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BIO 151 A&P II > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

T/F

Hemostasis is the production of formed elements of blood

A

False

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2
Q

T/F

Blood viscosity stems mainly from electrolytes and monomers dissolved in plasma.

A

False

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3
Q

T/F

Lymphoid hemopoiesis occurs mainly in the bone marrow.

A

False

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4
Q

T/F

Circulatory shock is any state in which cardiac output is insufficient to meet the body’s metabolic needs

A

True

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5
Q

T/F

Pressure sensors, chemical receptors, and activity receptors are located in various area of the body to regulate our heart rate.

A

True

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6
Q

T/F

Oxygen and carbon dioxide bind to different parts of hemoglobin.

A

True

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7
Q

T/F

The liver stores excess iron.

A

True

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8
Q

T/F

The cardiac center is located in the medulla oblongata and is part of the brain steam.

A

True

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9
Q

T/F

15% of blood pumped by the heart is pumped to the heart itself through the coronary circulation to sustain its strenuous workload.

A

False

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10
Q

T/F

Three-fourths (¾) of the the body’s capillaries are shut down at a given time.

A

True

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11
Q

T/F

A person develops anti-A antibodies only after he is exposed to antigen A, and anti-B antibodies only after he is exposed to antigen B.

A

False

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12
Q

T/F

Incompatibility of one person’s blood with another results from the action of plasma antibodies against the RBCs’ (red blood cells) antigens.

A

True

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13
Q

T/F

Rh incompatibility between a sensitized Rh+ woman and an Rh- fetus can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn.

A

False

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14
Q

T/F

Circulating WBCs spend most of their lives in the bloodstream

A

False

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15
Q

T/F

Lymphocytes secrete antibodies, coordinate action of other immune cells, and serve in immune memory.

A

True

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16
Q

T/F

Monocytes differentiate into large phagocytic cells names macrophages.

A

True

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17
Q

T/F

Clotting deficiency can result from thrombocytopenia or hemophilia.

A

True

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18
Q

T/F

White blood cells are divided into two categories known as agranulocytes and granulocytes.

A

True

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19
Q

T/F

The pulmonary circuit is supplied by both the right and the left sides of the heart.

A

False

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20
Q

T/F

The systemic circuit contains oxygen-rich blood only (clean blood).

A

True

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21
Q

T/F

The heart has 6 chambers and 3 valves.

A

False

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22
Q

T/F

Erythrocytes (RBC’s) have large nuclei and very little cytoplasm.

A

False

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23
Q

T/F

If the SA node is damaged, nodal (AV node) rhythm is sufficient to sustain life.

A

True

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24
Q

T/F

Agglutination happens when antibodies bind to antigen during blood incompatibility.

A

True

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25
Q

T/F

Circulatory system and cardiovascular system terms are used interchangeably because they are the same.

A

False

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26
Q

T/F

Papillary muscles prevent the AV valves from prolapsing (bulging) excessively into the atria when the ventricles contract.

A

True

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27
Q

T/F

Pulmonary and systemic are the name of the two circuits pathways of the heart.

A

True

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28
Q

T/F

Erythrocyte production can be influenced by hypoxemia of the kidney’s and negative feedback.

A

True

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29
Q

T/F

Veins have valves to prevent the back flow of blood.

A

True

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30
Q

T/F

Hemopoiesis is the study of blood.

A

False

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31
Q

T/F

The pulmonary circuit is the only route in which arteries carry less oxygen than veins. (Hint: think about the type of blood carried by each circuit)

A

True

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32
Q

T/F

Arterial flow to the lower limb comes from the external iliac artery

A

True

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33
Q

T/F

Erythrocytes (RBC’s) are the ONLY formed elements that make up blood.

A

False

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34
Q

Identify X and Y in the diagram of the heart shown.

A

X = left ventricle

Y = pulmonary artery

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35
Q

The outermost wall of an artery or vein is called the __________________.

A

Tunica externa

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36
Q

___________ was a blood-banking pioneer, and the first black person to use plasma rather than whole blood during transfusions.

A

Charles Drew

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37
Q

Most of the blood is in the (refer to the distribution of blood diagram)

A

Veins

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38
Q

These are all possible circulatory routes from the heart except

  1. heart → arteries → capillary bed → veins → heart
  2. heart → arteries → capillary bed → vein → capillary bed → arteries → heart
  3. heart → arteries → arterial anastomosis → capillary bed → veins → heart
  4. heart → arteries → arterial anastomosis → capillary bed → venous anastomosis → veins → heart
A
  1. heart → arteries → capillary bed → vein → capillary bed → arteries → heart
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39
Q

Which of the following statements are true concerning Sickle Cell Disease?

  1. Cells clump together and block blood vessels causing intense pain
  2. Recessive allele disease that most occur in people of African descent
  3. When individuals are in a crisis their RBC change into a banana/crescent shape.
  4. This is an infectious/contagious disease.
  5. A - C
A
  1. A - C
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40
Q

In people who stand for long periods, blood tends to pool in the lower limbs and this may result in varicose veins. Varicose veins are caused by

  1. an aneurysm or weak point in an artery
  2. an aneurysm or weak point in a vein
  3. failure of the venous valves
  4. failure of the lymphatic valves
  5. a ruptured aneurysm in a vein
A
  1. failure of the venous valves
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41
Q

The speed of blood flow decreases when

  1. Thickness increases
  2. Blood pressure increases
  3. Vessels radius increases
  4. Afterload increases
  5. Vasomotion
A
  1. Thickness increases
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42
Q

Use the diagram below to identify the right atrium.

A

E

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43
Q

Use the diagram below to identify the left ventricle.

A

C

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44
Q

Use the diagram below to identify the pulmonary artery.

A

A

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45
Q

Use the diagram below to identify the aorta.

A

B

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46
Q

Use the diagram below to identify the pulmonary veins.

A

D

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47
Q

_______________ has the most important effect on blood velocity

  1. Blood viscosity
  2. vessel radius
  3. Blood osmolarity
  4. Hemocrit
A
  1. vessel radius
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48
Q

Hypertension is commonly considered to be a chronic resting blood pressure higher than

  1. 180/90 mmHg
  2. 180/90
  3. 130/60
  4. 140/100 mmHg
  5. 200/90 mmHg
A
  1. 140/100 mmHg
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49
Q

Place the movement of blood in order from first to last.

  1. Pressure builds in the right atrium forcing the tricuspid valve to open and blood to rush into the right ventricle.
  2. Blood travel through the pulmonary trunk to the pulmonary arteries and into the lungs to unload CO2 and pick up O2
  3. Blood return from the body to the right atrium of the heart via the superior and inferior vena cava.
  4. Pressure build in the right ventricle forcing the pulmonary semilunar valve open.

a. I, II, III, IV
b. IV, III, I, II
c. III, I, II, IV
d. III, I, IV, II
e. II, IV, I, III

A

d. III, I, IV, II

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50
Q

Place the movement of blood in order from first to last.

  1. Blood enters the left atrium via the pulmonary veins.
  2. As blood fills the left ventricle pressure increases. Eventually, the pressure causing the aortic semilunar valve to open.
  3. Pressure build in the left atrium forcing the bicuspid/mitral valve to open and blood to flow into the left ventricle
  4. Blood return from the body to the right atrium of the heart via the superior and inferior vena cava and the cardiac cycle begin again.
  5. Blood leaves the aorta and is distributed to all organs and tissue of the body.
  6. I, III, II, V, IV
  7. III, I, V, II, IV
  8. IV, III, I, V, II
  9. V, IV, III, II, I
  10. I, II, III, IV, V
A
  1. 1) I, III, II, V, IV
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51
Q

These are all mechanisms of movement through the capillary wall except

  1. Reabsorption
  2. Filtration
  3. Secretion
  4. Transcytosis
  5. Diffusion
A
  1. Secretion
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52
Q

In the ABO blood system, you normally can be type:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. ABO
  4. A, B, AB, or O
  5. All of the above
A
  1. A, B, AB, or O
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53
Q

Use the diagram below to identify the left atrium.

A

D

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54
Q

Use the diagram below to identify the right ventricle.

A

B

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55
Q

Use the diagram below to identify the tricuspid valve.

A

A

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56
Q

Use the diagram below to identify the bicuspid (mitral) valve.

A

C

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57
Q

Use the diagram below to identify the inferior vena cava.

A

E

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58
Q

______________ shock occurs when bacterial toxins trigger vasodilation and increase capillary permeability

  1. Compensated
  2. Anaphylactic
  3. Neurogenic
  4. Cardiogenic
  5. Septic
A
  1. Septic
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59
Q

How many pulmonary arteries** empty into the right atrium of the heart? (**HINT: Think about the flow of blood throughout the heart.)

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 4
  5. 7
A
    1. 0
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60
Q

Mother-fetus Rh blood type incompatibility problems can occur if the mother is _____ and her fetus is _____ .

  1. Rh positive; Rh positive
  2. Rh positive; Rh negative
  3. Rh negative; Rh positive
  4. Rh negative; Rh negative
A
  1. Rh negative; Rh positive
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61
Q

The two main cardiac circuit are _________ and ________.

  1. pulmonary and septic
  2. systemic and septic
  3. pleural and pulmonary
  4. systemic and pulmonary
  5. systemic and pleural
A
  1. Systemic and Pulmonary
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62
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the ABO blood system?

  1. People who have the A antigen normally would not produce the anti-A antibody (A antibodies).
  2. People who are type AB normally produce both anti-A and anti-B antibodies (A & B antibodies).
  3. The only ABO type blood that normally does not have either A or B antigens is AB.
  4. No answer text provided.
A
  1. People who have the A antigen normally would not produce the anti-A antibody (A antibodies).
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63
Q

What is the function of pericardial fluid?

  1. To reduce the heart rate
  2. The increase the heart rate
  3. To reduce friction
  4. To increase friction
A
  1. To reduce friction
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64
Q

The ________________ performs the work of the heart

(HINT: The muscle layer does all the work).

  1. fibrous skeleton
  2. pericardial cavity
  3. endocardium
  4. myocardium
  5. epicardium
A
  1. Myocardium
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65
Q

The universal blood donor for the ABO system are type:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. O
  4. AB
A
  1. O
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66
Q

The tricuspid valve regulates the opening between

  1. the right atrium and the left atrium
  2. the right atrium and the right ventricle
  3. the right ventricle and the left ventricle
  4. the left atrium and the left ventricle
  5. the left ventricle and the right ventricle
A
  1. The right atrium and the right ventricle
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67
Q

Oxygen-poor blood passes through

  1. the right AV (tricuspid) valve and pulmonary valve
  2. the right AV (tricuspid) valve only
  3. the left AV (bicuspid/mitral) valve and aortic valve
  4. the left AV (bicuspid/mitral) valve only
  5. the pulmonary and aortic valve
A
  1. The right AV (tricuspid) valve and pulmonary valve
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68
Q

Opening and closing of the heart valves is caused by

  1. breathing
  2. gravity
  3. valves contracting and relaxing
  4. pressure gradients
A
  1. Pressure gradients
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69
Q

The ________________ is the pacemaker that initiates each heart beat.

  1. sympathetic division of the nervous system
  2. autonomic nervous system
  3. sinoatrial (SA) node
  4. atrioventricular (AV) node
  5. cardiac conduction system
A
  1. Sinoatrial (SA) node
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70
Q

Which of these is not part of the cardiac conduction system?

  1. The sinoatrial (SA) node
  2. The tendinous cords (TC)
  3. The atrioventricular (AV) node
  4. The atrioventricular (AV) bundle (bundle of his)
  5. The Purkinje fibers
A
  1. The tendinous cords (TC)
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71
Q

Any abnormal cardiac rhythm is called a(n)

  1. ectopic focus
  2. sinus rhythm
  3. nodal rhythm
  4. heart block
  5. arrhythmia
A
  1. Arrhythmia
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72
Q

When the left ventricle contracts, the _____ valve closes and the _____ valve is pushed open

  1. Mitral (bicuspid); pulmonary semilunar
  2. Tricuspid; pulmonary semilunar
  3. Tricuspid; aortic semilunar
  4. Mitral (bicuspid); aortic semilunar
  5. Aortic semilunar; pulmonary semilunar
A
  1. Mitral (bicuspid); aortic semilunar
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73
Q

Mitral valve stenosis causes blood to leak back into the ___________ when the ventricles contract

  1. Left atrium
  2. Right atrium
  3. Aorta
  4. Pulmonary trunk
  5. Pulmonary arteries
A
  1. Left atrium
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74
Q

Congestive heart failure (CHF) of the right ventricle can cause? (HINT: The right side of the heart fails causing the left side to work harder.)

  1. Can cause pulmonary edema
  2. Can cause systemic edema
  3. Increases the ejections fraction of the right ventricle
  4. Reduces the ejection fraction of the left ventricle
  5. Increases cardiac output in both ventricles
A
  1. Can cause systemic edema
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75
Q

The volume of blood ejected by each ventricle in one minute is called

  1. the cardiac reserve
  2. the preload
  3. the afterload
  4. the stroke volume
  5. the cardiac output
A
  1. The cardiac output
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76
Q

Blood does not

  1. Transport a variety of nutrients
  2. Help to stabilize pH of extracellular fluid
  3. Participate in initiation of blood clotting
  4. Produce plasma hormones
  5. Help to regulate body temperature
A
  1. Produce plasma hormones
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77
Q

_________________ is not found in plasma.

  1. Glycogen
  2. Fibrinogen
  3. Glucose
  4. Urea
  5. Albumin
A
  1. Glycogen
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78
Q

_______________ is a protein not commonly found in plasma.

  1. Albumin
  2. Hemoglobin
  3. Transferrin
  4. Prothrombin
  5. Fibrinogen
A
  1. Hemoglobin
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79
Q

Myeloid hemopoiesis in adults happens in the

  1. Thymus
  2. Spleen
  3. Red bone marrow
  4. Yellow bone marrow
  5. Liver
A
  1. Red bone marrow
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80
Q

Which of the following statements best describe arteries?

  1. All arteries carry oxygenated blood towards the heart
  2. All arteries contain valves to prevent the back-flow of blood
  3. All arteries carry blood away from the heart
  4. Only large arteries are lined with endothelium
  5. All of the above
A
  1. All arteries carry blood away from the heart
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81
Q

______________ is more likely to cause anemia than any of the other factors below

  1. High altitude
  2. Air pollution other than carbon monoxide
  3. Renal disease
  4. Smoking
  5. Any factor that create a state of hypoxemia
A
  1. Renal disease
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82
Q

Anemia has these potential consequences except

  1. Blood viscosity is increased
  2. The individual is lethargic
  3. Blood osmolarity is reduced
  4. Blood resistance to flow is reduced
  5. More fluid transfer from the blood stream to the intercellular spaces
A
  1. Blood viscosity is increased
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83
Q

The left side of the heart pumps

  1. deoxygenated blood
  2. oxygenated blood
A
  1. Oxygenated blood
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84
Q

The right side of the heart pumps

  1. deoxygenated blood
  2. oxygenated blood
A
  1. Deoxygenated blood
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85
Q

Which of the following are valves of the heart?

  1. Tricuspid (right atrioventricular) valve
  2. Bicuspid/Mitral (left atrioventricular) valve
  3. Pulmonary (right semilunar) valve
  4. Aortic (left semilunar) valve
  5. All of the above
A
  1. All of the above
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86
Q

The ABO blood group is determined by _____________ in the plasma membrane of RBCs.

  1. Antigens on the surface
  2. Glycoproteins on the surfaces
  3. Antibodies
  4. Antigen-antibody complexes
  5. Agglutinins
A
  1. Antigens on the surface
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87
Q

The right and left coronary artery both branches off the ________.

  1. Aorta
  2. Renal artery
  3. Pulmonary artery
  4. Left/right ventricle
  5. Left/right artia
A
  1. Aorta
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88
Q

Arteries carry blood _______, veins carry blood _______ and capillaries _________.

  1. Away from the heart; back to the heart; connect arteries to veins
  2. Connect arteries to veins; away from the hear; carry blood back to the heart
  3. Back to the heart; Away from the heart; connect arteries to veins
  4. Back to the heart, connect arteries to veins, carry blood towards the heart
A
  1. Away from the heart; back to the heart; connect arteries to veins
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89
Q

Which layer is thicker in arteries than in veins?

  1. Tunica externa
  2. Tunica media
  3. Tunica interna
A
  1. Tunica media
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90
Q

Which of the following have no effect on stroke volume?

  1. preload
  2. contractility
  3. cardiac output
  4. afterload
A
  1. Cardiac output
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91
Q

Which of the following is not part of the ventricular filling phase?

  1. systole
  2. rapid ventricular filling
  3. diastasis
  4. atrial systole
A
  1. Systole
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92
Q

Place the steps of the conduction system in order from first to last.

  1. AV node fires
  2. Excitation spread through the atrial myocardium
  3. SA node fired
  4. Purkinje fibers distribute excitation through ventricular myocardium
  5. Excitation spreads down Bundle of His.
  6. I, II, III, IV, V
  7. V, IV, III, II , I
  8. III, II, I, V, IV
  9. IV, I, III, V, II
  10. II, V, III, I, IV
A
  1. III, II, I, V, IV
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93
Q

Cardiac output is the

  1. amount of blood ejected by the ventricle in 1 min
  2. amount of blood ejected by the ventricle in 10 mins
  3. amount of blood ejected by the ventricle in 60 mins
  4. amount of blood ejected by the ventricle in 30 mins
A
  1. Amount of blood ejected by the ventricle in 1 min
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94
Q

Pulse is the surge of pressure produced by each heart beat that can be felt by palpating a superficial artery with the fingertips. Why should you never use your thumb when taking a pulse?

  1. The sensation of the thumb is not as good as it is in the middle two fingers
  2. The width of the thumb impedes an accurate feel for the pulse
  3. There is more dexterity in the fingers than there is in the thumb
  4. The thumb has a pulse and can be confused with the patient’s pulse
A
  1. The thumb has a pulse and can be confused with the patient’s pulse
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95
Q

When a hematocrit test is completed on a patient, blood is centrifuged, and separated by density. How would you expected the following components of blood to settle in the test tube?

  1. WBC, Plasma, RBC
  2. RBC, WBC, Plasma
  3. WBC, Plasma, RBC
  4. Plasma, WBC, RBC
  5. Plasma, RBC, WBC
A
  1. Plasma, WBC, RBC
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96
Q

Hypoproteinemia is a deficiency of plasma proteins, some common causes include all except

  1. Thin arms and legs
  2. Extreme starvation
  3. Liver or kidney disease
  4. Severe burns
A
  1. Thin arms and legs
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97
Q

Mature erythrocytes (RBC)

  1. Lack all organelles
  2. Are bi-concaved (shaped like a donut)
  3. Have 4 alpha heme groups
  4. A & B
  5. A - C
A
  1. A & B
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98
Q

Which WBC do you expect to increase in numbers if you’re suffering from a bacteria infection?

  1. Neutophils
  2. Eosinophils
  3. Basophils
  4. Monocytes
A
  1. Neutophils
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99
Q

All of the following are hemostatic mechanisms to control bleeding except

  1. Vascular spasms
  2. Hemorrhage
  3. Platelet plug formation
  4. Blood clotting (coagulation)
A
  1. Hemorrhage
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100
Q

Which WBC do you expect to increase in numbers if your suffering from a chickenpox?

  1. Neutrophils
  2. Eosinophils
  3. Basophils
  4. Monocytes
A
  1. Basophils
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101
Q

Hemophilia is family of hereditary diseases characterized by deficiency of any clotting factor. Which of the following diseases is not sex-linked.

  1. Hemophilia A
  2. Hemophilia B
  3. Hemophilia C
A
  1. Hemophilia C
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102
Q

Which WBC do you expect to increase in numbers if you’re suffering from a parasitic infection?

  1. Neutrophils
  2. Eosinophils
  3. Basophils
  4. Monocytes
A
  1. Eosinophils
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103
Q

Most strokes and heart attacks are caused by the abnormal clotting of blood in an unbroken vessel. Moreover, a piece of the ____________ (clot) may break loose and begin to travel in the bloodstream as a(n) ______________

  1. Thrombus; embolus
  2. Embolism; thrombus
  3. Plaque; thrombus
  4. Thrombosis; plaque
  5. Plaque; embolus
A
  1. Thrombus; embolus
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104
Q

The parasympathetic nerves and the sympathetic nerves work together to regulate the heart rate. The parasympathetic nerves _______________; whereas the sympathetic nerves ____________.

  1. increase the heart rate; increase the heart rate
  2. increase the heart rate; decrease the heart rate
  3. decrease the heart rate; decrease the heart rate
  4. decrease the heart rate; increase the heart rate
A
  1. Decrease the heart rate; increase the heart rate
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105
Q

Blood pressure is recorded as

  1. Diastole/systole
  2. Systole/diastole
  3. Systole/diastole
  4. Systole/systole
  5. Diastole/diastole
A
  1. Systole/diastole
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106
Q

Diastole measures the

  1. Atrial or ventricular contraction
  2. Atrial or ventricular relaxation
A
  1. Atrial or ventricular relaxation
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107
Q

Mitral valve prolapse is the insufficiency in which one or both mitral valve cusps bulge into atria during ventricular contraction. Individual affected by this disorder has valve complications in the

  1. Pulmonary circuit
  2. Systemic circuit
A
  1. Systemic circuit
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108
Q

Auscultation is the scientific term for listening to sounds the body make. The heart typically makes two sounds: 1. Lubb (S1) and 2. Dubb (S2). The lubb occurs because ______________, and the dubb occur because _________________.

  1. The AV valves are closing (tricuspid/bicuspid); the semilunar valves are closing (aortic/pulmonary)
  2. The AV valves are closing (tricuspid/bicuspid); the AV valves are closing (tricuspid/bicuspid)
  3. The semilunar valves are closing (aortic/pulmonary); the semilunar valves are closing (aortic/pulmonary)
  4. The semilunar valves are closing (aortic/pulmonary); the AV valves are closing (tricuspid/bicuspid)
A
  1. The AV valves are closing (tricuspid/bicuspid); the semilunar valves are closing (aortic/pulmonary)
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109
Q

If a patient has tachycardia they have _________; whereas a person with bradycardia have ________.

  1. high heart rate; high pulse
  2. low heart rate; low pulse
  3. high heart rate; low heart rate
  4. low pulse; high pulse
A
  1. high heart rate; low heart rate
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110
Q

Coronary artery disease (CAD) is the constriction of the coronary arteries, usually the result of _____________

  1. Atherosclerosis
  2. Hypertension
  3. Virus
  4. Dibetes
  5. All of the above
A
  1. All of the above
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111
Q

Place the following arteries in order from largest to smallest

  1. Distributing arteries, conducting arteries, metarterioles, resistance arteries
  2. Conducting arteries, metarterioles, resistance arteries, distributing arteries
  3. Metarterioles, resistance arteries, distributing arteries, conducting arteries
  4. Conducting arteries, distributing arteries, resistance arteries, metarterioles
A
  1. Conducting arteries, distributing arteries, resistance arteries, metarterioles
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112
Q

All the following are conducting (large) arteries except

  1. Aorta
  2. Pulmonary trunk
  3. Renal
  4. Carotid
A
  1. Renal
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113
Q

What percentage of capillaries are shut down at any given time?

  1. 12%
  2. 30%
  3. 55%
  4. 75%
  5. 93%
A
  1. 75%
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114
Q

This is the most common site for blood pressure to be taken?

  1. Brachial vein
  2. Carotid artery
  3. Brachial artery
  4. Femoral artery
  5. Subclavian artery
A
  1. Brachial artery
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115
Q

Blood flow changes depending on a person’s activity level. When exercising

  1. A person will have increased perfusion of lungs, myocardium, and skeletal muscles
  2. A person will have decreased perfusion of lungs, myocardium, and skeletal muscles
  3. A person will have decreased perfusion of kidneys and digestive tract
  4. A person will have increased perfusion of kidneys and digestive tract
  5. A & C
A
  1. A & C
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116
Q

Capillaries reabsorb about _____ of the fluid they filter.

  1. 12%
  2. 30%
  3. 55%
  4. 85%
  5. 93%
A
  1. 85%
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117
Q

Edema is the accumulation of excess fluid in a tissue. It occurs when fluid filters into a tissue faster than it is absorbed. Some primary causes included

  1. Increased capillary filtration - kidney failure, histamine release, old age, poor venous return
  2. Reduced capillary absorption - hypoproteinemia, liver disease, dietary protein deficiency
  3. Obstructed lymphatic drainage - surgical removal of lymph nodes
  4. All of the above
A
  1. All of the above
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118
Q

Stroke and myocardial infractions are both due to

  1. Sudden death of tissue
  2. Lack of oxygen to tissue
  3. Severe blood loss
  4. All of the above
  5. None of the above
A

All of the above

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119
Q

Internal jugular vein receives most of the blood from

  1. the brain
  2. the heart
  3. the liver
  4. the external structures of the head
  5. upper limbs
A
  1. the brain
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120
Q

Branches of external jugular vein drain

  1. the brain
  2. the heart
  3. the liver
  4. the external structures of the head
  5. Upper limbs
A
  1. The external structures of the head
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121
Q

The cardiovascular system include all of the following except

  1. Heart
  2. Blood
  3. Blood vessel
A
  1. Blood
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122
Q

____________ is drained by subclavian vein

  1. the brain
  2. the heart
  3. the liver
  4. the external structure of the head
  5. upper limbs
A
  1. upper limbs
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123
Q

____________ shock is a severe immune reaction to antigen, histamine release, generalized vasodilation, increased capillary permeability

  1. Compensated
  2. Anaphylactic
  3. Neurogenic
  4. Cardiogenic
  5. Septic
A
  1. Anaphylactic
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124
Q

______________ shock is a loss of vasomotor tone, vasodilation, caused from emotional shock to brainstem injury.

  1. Compensated
  2. Anaphylactic
  3. Neurogenic
  4. Cardiogenic
  5. Septic
A
  1. Neurogenic
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125
Q

Systole measures the

  1. Atrial or ventricular contractions
  2. Atrial or ventricular relaxation
A
  1. Atrial or ventricular contractions
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126
Q

T/F

The lymphatic system is an active system involving a pump.

A

False

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127
Q

T/F

The vessels of the lymphatic system work in the same direction as venous blood flow.

A

True

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128
Q

T/F

CO2 often compete with oxygen when binding to hemoglobin.

A

False

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129
Q

T/F

Haptens and antigens are the same, both cause an intense immune reaction.

A

False

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130
Q

T/F

The lymphatic system work parallel to the circulatory system.

A

True

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131
Q

T/F

The right lymphatic duct receives lymph from right arm, right side of head and thorax; it also empties into left subclavian vein.

A

False

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132
Q

T/F

The thymus plays a critical role in immunity during childhood, but shrink and has a less critical role as one grows up.

A

True

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133
Q

T/F

HIV invades helper T cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells by tricking them to internalize viruses by receptor-mediated endocytosis.

A

True

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134
Q

T/F

Protein, cell debris, bacteria, viruses, and cancer cells which do not enter the blood, are also unable to enter lymph fluid.

A

False

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135
Q

T/F

Tiny hair/projections called fimbriae keep mucus and dirt out of your lungs.

A

False

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136
Q

T/F

The immune system is composed of a cell population that inhabits all organs and defends the body from agents of disease.

A

True

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137
Q

T/F

The diaphragm’s main function is to pump oxygen out of the lungs and pull carbon dioxide into the lungs.

A

False

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138
Q

T/F

C-shaped hyaline cartilage reinforce the larynx walls.

A

False

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139
Q

T/F

The thoracic duct is longer and larger than the right lymphatic duct.

A

True

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140
Q

T/F

The vessels of the lymphatic system work in the same direction as arterial blood flow.

A

False

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141
Q

T/F

B lymphocytes mature in the thymus.

A

False

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142
Q

T/F

There’s an autorhythmic pacemaker cells for respiration, that has a similar function to the SA node in the heart.

A

False

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143
Q

T/F

Both T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocytes have a memory functions.

A

True

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144
Q

T/F

Natural killer cells (NK cells) release perforins and granzymes.

A

True

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145
Q

T/F

Alveoli are unique sac in each of our lungs. We have about 150 million alveoli in each lung, providing about 70 meter square of surface for gas exchange. The gas exchange include removing oxygen from blood and depositing carbon dioxide.

A

False

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146
Q

T/F

Alveolar macrophages allow the alveoli be permeable to debris.

A

False

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147
Q

T/F

Hypersensitivity (allergy) is an excessive immune reaction against antigens that most people tolerate.

A

True

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148
Q

The alternative pathway is associated with the ________________ system.

  1. Interferon
  2. Complement
A
  1. Complement
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149
Q

T/F

The exact mechanism for setting the rhythm of respiration remains unknown.

A

True

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150
Q

Generalized protection is associated with the ________________ system.

  1. Interferon
  2. Complement
A
    1. Interferon
151
Q

T/F

Balances maintained by the collective action of the urinary, respiratory, digestive, integumentary, endocrine, nervous, cardiovascular, and lymphatic systems.

A

True

152
Q

T/F

The digestive system processes food, extracts nutrients, and eliminates the residue.

A

True

153
Q

T/F

High LDL is a warning sign that cholesterol levels are high and is depositing in arteries.

A

True

154
Q

T/F

Neurotransmitters stimulate desire for different types of food.

A

True

155
Q

T/F

Gastric peristalsis partly stimulate hunger.

A

True

156
Q

T/F

The enteric nervous system regulates much of the digestive activity but its action depends on the central nervous system.

A

False

157
Q

T/F

Both chemical and mechanical digestion start in the mouth and continue in the stomach.

A

True

158
Q

T/F

The small intestine begins with the duodenum, which is its longest segment.

A

False

159
Q

T/F

The large intestine absorbs water, fats, and salts.

A

False

160
Q

T/F

Mental state does not affect metabolic rate.

A

False

161
Q

T/F

Hypothermia may be fatal if the core body temperature reaches 74°F or lower.

A

True

162
Q

T/F

The large intestine is longer than the small intestine.

A

False

163
Q

T/F

Homo sapiens (humans) have an incomplete digestive system.

A

False

164
Q

T/F

Body weight is stable when average daily energy intake and output are equal.

A

True

165
Q

T/F

Norepinephrine stimulates cravings for carbohydrates, whereas endorphins stimulate cravings for proteins.

A

True

166
Q

T/F

Absorption of many nutrients starts in the stomach.

A

False

167
Q

T/F

The heat-promoting center is located in the hypothalamus, which triggers shivering.

A

True

168
Q

T/F

Insulin has a greater effect on appetite than leptin.

A

False

169
Q

T/F

Monosaccharides such as glucose, galactose, fructose arise from digestion of starch and disaccharides.

A

True

170
Q

T/F

The absorptive state lasts about fifteen minutes after a meal.

A

False

171
Q

Which is the first anti-HIV drug to inhibit reverse transcription?

  1. Nonoxynol-9
  2. Azidothymidine
  3. Soma
  4. Protease
A
  1. Azidothymidine
172
Q

Which best describes a lymph node?

  1. A type of pathogen that attacks the immune system
  2. A special kind of immune cell that is found in the lymph
  3. A “dead end” where a lymphatic vessel comes to an end
  4. A capsule in the lymph vessels that are filled with B cells and T cells
  5. Any organ that is being attacked by pathogens
A
  1. A capsule in the lymph vessels that are filled with B cells and T cells
173
Q

Lymph fluid is

  1. Composed of aggregates of lymphocytes and macrophages that populate many organs in the body
  2. Fluid that is separated from surrounding organs by connective tissue capsules
  3. Defense cells are especially concentrated in these organs
  4. Fluid continually filters from the blood capillaries into the tissue spaces; excess tissue fluid carried by lymphatic vessels
A
  1. Fluid continually filters from the blood capillaries into the tissue spaces; excess tissue fluid carried by lymphatic vessels
174
Q

The integumentary system (skin) is a part of our body’s _____ line of defense.

  1. 1st
  2. 2nd
  3. 3rd
  4. 4th
A
  1. 1st
175
Q

Functions of the pleural fluid include

  1. Preventing the spread of infections
  2. Reducing friction
  3. Increasing pressure allowing the lungs to deflate
  4. A & B
  5. A - C
A
  1. A & B
176
Q

Which is not a function of the lymphatic system.

  1. Transport clean fluid back to the blood
  2. Deposit debris from cell of body
  3. Transport fat from digestive system
  4. Drain excess fluid from tissue
A
  1. Deposit debris from cell of body
177
Q

The lymphatic system is considered passive because

  1. It is pumpless
  2. Lymph flows because of the milking actions of skeletal muscles
  3. It has to work against gravity
  4. A & C
  5. A - C
A
  1. A - C
178
Q

Lymph moves towards the heart because of

  1. Milking of skeletal muscles
  2. Rhythmic contraction of smooth muscle in vessel walls
  3. Gravity effects movement
  4. Contraction from the systems pump
  5. A - C
A
  1. A - C
179
Q

Identify the function of the lymphatic system.

  1. Drain excess fluid from tissue
  2. Transport clean fluid from the blood
  3. Transport fat from the digestive system
  4. A & B
  5. A & C
A
  1. A & C
180
Q

What percentage of water and plasma protein enters the lymphatic system before returning the blood?

  1. 85%
  2. 12%
  3. 15%
  4. 30%
A
  1. 15%
181
Q

The two major lymphatic ducts are

  1. Cervical duct and right lymphatic duct
  2. Right lymphatic duct and left lymphatic duct
  3. Left lymphatic duct and thoracic duct
  4. Thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct
A
  1. Thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct
182
Q

What happens when the lymphatic system malfunction or function poorly?

  1. Build up of fluid in various regions of the body
  2. Lymphedema may develop
  3. Poor circulation due to decrease venous blood return
  4. All of the above
A
  1. All of the above
183
Q

Where do B cells originate from?

  1. Thymus
  2. Bone marrow
  3. Macrophages
  4. Lymphoid tissue
A
  1. Bone marrow
184
Q

The collecting ducts of the lymphatic system are

  1. Right lymphatic duct and left lymphatic duct
  2. Right lymphatic duct, thoracic duct, and left lymphatic duct
  3. Thoracic duct and left lymphatic duct
  4. Thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct
A
  1. Thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct
185
Q

In what organ does T cells mature?

  1. Thymus
  2. Bone marrow
  3. Macrophages
  4. Lymphoid tissue
A
  1. Thymus
186
Q

How does the respiratory system work? Arrange the following events in the correct order.

  1. Air moves to the bronchi tubes as it enters the lungs
  2. Carbon dioxide passes from the blood into the alveoli and then exhaled
  3. Air that flow from the mouth or nasal cavity travels through the pharynx and moves down the trachea
  4. Once the air gets in the lungs the air enters separate branches called the bronchiole.
  5. 3, 1, 4, 2
  6. 3, 1, 2, 4
  7. 3, 2, 4, 1
  8. 3, 2, 1, 4
A
  1. 3, 1, 4, 2
187
Q

How does the respiratory system work? Arrange the following events in the correct order.

  1. Cells get and use oxygen as fuel
  2. Oxygen travels from your lungs through the bloodstream to the cells in all parts of your body
  3. Waste is carried by the bloodstream back to the lungs to be exhaled
  4. Cells give off carbon dioxide as waste.

a) 4, 2, 1, 3
b) 2, 1, 4, 3
c) 1, 2, 4, 3
d) 4, 1, 2, 3

A

b) 2, 1, 4, 3

188
Q

Match the following lymphoid tissue organs with the statement based on their location/function in the body

~ Trap and remove bacteria and other foreign materials entering the throat

  1. Peyer’s patchs
  2. Tonsils
  3. Thymus
  4. Spleen
A
  1. Tonsils
189
Q

Match the following lymphoid tissue organs with the statement based on their location/function in the body

~ Lymphatic mass overlaying the heart

  1. Peyer’s patchs
  2. Tonsils
  3. Thymus
  4. Spleen
A
  1. Thymus
190
Q

Match the following lymphoid tissue organs with the statement based on their location/function in the body

~ This organ dispose of RBC, produce blood in fetus, act as a blood reservoir

  1. Peyer’s patchs
  2. Tonsils
  3. Thymus
  4. Spleen
A
  1. Spleen
191
Q

Match the following lymphoid tissue organs with the statement based on their location/function in the body

~ Capture and destroy bacteria in the intestine (purpose is to prevent bacteria from entering the intestinal wall)

  1. Peyer’s patchs
  2. Tonsils
  3. Thymus
  4. Spleen
A
  1. Peyer’s patchs
192
Q

Dead space volume is

  1. The maximum quantity of air in one breath
  2. Air that remains in conducting zone and never reaches alveoli
  3. Maximum amount lungs can hold
  4. Normal breath – movement if about 500 mL of air with each breath
A
  1. Air that remains in conducting zone and never reaches alveoli
193
Q

Tidal volume is

  1. The maximum quantity of air in one breath
  2. Air that remains in conducting zone and never reaches alveoli
  3. Maximum amount lungs can hold
  4. Normal breath – movement if about 500 mL of air with each breath
A
  1. Normal breath – movement if about 500 mL of air with each breath
194
Q

Lymph nodes populate which of the following areas (select all that apply)

  1. Lumbar
  2. Popliteal
  3. Abdominal
  4. Axillary
A
  1. Popliteal
  2. Abdominal
  3. Axillary
195
Q

The _________ pulp of the spleen is made up of lymphocytes and macrophages.

  1. Cortex
  2. Red
  3. White
  4. Medulla
A
  1. White
196
Q

Mucous membranes line all of the following except:

  1. Digestive
  2. Circulatory
  3. Urinary
  4. Reproductive
A
  1. Circulatory
197
Q

Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by

  1. Humidifying the air before it enters
  2. Warming the air before it enters
  3. Interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid
  4. Protecting the surface of alveoli from dehydration and other environmental variations
A
  1. Interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid
198
Q

Which of the choices below is not a functional process performed by the respiratory system?

  1. Pulmonary ventilation
  2. Transport of respiratory gases
  3. Pulmonary respiration
  4. External respiration
A
  1. Transport of respiratory gases
199
Q

All of the following are lymph nodes except

  1. Abdominal lymph nodes
  2. Lumbar lymph nodes
  3. Popliteal lymph nodes
  4. Cervical lymph nodes
A
  1. Lumbar lymph nodes
200
Q

The respiratory system is made up of the trachea, the lungs, and the:

  1. Liver
  2. Diaphragm
  3. Esophagus
  4. Pancreas
A
  1. Diaphragm
201
Q

Passive immunity is when _________________________, active immunity is when ____________________.

  1. Antibodies are obtained from the serum of an immune human or animal; B cell encounter antigens and produce antibodies against them.
  2. B cell encounter antigens and produce antibodies against them; antibodies are obtained from the serum of an immune human or animal.
  3. Antibodies are obtained from the serum of an immune human or animal; antibodies are obtained from the serum of an immune human or animal.
  4. B cell encounter antigens and produce antibodies against them; B cell encounter antigens and produce antibodies against them.
A
  1. Antibodies are obtained from the serum of an immune human or animal; B cell encounter antigens and produce antibodies against them.
202
Q

Little air sac in your lungs where gas exchange happens is known as the _________________.

  1. Bronchioles
  2. Alveoli
  3. Bronxoli
  4. Ravioli
A
  1. Alveoli
203
Q

Respiratory control centers are located in the

  1. Midbrain and medulla
  2. Medulla and pons
  3. Pons and midbrain
  4. Upper spinal cord and medulla
A
  1. Medulla and pons
204
Q

Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by

  1. Osmosis
  2. Diffusion
  3. Filtration
  4. Active transport
A
  1. Diffusion
205
Q

Which of the following is not found on the right lung?

  1. Middle lobe
  2. Cardiac notch
  3. Horizontal fissure
  4. Oblique fissure
A
  1. Cardiac notch
206
Q

Which of the disorders below is characterized by destruction of the walls of the alveoli producing abnormally large air spaces that remain filled with air during exhalation?

  1. Pneumonia
  2. Tuberculosis
  3. Emphysema
  4. Coryza
A
  1. Emphysema
207
Q

The flap over the trachea that keeps out food and anything else that could clog the trachea out is called the

  1. Epiglottis
  2. Larynx
  3. Pharynx
A
  1. Epiglottis
208
Q

These are the names of the lymph tissue and lymph nodes that protect the body from infection

  1. Adenoids and tonsils
  2. Alveoli and sinuses
  3. Bronchi and trachea
A
  1. Adenoids and tonsils
209
Q

The process of breathing in and out us called

  1. Exhalation
  2. Ventilation
  3. Inhalation
  4. Emphysema
A
  1. Ventilation
210
Q

Each lung is divided into lobes. The right lung has _____ lobes, and the left lung has ___ lobes.

  1. 4; 3
  2. 3; 2
  3. 2; 3
  4. 4; 4
A

2) 3; 2

211
Q

The _______________ received lymph from the right arm, right side of the head and thorax, and empties into the __________________.

  1. Thoracic duct; left subclavian vein
  2. Right lymphatic duct, left subclavian vein
  3. Thoracic duct; right subclavian vein
  4. Right lymphatic duct; right subclavian vein
A
  1. Right lymphatic duct; right subclavian vein
212
Q

Identify #4

A

Trachea

213
Q

Identify #1

A

Epiglottis

214
Q

Identify #16

A

Diaphragm

215
Q

Identify #2

A

Thyroid cartilage

216
Q

Which of the following is not a major stage in the fever process?

  1. Stage
  2. Onset
  3. Defervescrence
  4. Stadium
A
  1. Stage
217
Q

Natural killer cells (NK cells) ___________.(select all that apply)

  1. Destroy bacteria
  2. Destroyed transplanted cells
  3. Release perforins and granzymes
  4. Removes debris
A
  1. Destroy bacteria
  2. Destroyed transplanted cells
  3. Release perforins and granzymes
218
Q

Identify the three major processes of inflammation in the correct order (what happens 1st, 2nd, and 3rd).

  1. tissue clean-up and repair
  2. mobilization of body defenses
  3. containment and destruction of pathogens
  4. 3, 1, 2
  5. 2, 1, 3
  6. 1, 2, 3
  7. 2, 3, 1
A

4) 2, 3, 1

219
Q

Normal body pH should be between

  1. 7.25 - 7.35
  2. 7.35 - 7.45
  3. 7.45 - 7.55
  4. 7.55 - 7.65
A

2) 7.35 - 7.45

220
Q

Which vocabulary term best fits this description

~ Maximum quantity of air in one breath 4500-5500 mL

  1. Tidal volume
  2. Total lung capacity
  3. Dead space volume
  4. Vital capacity
  5. Expiratory reserve volume
A
  1. Vital capacity
221
Q

Which vocabulary term best fits this description

~ Volume of air inhaled and exhaled in one cycle during quiet breathing (500 mL)

  1. Tidal volume
  2. Total lung capacity
  3. Dead space volume
  4. Vital capacity
  5. Expiratory reserve volume
A
  1. Tidal volume
222
Q

Which vocabulary term best fits this description

~ Air in excess of tidal volume that can be exhaled with maximum effort (1,200 mL)

  1. Tidal volume
  2. Total lung volume
  3. Dead space volume
  4. Expiratory reserve volume
A
  1. Expiratory reserve volume
223
Q

Which vocabulary term best fits this description

~ Maximum amount lungs can hold; 4650-6400 mL

  1. Tidal volume
  2. Total lung capacity
  3. Dead space volume
  4. Vital capacity
  5. Expiratory reserve volume
A
  1. Total lung capacity
224
Q

Which vocabulary term best fits this description

~ Air that remains in conducting zone and never reaches alveoli (~150mL)

  1. Tidal volume
  2. Total lung capacity
  3. Dead space volume
  4. Vital capacity
  5. Expiratory reserve volume
A
  1. Dead space volume
225
Q

Identify which immunity cell has a limited immune response

  1. Memory T cells
  2. Regulatory T cells
  3. Helper T cells
  4. Cytotoxic T cells
A
  1. Regulatory T cells
226
Q

Identify which immunity cell carries out attacks

  1. Memory T cells
  2. Regulatory T cells
  3. Helper T cells
  4. Cytotoxic T cells
A
  1. Cytotoxic T cells
227
Q

Identify which immunity cell provided immunity from future exposure to antigens.

  1. Memory T cells
  2. Regulatory T cells
  3. Helper T cells
  4. Cytotoxic T cells
A
  1. Memory T cells
228
Q

Identify which immunity cell help promote Tc cells and B cells action and nonspecific defense mechanisms

  1. Memory T cells
  2. Regulatory T cells
  3. Helper T cells
  4. Cytotoxic T cells
A
  1. Helper T cells
229
Q

Which molecule competes with oxygen when binding to hemoglobin.

  1. CO2
  2. PO4
  3. CO
  4. HCO3
A
  1. CO
230
Q

The _____________ system and the ________ system collaborate (work together) to regulate the body’s acid-base balance.

  1. Urinary; digestive
  2. Respiratory; urinary
  3. Reproductive; respiratory
  4. Urinary; reproductive
  5. Respiratory; integumentary
A
  1. Respiratory; urinary
231
Q

Which of the following is not a meaning of respiration?

  1. Ventilation of the lungs (breathing)
  2. The exchange of gases between the air and blood, and between blood and the tissue fluid
  3. The use of oxygen in cellular metabolism
  4. All of the phrases are meanings for respiration
A
  1. All of the phrases are meanings for respiration
232
Q

Pneumothorax is the

  1. Presence of air in the pleural cavity
  2. Collapse of part or all of a lung
  3. Reduced pulmonary ventilations
  4. Permanent cessation of breathing
A
  1. Presence of air in the pleural cavity
233
Q

Emphysema is a type of

  1. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
  2. Restrictive disease
  3. Obstructive pulmonary disease
  4. Chronic restrictive disease
A
  1. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
234
Q

Histotoxic hypoxia is

  1. Hypoxia due to anemia resulting from the inability of the blood to carry adequate oxygen
  2. Metabolic poisons such as cyanide prevent the tissues from using oxygen delivered to them
  3. State of low arterial PO2
  4. Hypoxia due to inadequate circulation of blood such as congestive heart failure
A
  1. Metabolic poisons such as cyanide prevent the tissues from using oxygen delivered to them
235
Q

These are all accessory organs of the digestive system except

  1. Gallbladder
  2. Esophagus
  3. Pancreas
  4. Salivary glands
  5. Spleen
A
  1. Esophagus
236
Q

Infants have ________________ deciduous teeth, whereas adults have ________________ permanent teeth.

  1. 20; 32
  2. 16; 20
  3. 28; 20
  4. 32; 20
  5. 32; 32
A
  1. 20; 32
237
Q

These of these are usually found in the saliva and help break down starch.

  1. Mucus
  2. Lysozyme
  3. Amylase
  4. Lipase
  5. Protease
A
  1. Amylase
238
Q

The ______________ gland is an extrinsic salivary gland, whereas the ______________ gland is an intrinsic salivary gland.

  1. lingual; labial
  2. submandibular; lingual
  3. submandibular; sublingual
  4. sublingual; parotid
  5. lingual; sublingual
A
  1. submandibular; lingual
239
Q

The swallowing center is located in

  1. The mouth
  2. The oropharynx
  3. The esophagus
  4. The medulla oblongata
  5. The enteric nervous system
A
  1. The medulla oblongata
240
Q

Acid reflux into the esophagus (“heartburn”) is normally prevented by

  1. Pharyngeal constrictors
  2. The upper esophageal sphincter
  3. The lower esophageal sphincter
  4. Esophageal glands
  5. Pharyngeal and buccal sphincters
A
  1. The lower esophageal sphincter
241
Q

Identify #3

  1. Gastic rugae
  2. Antrum
  3. Pyloric sphincter
  4. Fundic region
  5. Cardiac region
A
  1. Gastic rugae
242
Q

The organ that stores excess glucose and releases it later into the blood is

  1. the pancreas
  2. the stomach
  3. the liver
  4. the spleen
  5. the small intestines
A
  1. the liver
243
Q

The digestive system is _____ meters long, from mouth to anus.

  1. 12 meters
  2. 3 meters
  3. 6 meters
  4. 9 meters
  5. 36 meters
A
  1. 9 meters
244
Q

After the ______________ synthesizes bile it is stored in the _________.

  1. duodenum; pancreas
  2. ileum; gallbladder
  3. gallbladder; liver
  4. pancreas; liver
  5. liver; gallbladder
A
  1. liver; gallbladder
245
Q

Pancreatic enzymes are secreted in response to the hormone

  1. Insulin
  2. Cholecystokinin (CCK)
  3. Secretin
  4. Glucagon
  5. Gastrin
A
  1. Cholecystokinin (CCK)
246
Q

The small intestine has a very large absorptive surface associated with all these structures except

  1. Intestinal length
  2. microvilli
  3. villi
  4. rugae
A
  1. Intestinal length
247
Q

Identify the esophagus

A

D

248
Q

Identify the small intestines

A

B

249
Q

Identify the gallbladder

A

E

250
Q

T/F

The course of pregnancy is divided into “four intervals” called trimesters.

A

False

251
Q

T/F

Ectopic pregnancy is a synonymous (same as) tubal pregnancies.

A

False

252
Q

T/F

Sexual reproduction entails the union of two gonads to form a zygote.

A

False

253
Q

T/F

The sperm of a male determines the sex of the unborn child.

A

True

254
Q

T/F

The bulbourethral (cowper) gland protects the sperm by neutralizing the alkalinity of residual urine in the urethra.

A

False

255
Q

T/F

The only test available to screen for prostate cancer is a digital rectal exam (DRE).

A

False

256
Q

T/F

The scrotum contains the testes and spermatic cords.

A

True

257
Q

T/F

The blood–testis barrier (BTB) is formed by loose junctions between sustentacular cells.

A

False

258
Q

T/F

Vas deferens is a 45cm muscular tube transporting urine from the scrotum to the urethra.

A

False

259
Q

T/F

Testosterone stimulates development of the secondary sex characteristics, spermatogenesis, and libido.

A

True

260
Q

T/F

Fluid released from the seminal vesicles account for majority of what is ejaculated (60%).

A

True

261
Q

T/F

Mesonephric (wolffian) duct develop into female reproductive tract.

A

False

262
Q

T/F

Testicular nerves come from spinal cord segments T10 and T11.

A

True

263
Q

T/F

In the female fetus, the absence of testosterone results in the development of the external genitalia into clitoris, labia minora, and labia majora.

A

True

264
Q

T/F

The uterus is a thick muscular chamber inferior to the urinary bladder.

A

False

265
Q

T/F

The vagina has no glands but it is moistened by mucus from glands in the cervical canal.

A

True

266
Q

T/F

Although two breast cancer genes are known, most cases are nonhereditary.

A

True

267
Q

T/F

The ovarian cycle typically lasts about 28 days, with day 1 considered to be the first day after ovulation.

A

False

268
Q

T/F

During the excitement and orgasmic phase a woman uterus tilt forwards/stands vertically, and returns to normal position after climax.

A

True

269
Q

T/F

Braxton Hicks contractions are relatively weak contractions of the uterus over the course of gestation – normally referred to as false labor.

A

True

270
Q

T/F

Ampulla is the middle and longest part of the uterine “fallopian” tubes.

A

True

271
Q

T/F

Seminal vesicles produce the thin, milky white fluid of semen.

A

False

272
Q

T/F

Respiratory acidosis/ alkalosis results from changes in partial pressure of CO2 in systemic arterial blood.

A

True

273
Q

T/F

Water is by far the largest single component of the body making up 45-75% of total body mass.

A

True

274
Q

T/F

Majority of the daily water loss is done via evaporation from the skins

A

False

275
Q

T/F

In a state of water balance, average daily fluid gains and losses are equal.

A

True

276
Q

T/F

Urea is the main component of urine.

A

True

277
Q

T/F

Minor calyx formed by convergence of two or three minor calyces.

A

False

278
Q

T/F

The renal artery arise from the thoracic aorta.

A

False

279
Q

T/F

The right kidney is positioned lower on the abdominal wall because of the position of the liver.

A

True

280
Q

T/F

The kidneys secrete ADH in response to dehydration.

A

False

281
Q

T/F

The kidney’s received 21% of the cardiac output.

A

True

282
Q

T/F

The thick segment of the Nephon loop (loop of Henle) is made of simple cuboidal epithelium and is heavily engaged in the active transport of salts and have many mitochondria.

A

True

283
Q

Renal autoregulation is the ability of the nephrons to adjust their own blood flow and GFR without external control. Which type of renal autoregulation would stabilize the GFR based on the tendency of smooth muscle to contract when stretched.

  1. Myogenic mechanism
  2. Tubuloglomerular feedback
A

Myogenic mechanism

284
Q

T/F

The thin segment of the Nephron loop (loop of Henle) is made of simple squamous epithelium and is very permeable to water.

A

True

285
Q

T/F

Majority of the water gain by the body is done by metabolic synthesis of water during cellular respiration and dehydration synthesis.

A

False

286
Q

T/F

The uterus is a thick muscular chamber inferior to the urinary bladder.

A

False

287
Q

The male penis homologous structure in females is known as the _____

  1. Labia majora
  2. Labia minora
  3. Mons pubis
  4. Clitoris
  5. Urethra
A
  1. Clitoris
288
Q

The female labia majora homologous structure in males is known as the _____.

  1. Scrotum
  2. Labia minora
  3. Mons pubis
  4. Clitoris
  5. Urethra
A
    1. Scrotum
289
Q

The male urethra is considered an integral part of both the urinary system and reproductive system. This structure has three distinct regions, which of the following is not a region of the urethra?

  1. Prostatic
  2. Spongy
  3. Cavernosum
  4. Membranous
A
  1. Cavernosum
290
Q

Both eggs and sperm cells both undergo meiosis. The sex cells are the end of meiosis is considered _______ and have ___ chromosomes.

  1. Diploid; 46
  2. Haploid; 46
  3. Diploid; 23
  4. Haploid; 23
  5. Haploid; 28
A
  1. Haploid; 23
291
Q

Which of the following represent the correct order of meiosis (the first cycle)?

  1. Interphase, Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis
  2. Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis, Interphase, Prophase
  3. Interphase, Prophase, Telophase, Cytokinesis Metaphase, Anaphase
  4. Interphase, Prophase, Anaphase, Telophase, Metaphase, Cytokinesis
  5. Interphase, Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Cytokinesis, Telophase
A
  1. Interphase, Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis
292
Q

_________ is/are generally accepted as a secondary sex characteristic.

  1. The uterus
  2. The vagina
  3. The prostate gland
  4. The presence of testes
  5. The enlargement of breast
A
  1. The enlargement of breast
293
Q

Male copulatory organ is the _________ and the female copulatory organ is the ____________.

  1. Penis; ovaries
  2. Testis; vagina
  3. Testis; ovaries
  4. Penis; uterine “fallopian” tubes
  5. Penis; vagina
A
  1. Penis; vagina
294
Q

Circumcision is a common surgery in which a male has _________ removed from his penis.

  1. Smegma
  2. Root
  3. Shaft
  4. Prepuce (foreskin)
  5. Erectile tissue
A
  1. Prepuce (foreskin)
295
Q

All is true about the skin on the scrotum except:

  1. Has sebaceous glands
  2. Have sparse hair
  3. Poor sensory innervation
  4. Darker pigmentation than skin elsewhere
  5. Rich sensory innervation
A

TBD

296
Q

Acrosome role in sperm is to

  1. Contains haploid set of chromosomes
  2. Contain an enzyme cap that contains enzymes needed to penetrate the egg
  3. Provide a base for the flagellum to attach
  4. Contains mitochondria
  5. Produces ATP for flagellar movement
A
  1. Contain an enzyme cap that contains enzymes needed to penetrate the egg
297
Q

The gene that codes for the testis-determining factor (TDF) is found in or on

  1. The Y chromosome
  2. The X chromosome
  3. The gonadal ridges
  4. The fetal testes
  5. The mesonephros
A
  1. The Y chromosome
298
Q

The _____________ is the gonad and the ___________ is the gamete.

  1. Testis; ovary
  2. Testis; semen
  3. Testis; sperm
  4. Sperm; sperm
  5. Semen; sperm
A
  1. Testis; sperm
299
Q

_______________ stimulates the descent of the testes.

  1. The presence of the Y chromosome
  2. The presence of the X chromosome
  3. The absence of the X chromosome
  4. Testosterone
  5. Estrogen
A
  1. Testosterone
300
Q

4

A

Epididymis

301
Q

1

A

Vas deferens

302
Q

5

A

Scrotum

303
Q

When it is cold, the _____________ contracts and draws the testes closer to the body to keep them warm.

  1. Cremaster muscle
  2. Pampiniform plexus
  3. Corpus spongiosum
  4. Perineum
  5. Corpus cavernosum
A
  1. Cremaster muscle
304
Q

The countercurrent heat exchanger that prevents arterial blood from overheating the testes is

  1. The rete testis
  2. The epididymis
  3. The pampiniform plexus of veins
  4. The blood-testis barrier
  5. The scrotal portal system
A
  1. The pampiniform plexus of veins
305
Q

Why would an enlarged prostate gland interfere with urination?

  1. It inhibits urine production
  2. It develops calcified deposits that block the urethra
  3. It produces thicker prostatic secretions that block the urethra
  4. It inhibits the micturiton reflex
  5. It compresses the urethra
A
  1. It compresses the urethra
306
Q

The acrosome contains enzymes used to

  1. Dissolve the mucosa of the vagina
  2. Dissolve the mucosa of the uterus
  3. Dissolve the stickiness of the semen
  4. Penetrate the vagina
  5. Penetrate barriers surrounding the ovum (egg)
A

TBD

307
Q

As blood fills the __________ and ____________ the penis will become erect. Blood will drain the penis via _______ causing the penis to become flaccid.

  1. Deep artery, dorsal artery; deep dorsal vein
  2. Deep artery, deep dorsal vein; dorsal artery
  3. Dorsal artery, deep dorsal vein; deep artery
  4. Shallow dorsal vein, shallow artery; deep artery
  5. Deep artery, shallow dorsal artery; deep dorsal vein
A
  1. Deep artery, dorsal artery; deep dorsal vein
308
Q

The uterus is a pear-shaped organ that tilts forward over the urinary bladder. The three regions of the uterus are:

  1. Fundus, tote, and body
  2. Cervix, body, and handle
  3. Cervix, fundus, and tote
  4. Body, cervix, and fundus
  5. Tote, handle, and chamber
A
  1. Body, cervix, and fundus
309
Q

The _______________ is an example of the female external genitalia.

  1. Scrotum
  2. Clitoris
  3. Uterine tube
  4. Seminal vesicle
  5. Vagina
A
  1. Clitoris
310
Q

___________ is an important source for the embryo until the placenta is formed, if removed too soon a woman will undergo a spontaneous abortion or miscarry.

  1. Corpus luteum
  2. Estrogen
  3. Decidual cells
  4. Blastocyst
  5. Follicle
A
  1. Corpus luteum
311
Q

Uterine artery arises from each

  1. Internal iliac artery
  2. External iliac artery
  3. Common iliac artery
  4. Iliac vein
  5. Femoral vein
A
  1. Internal iliac artery
312
Q

All of the following hormones strongly influence pregnancy, but which are secreted by the placenta?

  1. Estrogens
  2. Progesterone
  3. Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
  4. Human chorionic somatomammotropin (HCS)
  5. All are secreted by the placenta
A

TBD

313
Q

The internal female genitalia include the ___________.

  1. Vagina
  2. Clitoris
  3. Labia majora
  4. Labia minora
  5. Mammary gland
A
  1. Vagina
314
Q

After puberty, the vaginal lining goes through metaplasia transforming from simple cuboidal epithelium to _________ epithelium.

  1. Simple squamous
  2. Stratified squamous
  3. Transitional
  4. Simple columnar
  5. Simple cuboidal
A
  1. Stratified squamous
315
Q

The ____________ is the site of attachment of the embryo.

  1. Endometrium
  2. Perimetrium
  3. Myometrium
  4. Uterine tube
  5. Vagina
A
  1. Endometrium
316
Q

Which of these is not found in the (vaginal) vestibule?

  1. Urinary orifice
  2. Mons pubis
  3. Vaginal orifice
  4. Labia minora
  5. Clitoris
A
  1. Mons pubis
317
Q

3

A

Uterine “fallopian” tube

318
Q

4

A

Ovary

319
Q

5

A

Urinary bladder

320
Q

Mammary glands develop within the breasts primarily

  1. During the last week of fetal development
  2. At birth
  3. During infancy
  4. During puberty
  5. During pregnancy
A
  1. During pregnancy
321
Q

Breast size is determined by

  1. The amount of adipose tissue
  2. The amount of collagenous fiber
  3. The size of lactiferous sinuses
  4. The amount of mammary gland tissue
  5. Muscle tone
A
  1. The amount of adipose tissue
322
Q

The appearance of pubic and axillary hair is a stage specifically called

  1. Puberty
  2. Climacteric
  3. Thelarche
  4. Pubarche
  5. Menarche
A
  1. Pubarche
323
Q

The basis of pregnancy test kits is the presence of ____________, which is secreted by the _________________.

  1. human chorionic somatomammotropin; endometrium and myometrium
  2. human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG); blastocyst and placenta
  3. progesterone; corpus luteum and corpus albicans
  4. progesterone; blastocyst and embryo
  5. estrogens; blastocyst and placenta
A
  1. human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG); blastocyst and placenta
324
Q

The _________________ provides fetal nutrition and secretes hormones that regulate pregnancy and fetal development.

  1. Uterus
  2. Myometrium
  3. Endometrium
  4. Blastocyst
  5. Placenta
A
  1. Placenta
325
Q

There are three stages of labor, which occur first

  1. Dilation
  2. Expulsion
  3. Placental stage
  4. Primipara
  5. Mulipara
A
  1. Dilation
326
Q

Milk ejection occurs as a result of stimulation of nerve endings in the ____________ , which leads to the release of ______________ from the pituitary.

  1. Mammary acini; oxytocin
  2. Mammary acini; prolactin
  3. Nipple and areola; oxytocin
  4. Nipple and areola; prolactin
  5. Nipple and areola; progesterone
A
  1. Nipple and areola; oxytocin
327
Q

Which of the following is a method of contraception to prevent pregnancy?

  1. Intrauterine device (IUD)
  2. Surgical sterilization
  3. Birth control pills
  4. Abstinence
  5. All of the above
A
  1. All of the above
328
Q

Oxytocin causes this cartilage to dissolve at the end of pregnancy to aid in labor.

  1. Ramus of pubis
  2. Ileum
  3. Pubic symphysis
  4. Iliac crest
  5. Sacrum
A
  1. Pubic symphysis
329
Q

Puberty begins when which hormone is secreted by the hypothalamus?

  1. LH
  2. FSH
  3. GnRH
  4. HCG
A

TBD

330
Q

In both sexes, the area between the thighs that is circumscribed by the pubic symphysis, ischial tuberosities, and coccyx is called the

  1. Perineum
  2. Urogential triangle
  3. Anal triangle
  4. Pubic region
A
  1. Perineum
331
Q

Ovulation is induced only when there is a peak in secretion of which hormone?

  1. LH
  2. FSH
  3. Estrogen
  4. Progesterone
A
  1. LH
332
Q

What are the three tunics of the uterus, from external to internal?

  1. Endometrium, myometrium, perimetrium
  2. Perimetrium, myometrium, endometrium
  3. Stratum basalis, stratum functionalis, endometrium
  4. Myometrium, stratum basalis, stratum functionalis
A
  1. Perimetrium, myometrium, endometrium
333
Q

Estrogen is secreted by which of the following?

  1. Ovarian follicles (before ovulation)
  2. Corpus luteum (after ovulation)
  3. Placenta (during pregnancy)
  4. All of the above
A
  1. All of the above
334
Q

The spermatic cord contains which of the following?

  1. Vas (ductus) deferens
  2. Testicular artery and nerve
  3. Pampiniform plexus
  4. All of the above
A

All of the above

335
Q

The epididymis functions to

  1. Secrete one of the three major components of seminal fluid
  2. Isolate old and defective sperm so that they ca be expelled from the body
  3. Store sperm until they are fully mature and capable of being motile
  4. All of the above
A

All of the above

336
Q

In the testes, sperm are produced within the highly convoluted ____________, while androgens are produced by the ____________.

  1. Retes testies; lobules
  2. Seminiferous tubules; interstitial cells
  3. Efferent ductules; mediastinum testis
  4. Seminiferous tubules; sustentacular cells
A
  1. Seminiferous tubules; interstitial cells
337
Q

Which part of the penis is removed during circumcision?

  1. Crus
  2. Prepuce
  3. Corpus cavernosum
  4. Corpus spongiosum
A
  1. Prepuce
338
Q

2

A

Clitoris

339
Q

3

A

Labia minora

340
Q

1

A

Mons pubis

341
Q

4

A

Vaginal orifice

342
Q

Match the words to the following statements.

~ Site of sperm storage

  1. Interstitial cells
  2. Seminiferous tubules
  3. Tunica albuginea
  4. Epididymis
  5. Pampiniform plexus
A
  1. Epididymis
343
Q

Match the words to the following statements.

~ Cools arterial blood to keep the testes below core temperature

  1. Interstitial cells
  2. Seminiferous tubules
  3. Tunica albuginea
  4. Epididymis
  5. Pampiniform plexus
A
  1. Pampiniform plexus
344
Q

Match the words to the following statements.

~ Fibrous capsule of the testes and ovaries

  1. Interstitial cells
  2. Seminiferous tubules
  3. Tunica albuginea
  4. Epididymis
  5. Pampiniform plexus
A

TBD

345
Q

Match the words to the following statements.

~ Make testosterone

  1. Interstitial cells
  2. Seminiferous tubules
  3. Tunica albuginea
  4. Epididymis
  5. Pampiniform plexus
A
  1. Interstitial cells
346
Q

Match the words to the following statements.

~ Site of sperm production in the testes

  1. Interstitial cells
  2. Seminiferous tubules
  3. Tunica albuginea
  4. Epididymis
  5. Pampiniform plexus
A
  1. Seminiferous tubules
347
Q

Match the words to the following statements.

~ House and form the female gametes

  1. Fallopian tube
  2. Fimbriae
  3. Uterus
  4. Vagina
  5. Ovaries
A
  1. Ovaries
348
Q

Match the words to the following statements.

~ Receives, retains, and nourishes a fertilized ovum

  1. Fallopian tube
  2. Fimbriae
  3. Uterus
  4. Vagina
  5. Ovaries
A
  1. Uterus
349
Q

Match the words to the following statements.

~ Generally the site of fertilization of the ovulated oocyte

  1. Fallopian tube
  2. Fimbriae
  3. Uterus
  4. Vagina
  5. Ovaries
A
  1. Fallopian tube
350
Q

Match the words to the following statements.

~ Finger-like projections that brush over the ovary

  1. Fallopian tube
  2. Fimbriae
  3. Uterus
  4. Vagina
  5. Ovaries
A
  1. Fimbriae
351
Q

Match the words to the following statements.

~ Thin walled structure that connects the uterus to the body exterior

  1. Fallopian tube
  2. Fimbriae
  3. Uterus
  4. Vagina
  5. Ovaries
A
  1. Vagina
352
Q

The purpose of the urethra in males is to

  1. carry only urine
  2. carry only semen
  3. carry a mixture of semen and urine
  4. carry both semen and urine but not at the same time
A
  1. carry both semen and urine but not at the same time
353
Q

A process in which sperm laden semen leaves the male body.

  1. Ovulation
  2. Gestation
  3. Ejaculation
A
  1. Ejaculation
354
Q

A set of coiled tubes that connect to the vas deferens.

  1. Fallopian tubes
  2. Epididymis
  3. Urethra
A
  1. Epididymis
355
Q

Most of the body water is in

  1. The intracellular fluid (ICF)
  2. The extracellular fluid (ECF)
  3. Tissue (interstitial) fluid
  4. Blood plasma and lymph
  5. The transcellular fluid
A
  1. The intracellular fluid (ICF)
356
Q

Osmosis from one fluid compartment to another is determined by

  1. the temperature difference between compartments
  2. the relative concentration of solutes in each compartment
  3. the relative volume in each compartment
  4. the relative size of each compartment
  5. blood pressure
A
  1. the relative concentration of solutes in each compartment
357
Q

Which does not play a role in homeostatic balance

  1. Water balance
  2. Acid balance
  3. Electrolyte balance
  4. Acid-base balance
A
  1. Acid balance
358
Q

In which of these compartments would fluid accumulate in edema?

  1. Intracellular fluid (ICF)
  2. Transcellular fluid
  3. Tissue (interstitial) fluid
  4. Blood plasma
  5. Lymph
A
  1. Tissue (interstitial) fluid
359
Q

Most body water comes from _____, whereas most body water is lost via ___.

  1. Metabolic waste; cutaneous transpiration
  2. Metabolic water; sweat
  3. Drinking; urine
  4. Drinking; cutaneous transpiration and expired air
  5. Drinking; radiation
A
  1. Drinking; urine
360
Q

___ represents the complete chemical reaction for the bicarbonate buffer system.

  1. CO2 + H2O —-> H2CO3 —–> HCO3- + H+
  2. CO2 + H2O —–> HCO3- + H+ + H2CO3
  3. H2CO3 —–> CO2 + H2O + HCO3- + H+
  4. H2CO3 —–> HCO3- + H+
  5. CO2 + H2O ——> HCO3- + H+
A
  1. CO2 + H2O —-> H2CO3 —–> HCO3- + H+
361
Q

This is the most abundant cation of the intercellular fluid (ICF)

  1. Ca2+
  2. Na+
  3. K+
  4. Cl-
  5. Pi
A
  1. K+
362
Q

This is the principal cation of the extracellular fluid (ECF)

  1. Ca2+
  2. Na+
  3. K+
  4. Cl-
  5. Pi
A
  1. Na+
363
Q

Tissue fluid normally has a pH of

  1. 6.95 - 7.05
  2. 7.05 - 7.15
  3. 7.15 - 7.25
  4. 7.25 - 7.35
  5. 7.35 - 7.45
A
  1. 7.35 - 7.45
364
Q

Which organ system does not excrete waste?

  1. Urinary system
  2. Cardiovascular system
  3. Integumentary system
  4. Digestive system
  5. Respiratory system
A
  1. Cardiovascular system
365
Q

The urinary system maintains the internal environment by performing which of the following functions?

  1. Excretory
  2. Regulatory
  3. Secretory
  4. All of the above
A
  1. All of the above
366
Q

Which of these correctly traces blood flow from the renal artery into the renal cortex (capillaries)? (focus on atrial flow)

  1. arcuate a. → interlobar a. → afferent arteriole → interlobular a
  2. interlobar a. → interlobular a. → segmental a. → arcuate a.
  3. aorta. → renal a. → arcuate a. → afferent a.
  4. afferent arteriole → interlobular a. → arcuate a. → interlobar a.
  5. segmental a. → arcuate a. → interlobar a. → interlobular a.
A

TBD

367
Q

have a tendency to retain water during part of the menstrual cycle because estrogen mimics the action of

  1. ADH
  2. Aldosterone
  3. Atrial natriuretic hormone
  4. Oxytocin
  5. Prolactin
A
  1. Aldosterone
368
Q

Urine is produced in three phases. The secretion and absorption phase moves fluid from the proximal convoluted tubule through the distal convoluted tubule. During this phase substance’s have been removed or added by tubular cells. What is the fluid in this phase know as?

  1. Plasma
  2. Glomerular filtrate
  3. Renal filtrate
  4. Tubular fluid
  5. Medullary filtrate
A
  1. Tubular fluid
369
Q

There are two kinds of cells in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts. Indicate if the statement is describing principal cells, intercalated cells or both.

~ Involved in acid-base balance

  1. Intercalated cells
  2. Principal cell
  3. Both
A

TBD

370
Q

There are two kinds of cells in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts. Indicate if the statement is describing principal cells, intercalated cells or both.

~ Involved in salt and water balance

  1. Intercalated cells
  2. Principal cells
  3. Both
A

TBD

371
Q

There are two kinds of cells in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts. Indicate if the statement is describing principal cells, intercalated cells or both.

~ Have receptors for hormones

  1. Intercalated cells
  2. Principal cells
  3. Both
A
  1. Principal cells
372
Q

There are two kinds of cells in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts. Indicate if the statement is describing principal cells, intercalated cells or both.

~ Secrete H+ into tubules lumen and reabsorbs K+

  1. Intercalated cells
  2. Principal cells
  3. Both
A
  1. Intercalated cells
373
Q

There are two convoluted tubules that make up a nephron. Indicate if the statement is describing the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) or distal convoluted tubule (DCT).

~ Arises from the glomerular capsule

  1. PCT
  2. DCT
A
  1. PCT
374
Q

There are two convoluted tubules that make up a nephron. Indicate if the statement is describing the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) or distal convoluted tubule (DCT).

~ Cuboidal epithelium with microvilli

  1. PCT
  2. DCT
A
  1. PCT

BIO 151 A&P II (8 decks)

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