Unit 3 lecture 11-15 Flashcards

1
Q

Define Immune system

A

multilevel network that provides complete protection against infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what does first line of defense include and what is its purpose

A
  • impede entry of microbes and all foreign matter
  • physical barriers
  • chemical barriers
  • genetic barriers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

physical barriers

A
  • skin and mucous membranes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

major factors that inhibit growth on skin

A

dry, salty, acidic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

define mucous membrane

A

epithelial layer that secreted mucus
prevents drying and traps microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

major tracts lined with mucus membrane

A
  • respiratory
  • urinary
  • gastrointestinal
  • reproductive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

stratum corneum

A

top layer of epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

epidermis

A

top layer of skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

dermis

A

layer below epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

sebaceous layer

A

layer below dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

sweat gland

A

looks like hall of noodles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

sebaceous/oil gland

A

circular pores extending from hair follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

chemical barriers

A
  • sebaceous glands
  • meibomian glands
  • lysozyme
  • sweat
  • hydrochloric acid
  • act as natural anti microbials
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

where are sebaceous glands found

A

dermis layer of skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

where are meibomian glands found

A

eye lid secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

where are lysozymes found

A

tears, saliva, blood tissue, nasal secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

where is sweat found

A

acidic salty secretions of skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

where is hydrochloric acid found

A

stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are genetic barriers

A

natural barrier created by pathogen specifically for specific host
- stops the spread of disease based on genetic differences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

2nd line of defense includes…

A
  • phagocytosis
  • inflammation
  • fever
  • interferons
  • compliment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

define phagocyte

A

scavenger WBCs that engulf and destroy particulate matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

main WBC involved in second line of defense

A

Phagocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

neutrophils

A
  • 60-70 percent WBCs
  • short lifespan
  • bone marrow
  • enter tissue
  • highly motile
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

macrophages

A
  • 5 percent WBCs
  • months to years
  • blood vessel walls
  • enter tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

4 steps of phagocytosis

A
  • ingestion of bacteria by phagocytes
  • chemotaxis
  • adherence
  • ingestion
  • digestion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Chemotaxis

A
  • wbc moves toward microbe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

adherence

A

close contact between WBC and microbe (PAMPs)
WBC has (PRRs) recognize and bind to PAMPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

ingestion

A

microbe internalized by WBC by phagosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

digestion

A

phagolysozomes released called residual bodies that fuse with the plasma membrane and are released

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

4 hallmarks of inflammation

A

heat, redness, swelling, pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

process of inflammation

A
  • tissue damage
  • chemicals released
  • vasodilation and increased permeability of blood vessels
  • chemotactic factors released
  • phagocytes respond
  • tissue repair
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

define fever

A

abnormal elevated body temp
universal sign of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

benefits of fever

A
  • inhibits multiplication of temp sensitive microbes
  • decreases availability of iron
  • increases phagocytic activity
  • stimulates inflammation
  • stimulate squire IR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

define interferons

A

protein released in response to viral entry that inhibit viral replication
not virus specific but host specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

genetic engineering of interferons

A
  • protein production: pharmaceuticals and vaccines
  • alter organisms: pesticides
  • source of DNA for study
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the compliment cascade and what is the end result

A

sequential physiological response that involves at least 26 blood proteins that work in concert to destroy bacteria
- result in lysis: small punctures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the third line of defense

A

acquired immunity
response once infection has surpassed first and second line
humoral response and cell mediated response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

major cell types of third line of defense

A
  • macrophages and dendritic cells
  • lymphocytes
    -b cells
    -T cells
  • natural killer cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

function of macrophages

A

process antigen and present to lymphocytes
- ingest and kill foreign cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

functions of dendrites

A

process antigen and present it to lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

function of lymphocytes

A

migrate in and out of foreign tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

function of B cells

A

differentiate into plasma cells and form antibodies (humoral response)
mature in bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

function of T cells

A

assist b cells and kill foreign cells (cell mediated immunity)
mature in thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

T helper cells

A
  • TH1
  • TH2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

function of TH1 and TH2

A
  • TH1: activate T cytotoxic cells and macrophages
  • TH2: activate B cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

T cytotoxic cells

A

seek out and lyse infected cells in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

B cell receptors

A

immunoglobulin cells
IgD or IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

T cell receptors

A

TRC complex and CD3 protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Natural killer cells

A

active against cancerous and virally infected cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

MHC-1receptors

A

found on all nucleated cells of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

MHC-2 receptors

A

present on macrophages and B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

clonal selection theory

A

when foreign antigen enters body, only lymphocytes having receptors specific for that antigen will be activated to proliferate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the humoral response

A

production of antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

define antigen

A

foreign matter that triggers a specific immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

define epitope

A

small portion of antigen to which antibody binds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

define hapten

A

too small to induce synthesis. must first conjugate to large carrier protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

define antibody

A
  • glycoproteins produced in response to specific antigen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

5 classes of antibodies

A
  • IgG
  • IgM
  • IgA
  • IgE
  • IgD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

IgG

A
  • primary secondary response
  • only class that crosses placental barrier
  • eliminates gram - and gram +
  • 80 percent of total Igs
  • neutralization of viruses and toxins
60
Q

IgM

A
  • 5 to 10 percent antibodies
  • largest Ig
  • first Ig to increase in antigen response
  • lysis of gram - bacteria
  • M: macroglobulin
61
Q

IgA

A
  • 1st line of defense
  • monomer form: serum
  • diner form: mucus secretions
  • respiratory, genitoruinary, intestinal, and breast milk
  • 1-15%
62
Q

IgE

A
  • 0.002 %
  • responsible for allergic reactions
  • Fc portion bound tightly to basophils and mast cells
  • desensitization programs
63
Q

steps in T cell dependent pathway

A
  • protein based
  • APC-TH2 Cells- B cells- plasma cells - antibodies
64
Q

steps in T cell independent pathway

A
  • simple carbs
  • B cells-plasma cells-antibodies
65
Q

what cells are responsible for amnesties response

A

memory cells

66
Q

what is amnestic response

A

rapid production of antibody following second contact with antigen

67
Q

primary response to antigen

A
  • occurs directly after exposure
  • IgM responds first then IgG
68
Q

secondary response to antigen

A
  • antigen exposed to body for the second time
  • me rory cells produced that allow body to respond quickly and effectively
  • IgG primary response and increases significantly
69
Q

6 roles of antibodies

A
  • activation of compliment
  • inflammation
  • cytotoxicity
  • neutralization
  • opsonization
  • agglutination
70
Q

cell mediated response

A
  • cell-cell contact leading to destruction of infected/abnormal cells
  • defends against bacteria, viruses, protozoa, worms, cancer cells
71
Q

process of cell mediated response

A
  • APC engulf, process, and display antigen fragments in MHC-2
  • TH1 cells recognize MHC2/Ag and bind
  • in response to cytokines: TH1 cells activated
  • Activated TH1 cells produce additional cytokines which activate macrophages and T cytotoxic cells
72
Q

define cytokine

A

secreted proteins of the immune system that have an affect on other cells

73
Q

process of T cytotoxic cell lysis

A
  • T cells recognize specific antigen in context on MHC1
  • granules within cell move to point of contact between 2 cells and fuse with membrane
  • potent cytolytic enzymes cause lysis of target cells
  • Tc cells released unharmed to seek out another target cell
74
Q

T cytotoxic cells and natural killer cells

A
  • both derived from bone marrow and target and lyse cells
  • NKC do not recognize Ag/MHC-1
    • important in killing malignant cells and antibody released cells
75
Q

active immunity

A
  • person exposed to antigen, antibody created, memory forms
  • long term protection
76
Q

passive immunity

A

preformed antibodies
immediate protection
short term

77
Q

Natural active

A

immune response produced antibodies

78
Q

artificial active

A

antigen exposure through vaccine
immune response produces antibodies

79
Q

natural passive

A

antibodies pass from mother to fetus

80
Q

artificial passive

A

anti-serum containing preformed antibodies

81
Q

define vaccine

A

provides active acquired immunity to infectious disease

82
Q

4 categories of vaccines

A
  • killed bacteria or viruses
  • living attenuated bacteria or virus
  • toxoids/capsular material of bacteria
    recombinant DNA technology (genetic engineering)
83
Q

benefits of live vaccines

A
  • grow in host
  • stimulate antibody production for longer period of time
  • stimulate numeral and cell mediated response
  • induce production of IgA
84
Q

why do some vaccine require boosters

A

to ensure an effective secondary response

85
Q

define normal flora

A

organism found on consistent basis in specific body areas
- compete with and control pathogens

86
Q

body parts with normal flora

A
  • skin
  • eyes
  • nasal cavity, middle ear, auditory tube, pharynx (highly colonized)
  • mouth, esophagus (highly colonized)
  • large intestines(extreme numbers)
  • external urethra
  • reproductive tracts
87
Q

sterile body parts

A
  • larynx, trachea, lungs, bronchus
  • stomach
  • small intestines
  • kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder
  • blood and tissues
88
Q

things to know about normal flora

A
  • what is normal flora for one person may not be normal flora for another
  • what is normal flora on one body part may not be normal flora on another
  • gram (+) bacteria
89
Q

what is the ciliary escalator

A

mucus traps organisms and particles and the cilia moves them up and out

90
Q

streptococcus

A
  • gram (+) cocci, catalase -
  • grown in 5% sheep blood agar
  • hemolysis
  • species differentiated based on differences in C carbohydrates in cell walk
  • denoted by group A-H, K-O
91
Q

2 potential pathogens if streptococcus

A
  • streptococcus pyogenes
  • streptococcus pneumonia
92
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes

A
  • leading cause of strep disease
  • > 80 types based on differences in M protein
93
Q

virulence factors of strep pyogenes

A
  • M protein: adherence
  • capsule
  • produce enzymes and toxins
94
Q

2 sequellae of strep pyogenes

A
  • rehuematic fever
  • glomerulinephritis
95
Q

streptococcus pneumonia

A
  • alpha hemolytic
  • > 100 types based on differences in capsule
96
Q

virulence of strep pneumonia

A
  • capsule
  • secretions of pneumolysins: impair immune response
97
Q

define hemolysis and 3 types

A
  • destruction of WBC
  • alpha: partial
  • beta: complete
  • gamma: none
98
Q

Meningitis

A
  • inflammation of meninges
99
Q

define meninges

A

3 layers of connective tissue surrounding brain and spinal cord

100
Q

3 leading causes of bacterial meningitis

A
  • haemphilus influenza
  • neisseria meningitidis
  • strep pneumonia
101
Q

Haemphilius influenza

A
  • gram - coccobacilli
  • type b
  • vaccine: capsular material
  • virulence: capsule and endotoxins
102
Q

Neisseria Meningitidis

A
  • gram - diplococci
  • vaccine: capsular material
103
Q

virulence of neisseria meningitidis

A
  • polysaccharide capsule
  • fimbriae
  • invade host cells and grow intracellularly
  • large amount of endotoxins
104
Q

streptococcus pneumonia

A
  • gram (+) displococci
  • vaccine: capsular material
105
Q

3.) Bordetella Pertiussi (whooping cough)

A
  • gram (-) coccobacilli
  • virulence: fimbriae and toxin production
  • vaccine: DT(aP): acellular fragments
106
Q

4 stages of bordetella perfussis

A
  • incubation: 7-10 days
  • cattharal: sneezing, cough (1-2 weeks)
  • spasmodic: violent cough, whooping sounds (1-6 weeks)
  • convalescence: recovery (2wks-months)
107
Q

4.) Corynebacterium Diptheria

A
  • gram + rods
  • vaccine: DTaP: inactivated diptheria toxin
  • virulence: exotoxins and endotoxins
108
Q

endotoxins of diphtheria

A
  • 2 polypeptide chains
  • a: steps protein synthesis in cell
  • b: binding to host cell
109
Q

5.) Mycobacterium

A
  • acid fast organism (mycolic acid in cell wall)
  • relatively non pathogenic
110
Q

2 pathogens of micro bacterium

A
  • tuberculosis
  • leprae
111
Q

advantage of acid fact

A
  • increased generation time
  • more resistant to chemicals
  • resist destruction in macrophages
  • cord factor
112
Q

tuberculosis

A
  • very contagious
  • slow, chronic disease
  • spread by inhalation of droplets
  • form lesions on LRT
113
Q

treatment of tuberculosis

A

multiple drugs over long period of time bc intracellular

114
Q

Leprae

A
  • not very contagious
  • tuberculoid(neural): loss of sensation
  • lepromatuous(progressive): disfigurement
115
Q

treatment of leprae

A

multiple drugs over long period of time

116
Q

6.) legionella pneumonia

A
  • gram - type wall
  • transmitted by inhalation of contaminated water
  • resistant to normal chlorine levels
117
Q

virulence if legionella pneumophila

A
  • produce toxins
  • invade and grow in macrophages
118
Q

unusual prokaryotes

A
  • mycoplasma pneumonia
  • chlamydia
  • coxiella burnetti
119
Q

1.) mycoplasma pneumonia

A
  • smallest organism that can grow and reproduce without host cell
  • pack peptidoglycan cell wall
  • membrane contains sterols
  • highly pleomorphic
  • fried egg colony appearance
120
Q

2.) chalmydia

A
  • obligate intracellular organism
  • different developmental cycle
121
Q

chalmydia cycle

A

elementary body
reticulate body
elementary body

122
Q

3 types of chalmydia

A
  • pistacii: birds (respiratory)
  • pneumonia: person-person(respiratory)
  • trachomatis: sexually transmitted
123
Q

3.) Coxiella Burnetti

A
  • gram - coccobacilli
  • transmitted by anthropoid vectors: cattle and ticks
  • form endospore like structure
  • vaccine: killed organisms
124
Q

Fungi

A
  • acquired by inhalation of fungal spores
  • dimorphic
  • all capable of causing systemic infection
125
Q

what is meant by dimorphic

A
  • mold in nature
  • year in body
126
Q

what 2 infections were rare before AIDS

A
  • cryptococcus neoformans
  • pneumocystis carnii
127
Q

1.) Blastomyces Dermatididis

A
  • endemic in eastern region US
  • source: soil especially if exposed to animal wastes
128
Q

2.) Histoplasma Capsulatum

A
  • endemic in central mid western US
  • source: most soil; bird and bat feces
129
Q

3.) Coccidioides immitis

A
  • endemic in hot and arid regions: southwest US
    source: soil in hot arid regions
130
Q

4.) cryptococcus neoformans

A
  • worldwide
  • yeast cells have large capsule
  • source: pigeons, most soil
  • chronic meningitis can result in immune suppressed
131
Q

5.) pneumocystis carnii

A
  • worldwide
  • very common
  • life threatening pneumonia can result in immune suppressed
132
Q

Viruses

A
  • common cold viruses
  • influenza
  • adenovirus
  • mumps
  • measles
  • rubella
  • hentavirus
  • varicella zoster
  • variola
133
Q

viral disease process

A
  • attachment
  • penetration
  • uncoating
  • assembly
  • release
134
Q

1.) common cold viruses

A
  • all RNA
  • rhinovirus (leading cause)
  • parainfluenza
  • respiratory syricytical virus
  • coronavirus
  • reovirus
135
Q

2.) Influenza virus

A
  • RNA
  • spread through respiratory droplets
  • frequent mutations
  • viral spikes
  • vaccine: grown in chick embryo; formalin inactivated
136
Q

frequent mutations of influenza

A
  • antigenic shift: major change in spike proteins
  • antigenic drift: minor change spike proteins
137
Q

influenza viral spikes

A
  • hemagglutinin: recognition/attachment of virus to host cell
  • neuromunidase: penetration of virus from host cell during budding
138
Q

3.) Adenovirus

A
  • DNA
  • first isolated from adenoids
  • can cause conjunctivitis
139
Q

4.) Mumps

A
  • RNA only one type
  • becomes systemic and infects paranoid glands
  • immunization: MMR, live attenuated
  • spread through saliva/nasal secretions
140
Q

5.) Measles

A
  • RNA only one type
  • becomes systemic
  • koplik spots/rash
  • can have serious consequences: encephalitis
  • MMR vaccine
141
Q

6.) Rubella

A
  • RNA only one type
  • rash: less severe than measles
  • congenital rubella syndrome
  • MMR vaccine
  • flat red spots
142
Q

7.) Hentavirus

A
  • RNA
  • transmitted by excretions from deer mice
  • rapidly progress to respiratory failure and death
  • no vaccine
143
Q

8.) Varicella Zoster (chicken pox)

A
  • DNA: in heroes family
  • results in fluid filled blisters
  • virus remains latent in host
  • vaccine: live attenuated virus
144
Q

recurrence of chicken pox

A

shingles (mostly adults)

145
Q

9.) Variola virus (small pox)

A
  • DNA
  • lesions: leave disfiguring scars
  • world wide immunization programs eradicated disease
  • last case 1977
  • live attenuated virus: vaccine