Unit 4 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

T/F

Embryology is the study of prenatal development

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

T/F

There are three primary germ layers in an embryo

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

T/F

Amnion is the transparent sac that develops from epiblast. It fills with amniotic fluid that protects the embryo from trauma, infections, and temperature fluctuations and is only penetrated by the umbilical cord.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

T/F

Tubal pregnancy is a synonym for ectopic pregnancies

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

T/F

Monozygotic twins form when one egg is fertilized (one zygote) but the embryoblast later divides into two. These individuals are genetically identical, of the same sex, and nearly identical in appearance.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

T/F

A blastocyst is a solid sphere made up of three layers (trophoblast, embryoblast, and blastocoel).

A

False

It is a hollow sphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

T/F

During fetal blood circulation, blood bypasses the lung going directly from the right atrium to the left atrium via a hole in the “interventricular septum”

A

False

It is the interatrial septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

T/F

Sexual reproduction entails the union of two gonads to form a zygote.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

T/F

An egg must be fertilized within 36-48 hours of ovulation, if it is to survive.

A

False

Must be fertilized within 12-24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

T/F

From puberty through adulthood, reproductive function is regulated by hormonal links between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland only.

A

False

VERIFY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

T/F

Pregnancy is divided into three trimesters, composed of 4 month intervals

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

At 16 days old an embryo consists of three primary germ layers. Which of the choices below are the correct terms for the three primary germ layers?

  1. Mesoderm
  2. Endoderm
  3. Ectoderm
  4. Hectoderm
  5. A-C
A

A-C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Polyspermy is the act of

  1. An egg being fertilized by one sperm
  2. A sperm fertilizing an egg with no genetic material
  3. An egg being fertilized by a defected sperm
  4. A sperm fertilizing 2 or more eggs
  5. An egg being fertilized by two or more sperm
A

An egg being fertilized by two or more sperm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Mitotic divisions that occur in the first 3 days while the conceptus migrates down uterine tube is known as ____________.

  1. Cleavage
  2. Zygote
  3. Fertilization
  4. Embryogensis
  5. Implantation
A
  1. Cleavage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The nervous system is derived from the _______________ germ layer.

  1. Ectoderm
  2. Fectoderm
  3. Mesoderm
  4. Endoderm
A
  1. Ectoderm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following is not considered a preembryonic stage?

  1. Implosion
  2. Cleavage
  3. Implantation
  4. Embryogenesis
A
  1. Implosion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The bladder and glands of the respiratory system is derived from the _______________ germ layer.

  1. Ectoderm
  2. Fectoderm
  3. Mesoderm
  4. Endoderm
A

Endoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cartilage, blood and the skeletal system is derived from the _______________ germ layer.

  1. Ectoderm
  2. Fectoderm
  3. Mesoderm
  4. Endoderm
A

Mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

During neonates transitional period

  1. Their heart and respiratory rates increase; body temperature falls
  2. The physical activity declines and baby sleeps for about 3 hours
  3. They often gags on mucus and debris in the pharynx
  4. All of the above
A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the function of syncytiotophoblast?

  1. Grows into the uterus like little roots
  2. Closes the embryoblast
  3. To maintain in contact with the endometrium
  4. To force the blastocyst to divide.
A
  1. Grows into the uterus like little roots
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

By the end of 5 weeks during embryonic folding and organogenesis the thoracic cavity has subdivided into the ______________.

  1. Pleural cavity
  2. Pericardial cavity
  3. Mediastinum cavity
  4. Pleural and mediastinum cavities
  5. Pericardial and pleural cavities
A

Pericardial and pleural cavities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Allantois is a type of embryonic membrane that begins as an outpocketing of the yolk sac. It will become ________.

  1. Part of the urinary bladder
  2. A testis
  3. Part of the large intestine
  4. Internal umbilical cord
A

Part of the urinary bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Blastocyst is a hallow ball that forms during the preembryonic stage of pregnancy. This ball is three layer, which of the following is not a layer of a blastocyst?

  1. Blastocoels
  2. Blastomere
  3. Trophoblast
  4. Embryoblast
A

Blastomere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the follow is not true about “dizygotic” twins?

  1. Form from two eggs being fertilized at the same time by two different sperms
  2. No more or less genetically similar than any other siblings
  3. Implant separately in the uterine wall and each forms its own placenta
  4. Genetically identical, of the same sex, and nearly identical in appearance
  5. Account for about two-thirds of twins
A

Genetically identical, of the same sex, and nearly identical in appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Having an extra chromosome produces a triple set is commonly known as ___.

  1. Nondisjuction
  2. Monosomy
  3. Sampling
  4. Trisomy
  5. Nullisomy
A

Trisomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Gonads begin to develop ______________.

  1. 2 to 3 weeks after fertilization
  2. 5 to 6 weeks after fertilization
  3. 8 to 9 weeks after fertilization
  4. 20 to 24 weeks after fertilization
  5. At birth
A

5 to 6 weeks after fertilization (VERIFY)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The cessation of menstruation is called ______________

  1. Menopause
  2. Climacteric
  3. Atresia
  4. Puberty
  5. Menstrual
A

Menopause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The morula stage happens when the conceptus arrives to the uterus, this usually happens within ______ hours.

  1. 12
  2. 24
  3. 36
  4. 48
  5. 72
A

72

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

During gestation the conceptus is nourished in three different, overlapping ways which of the following is not a nutrient pathway?

  1. Uterine milk
  2. Trophoblastic nutrition
  3. Placental nutrition
  4. Umbilical milk
A

Umbilical milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The umbilical cord is formed of_____

  1. Two umbilical arteries
  2. One umbilical vein
  3. Two shunts
  4. Two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein
  5. One umbilical vein two shunts
A

Two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The three primary germ layers of an embryo consist of all the following except:

  1. Ectoderm
  2. Fectoderm
  3. Endoderm
  4. Mesoderm
A

Fectoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Vast majority of sperm do not make it to egg because they

  1. Are destroyed by vaginal acid or drain out of vagina
  2. Are fail to penetrate the mucus of the cervical canal
  3. Are destroyed by leukocytes in the uterus
  4. Half of the sperm go up wrong uterine tube
  5. All of the above
A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The fetus has several shunts to help with blood circulation, the ___________ allows for blood to bypass the pulmonary circuit moving directly from the right atrium to the left atrium.

  1. Umbilical placental circuit
  2. Ductus arteriosus
  3. Foramen ovale
  4. Ductus venosus
A

Foramen ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The preembryonic stage has three major processes it undergoes during the first 16 days of development. These major processes include all of the following expect:

  1. Implantation
  2. Burrowing
  3. Cleavage
  4. Embryogenesis
  5. All of the above
A

Burrowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The fetus has several shunts to help with blood circulation; the ___________ allows blood ­to flow directly from the pulmonary trunk to the aorta.

  1. Umbilical placental circuit
  2. Ductus arteriosus
  3. Foramen ovale
  4. Ductus venosus ­
A

Ductus arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Stretching of uterus increases OT release, causes contractions, causing more stretching of uterus, etc. until delivery. This is an example of ________ feedback.

  1. Positive
  2. Negative
A

Positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The fetus has several shunts to help with blood circulation, the ___________ allows for Placental blood to bypasses the liver and flow into the inferior vena cava (IVC).

  1. Umbilical placental circuit
  2. Ductus arteriosus
  3. Foramen ovale
  4. Ductus venosus
A

Ductus venosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the following statements is not true concerning a neonate’s transitional period?

  1. It’s the first 6 to 8 hours of life
  2. Heart and respiratory rates decrease; body temperature rise
  3. Their physical activity declines and baby sleeps for about 3 hours; second period of activity, baby often gags on mucus and debris in the pharynx; baby sleeps again and becomes more stable
  4. They settle into a cycle of waking every 3 to 4 hours to feed
A

Heart and respiratory rates decrease; body temperature rise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Infants born before 7 months tend to suffer from

  1. Immature liver
  2. Digestive issues
  3. Thermoregulatory
  4. Infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS)
  5. All of the above
A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Alcohol, nicotine, diagnostic x-rays, microorganisms are considered _______ and can lead to ________.

  1. Teratology; birth defects
  2. Congenital anomalies; birth defects
  3. Deformities; anomalies
  4. Teratogens; teratology
  5. Teratogens; birth defects
A

Teratogens; birth defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Sickle cell is an inheritable ______________ disease.

  1. Dominant
  2. Autosomal
  3. Recessive
  4. Co-dominant
A

VERIFY

Recessive

42
Q

Neurotransmitters

  • What releases them
  • What do they do
A
  • Released from neurons to travel across synaptic cleft to second cell
43
Q

What are hormones

A
  • Chemical messengers that travel in the bloodstream to other tissues and organs
44
Q

What are endocrine glands

A
  • Organs that are traditional sources of hormones
45
Q

Describe exocrine glands

A
  • Have ducts carry secretion to an epithelial surface or the mucosa of the digestive tract: “external secretions”
  • Extracellular effects (food digestion)
46
Q

Endocrine gland characteristics

A
  • No ducts
  • Contain dense, fenestrated capillary networks which allow easy uptake of hormones into bloodstream
  • “Internal secretions”
  • Intracellular effects such as altering target cell metabolism
47
Q

Liver cells

A
  • Defy rigid classification
  • Rreleases hormones, releases bile into ducts, releases albumin and blood-clotting factors into blood (not hormones)
48
Q

What is the pituitary gland suspended from?

A

Hypothalamus; by a stalk called infundibulum

49
Q

Location & size of pituitary gland

A
  • Housed in sella turcica of sphenoid bone
  • Size and shape of kidney bean
50
Q

What is the pituitary gland composed of?

A
  • 2 structures with independent origins and separate functions
    • Adenohypophysis (anterior pituitary): Arises from hypophyseal pouch (outgrowth of pharynx)
    • Neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary): Down-growth from brain
51
Q

Oxytocin (OT)

  • What is it
  • What does it do
A
  • Posterior pituitary hormone
  • Surge of hormone released during sexual arousal and orgasm
    • Stimulate uterine contractions and propulsion of semen
    • Promotes feelings of sexual satisfaction and emotional bonding between partners
    • Stimulates labor contractions during childbirth
    • Stimulates flow of milk during lactation
    • Promotes emotional bonding between lactating mother and infant
52
Q

Control of pituitary secretion

Positive feedback

A
  • Stretching of uterus increases OT release
  • Causes contractions, causing more stretching of uterus, etc. until delivery
53
Q

Pineal gland

  • Where is it
  • What happens after age 7
  • What does it do?
A
  • Attached to roof of third ventricle beneath the posterior end of corpus callosum
  • After age 7, it undergoes involution (shrinkage)
    • Down 75% by end of puberty
    • Tiny mass of shrunken tissue in adults
  • Synthesizes melatonin from serotonin during the night
    • Fluctuates seasonally with changes in day length
    • May synchronize physiological function with 24-hour circadian rhythms of daylight and darkness
54
Q

Seasonal affective disorder (SAD)

  • Symptoms
  • Treatment
A
  • Occurs in winter or northern climates
  • Symptoms
    • depression
    • sleepiness
    • irritability
    • carbohydrate craving
  • 2-3 hours of exposure to bright light each day reduces the melatonin levels and the symptoms (phototherapy)
55
Q

List the 3 pancreatic islets

A
  • Glucagon
  • Insulin
  • Somatostatin
56
Q

Glucagon

  • What is it secreted by
  • When is it released
A
  • Secreted by A or alpha (a) cells
  • Released between meals when blood glucose concentration is falling
57
Q

Insulin

  • What is it secreted by
  • When is it released
  • What does it stimulate? What does insufficiency cause?
A
  • Secreted by B or beta (b) cells
  • Secreted during and after meal when glucose and amino acid blood levels are rising
  • Stimulates cells to absorb these nutrients and store or metabolize them lowering blood glucose levels
  • Insufficiency or inaction is cause of diabetes mellitus
58
Q

Somatostatin

  • What is it secreted by
  • When is it released
  • What does it do
A
  • Secreted by D or delta (d) cells
  • Partially suppresses secretion of glucagon and insulin
  • Inhibits nutrient digestion and absorption which prolongs absorption of nutrients
59
Q

General adaptation syndrome (GAS)

  • What does it react to?
  • What does it involve?
  • List the 3 stages
A
  • Consistent way the body reacts to stress
  • Typically involves elevated levels of epinephrine and glucocorticoids (especially cortisol)
  • Occurs in three stages
    1. Alarm reaction
    2. Stage of resistance
    3. Stage of exhaustion
60
Q

Alarm reaction

  • Describe
  • What is it mediated by
  • What levels does it increase?
A
  • Initial response
  • Mediated by norepinephrine from the sympathetic nervous system and epinephrine from the adrenal medulla
    • Prepares body to fight or flight
    • Stored glycogen is consumed
    • Increases aldosterone and angiotensin levels
      • Angiotensin helps raise blood pressure
      • Aldosterone promotes sodium and water conservation
61
Q

Stage of resistance

  • What does it do?
  • What is this stage dominated by?
A
  • Provides alternate fuels for metabolism
  • Stage dominated by cortisol
62
Q

Cortisol

  • What stage applies to cortisol
  • Describe its effect
  • Adverse effects of excessive cortisol
A
  • Stage of resistance
  • Has glucose-sparing effect which inhibits protein synthesis leaving free amino acids for gluconeogenesis
  • Adverse effects of excessive cortisol
    • depresses immune function
    • increases susceptibility to infection and ulcers
    • lymphoid tissues atrophy, antibody levels drop, and wounds heal poorly
63
Q

ACTH

  • What stage is it associated with
  • What is it secreted by
  • What does it do
A
  • Stage of resistance
  • Pituitary secretes an increase in ACTH
    • Stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol and other glucocorticoids
    • Promotes the breakdown of fat and protein into glycerol, fatty acids, and amino acids, for gluconeogenesis
64
Q

Stage of exhaustion

  • Describe
A
  • When stress continues for several months, and fat reserves are gone, homeostasis is overwhelmed
    • protein breakdown & muscle wasting
    • loss of glucose homeostasis because adrenal cortex stops producing glucocorticoids
    • aldosterone promotes water retention and hypertension
    • death results from heart & kidney infection or overwhelming infection
65
Q

Comparison of the Nervous & Endocrine Systems: internal communication

A
  • Nervous: both electrical and chemical
  • Endocrine: only chemical
66
Q

Comparison of the Nervous & Endocrine Systems: speed and persistence of response

A
  • Nervous: reacts quickly (1 to 10 ms), stops quickly
  • Endocrine: reacts slowly (hormones release in seconds or days), effect may continue for weeks
67
Q

Comparison of the Nervous & Endocrine Systems: adaptation to long-term stimuli

A
  • Nervous: response declines (adapts quickly)
  • Endocrine: response persists (adapts slowly)
68
Q

Comparison of the Nervous & Endocrine Systems: area of effect

A
  • Nervous: targeted and specific (one organ)
  • Endocrine: general, widespread effects (many organs)
69
Q

Chemicals that function as both hormones & neurotransmitters in nervous and endocrine systems (list)

A
  • Antidiuretic hormone
  • Cholecystokinin
  • Dopamine
  • Norepinephrine
  • Thyrotropin-releasing hormone
70
Q

What are target organs or cells

A
  • Organs or cells that have receptors for a hormone and can respond to it
71
Q

How does the female body try to prevent polyspermy?

  • List and describe
A
  • Fast block
    • binding of sperm to the egg opens Na+ channels in the egg membrane
    • inflow of Na+ depolarizes the membrane and inhibits the attachment of any more sperm
  • Slow block
    • involves secretory granules and cortical granules, just below membrane
    • sperm penetration releases an inflow of Ca2+
    • secretion swells with water, pushing remaining sperm away
    • creates an impenetrable fertilization membrane between the egg and the zona pellucida
72
Q

Where are the 2 umbilical arteries found in the umbilical cord formed from?

A

Internal iliac arteries

73
Q

T/F

Exocrine glands have no ducts, and contains dense fenestrated capillary networks which allow easy uptake of hormones into bloodstream.

A

False

74
Q

T/F

Target organs or cells are those organs or cells that have receptors for a hormone but is unable to respond to it.

A

False

75
Q

T/F

Both the nervous system and the endocrine system serve for external communication.

A

False

76
Q

Compare and contrast the nervous system and endocrine system in regards to communication about body stimuli

A
  • Both serve for internal communication
    • Nervous system
      • affects both electrical and chemical communication
      • reacts quickly and stops quickly
      • adapts quickly
      • affects a targeted/specific organ
    • Endocrine system
      • serves only chemical communication
      • reacts slowly, and its effects may continue for weeks
      • adapts slowly
      • affects general, widespread organs (more than 1)
77
Q

All of the following chemicals function as both hormones and neurotransmitters except

  1. Dopamine
  2. Oxytocin
  3. Norepinephine
  4. Cholecystokinin
  5. All of the above
A

b. Oxytocin

78
Q

Chemical messengers that are transported by the bloodstream and stimulate physiological responses in cells of another tissue or organ, often a considerable distance away are know as __________

A

VERIFY (HW 10)

Hormones

79
Q

General adaptation syndrome (GAS) is a consistent way the body reacts to stress; typically involves elevated levels of epinephrine and glucocorticoids (especially cortisol). Which of the following is not a stage of GAS?

  1. Alarm reaction
  2. Stage of adaptation
  3. Stage of resistance
  4. Stage of exhaustion
A

Stage of adaptation

80
Q

Somatostatin is secreted by

  • Alpha cells
  • Beta cells
  • Delta cells
  • No answer text provided
A

Delta cells

81
Q

What does the hypothalamus secrete?

A

Corticotropin-releasing hormone

82
Q

T/F

Exocrine glands have no ducts, and contains dense fenestrated capillary networks, which allows easy uptake of hormones into the bloodstream

A

False

83
Q

T/F

Exocrine glands have ducts, and carry secretion to an epithelial surface or the mucosa of the digestive tract.

A

True

84
Q

T/F

The pituitary gland is composed of two parts anterior (adenohypophysis) and posterior (neurohypophysis).

A

True

85
Q

Hormones are

  1. Pores in the cell membrane that allows signaling molecules, nutrients, and electrolytes to move from cell to cell.
  2. Released from neurons to travel across synaptic clefts to a second cell
  3. Secreted into tissue fluid to affect nearby cells
  4. Chemical messages that travels in the bloodstream to other tissues and organs
A
  1. Chemical messages that travels in the bloodstream to other tissues and organs
86
Q

Neurotransmitters are

  1. Pores in the cell membrane that allow signaling molecules, nutrients, and electrolytes to move from cell to cell
  2. Released from neurons to travel across synaptic clefts to a second cell
  3. Secreted into tissue fluids to affect nearby cells
  4. Chemical messages that travel in the bloodstream to other tissues and organs
A
  1. Released from neurons to travel across synaptic clefts to a second cell
87
Q

Which system is responsible for external communication, nervous or endocrine?

A

Nervous system

This system is responsible for internal and external communications. The endocrine is limited to internal communications.

88
Q

What 2 structures with independent origins and separate functions compose the pituitary gland?

A
  • Adenohypophysis (anterior pituitary)
    • Arises from hypophyseal pouch (outgrowth of pharynx)
  • Neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary)
    • Downgrowth from brain
89
Q

What 3 systems does the thymus play a role in?

A
  • Endocrine
  • Immune
  • Lymphatic
90
Q

What is the largest endocrine gland?

A

Thyroid gland

91
Q

What is the thyroid gland composed of?

A
  • 2 lobes; and
  • Isthmus below the larynx
92
Q

Thyroid follicles

  • What are they
  • What do they contain
A
  • Sacs that compose most of thyroid
  • Contain protein-rich colloid
93
Q

Follicular cells

A

Simple cuboidal epithelium that line thyroid follicles

94
Q

Parathyroid glands

A
  • 4 glands partially embedded in posterior surface of thyroid gland
95
Q

The ___ is an endocrine gland and has several endocrine functions

  1. Pancreas
  2. Parathyroid gland
  3. Thyroid gland
  4. All the above
A
  1. All the above
96
Q

T/F

The endocrine system is involved in the adaptation of stress

A

True

97
Q

Hyposecretion disorder

  • What is it
A
  • Inadequate hormone release
  • Tumor or lesion destroys gland or interferes with its ability to receive signals from another gland
    • Head trauma affects pituitary gland’s ability to secrete ADH
      • Diabetes insipidus: chronic polyuria
  • Autoantibodies fail to distinguish person’s own gland from foreign matter
98
Q

Acromegaly disorder

A

Thickening of bones and soft tissues in adults, especially in hands, feet, and face

99
Q

Heterozygous & homozygous gene distribution

A
  • Heteorzygous: one dominant and one recessive gene (ie Bb)
  • Homozygous: either two dominant or two recessive genes (ie BB or bb)
100
Q

Recessive vs dominant genes

A
  • Recessive are the “weaker” genes, and need two (homozygous) genes in order to be visible
  • Dominant genes are the “stronger” genes
101
Q

What is used to visualize gene distribution options

A

Punnett square