrose-glucose-dextrose-plaque-acids-erosion
245
Q

fungi of oral cavity

A
  • candida albicans: oral thrush, normal flora, opportunistic, psuedophae
246
Q

Viruses of oral cavity

A
  • herpes simplex 1: oral herpes
  • cytomegalovirus: immunosupressed
  • epstein barr virus: mono, cancer
247
Q

Genitourinary tract pathogens

A

-UTI’S
-vaginitis
- STD’s

248
Q

UTI’s

A
  • gram - rods, e. coli
  • nosocomial catheters
  • cystitis and pylenephritis
249
Q

Vaginitis

A
  • candida albicans: endogenerous
  • trichomonas vaginalis: flagellate protozoa
  • gardnerella vaginalis: gram - rod
250
Q

STD Bacteria

A
  • chlamydia trachomatis: gram - rod
  • neiserria gonorrhea: gram - diplococci
  • treponema pallidum: syphilis spirochete
  • strep. agalactiae: complications, grp B beta
251
Q

STD viruses

A
  • herpes simplex 2 : genital herpes
  • hep B: Liver cancer
  • HPV: warts
  • HIV: AIDS
252
Q

local std infections

A

papillomavirus and herpes

253
Q

systemic std infections

A

syphilis, aids, gonorrhea

254
Q

bacteria skin pathogens

A
  • streptococcus aureus: hair follicles
  • staphylococcus pyogenes: necrotizing facitis
  • psuedo aeruginosa: slime layer
  • clostridium tetani: lock jaw
  • clostridium perfringens: gas gangrene
255
Q

degine dermatophyte

A

fungal infections of hair, skin, and nails

256
Q

direct zoonoses

A
  • bacillus anthracis
  • rabies
257
Q

bacillus anthracis

A
  • gram + rod
  • cutaneous, gastric, pulmonary
258
Q

rabies

A
  • RNA, bullet shaped
  • CNS/PNS- encephalitis
259
Q

indirect zoonoses

A
  • yersinia pestis
  • borriella borgdofieri
  • rickettsia
  • hemoflaggelates
  • sporoza
260
Q

yersinia pestis

A

plague
rodent-rat flea
bipolar staining

261
Q

borriella borgdofieri

A

lymes disease , spirochete
animals/humans-deer tick

262
Q

rickettsial diseases

A

rickettsi: rocky mountain: tick
prowazeki: endemic: body lice
typhi: epidemic: rat flea

263
Q

hemoflagellates

A
  • long, slender, flagellated
  • trypansoma: tste fly, reduvid bug
  • leishmania: sand fly
264
Q

sporoza

A
  • non motile protozoa
  • plasmodium: mosquito, malaria
  • babesio microti: ixodes scapularis
265
Q

zoonose viruses

A
  • togaviridae/bunyaviridae
  • RNA, masquitos
  • encephalitis

Microbioloy (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions