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MT 6312 > UNIT 3 LEC: COMMUNICABLE DISEASES > Flashcards

UNIT 3 LEC: COMMUNICABLE DISEASES Flashcards

1
Q

4 general categories of infectious pathogens

A

Bacteria
Fungi
Parasite
Virus

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2
Q

HIV contains genetic material and the tiny bits of _____ & ______ they get from the body.

A

proteins; lipids

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3
Q

Botulism

A

Food-and-Water-Borne Disease

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4
Q

Campylobacteriosis

A

Food-and-Water-Borne Disease

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5
Q

Listeriosis

A

Food-and-Water-Borne Disease

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6
Q

Brucellosis

A

Zoonoses and Vector Borne

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7
Q

Legionellosis

A

Airborne disease

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8
Q

Diphtheria

A

Diseases
Preventable by
Vaccination

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9
Q

Pertussis

A

Diseases
Preventable by
Vaccination

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10
Q

is a condition that results when a microbe can
invade the body, multiply, and cause injury or
disease.

A

Infection

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11
Q

is something caused by a pathogen.
Something that invades the body and multiplies
causing injury or disease in the individual.

A

Infection

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12
Q

Some pathogenic microbes cause infections
that are communicable

A

Communicable Pathogens

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13
Q

T or F: All communicable diseases are infectious. On
the other hand, not all infectious diseases are
communicable.

A

T

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14
Q

microbe that can cause disease

A

True Pathogen

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15
Q

These are organisms that can become
pathogenic once host immunity is low/is present
in body location that is unusual for the microbe
to be present

A

Opportunistic Pathogen

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16
Q

Microbe that is normally present in body
locations; not usually causing infection

A

Microbiota/Normal Flora

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17
Q

In-charge with the investigation and control of
various diseases, especially those that are
communicable and have epidemic potential

A

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

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18
Q

CDC is an agency of the

A

U.S. Department of Health and Human Services

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19
Q

The basis for cultures of the microorganism being
the gold standard in the diagnosis.

A

Robert Koch’s Postulate

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20
Q

ET factor: genetics, sex, age, immunity,
vaccination, etc.

A

Host

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21
Q

ET factor: virulence, pathogenicity, genetics,
resistance

A

Agent

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22
Q

ET factor: clean flowing
streams, oxygenated water, shady environment, salt
water

A

Environmental

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23
Q

The chain of infection highlights the importance of (3 components)

A

Portal of entry
Portal of exit
Mode of transmission

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24
Q

CoI: ______ is a virus, bacterium, or parasite that
causes the disease in humans.

A

Pathogen

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25
Q

CoI: ______ is a place where the pathogen lives
and multiplies.

A

Reservoir

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26
Q

CoI: ________ is the method an
infectious agent uses to travel from a reservoir
to a susceptible individual.

A

Mode of transmission

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27
Q

CoI: Body part where the pathogen can lodge/enter the
host

A

Entry pathway

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28
Q

CoI: Person with low/altered immunity that receives the
pathogen

A

Susceptible host

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29
Q

CoI: ______ is a way an infectious agent is able
to leave a reservoir host.

A

Exit pathway

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30
Q

Vaccine is an example of ______ immunity

A

artificial

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31
Q

MOT: Exposure of infected body fluids such as blood or saliva

A

Direct contact

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32
Q

MOT: Pathogens remain on surfaces that were in contact
with an infected person

A

Indirect contact

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33
Q

MOT: Infectious agents are found in contaminated food
and water that are ingested

A

Food and Water Borne

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34
Q

MOT: Pathogens are spread when an infected person coughs or sneezes

A

Airborne

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35
Q

MOT: Infectious agents are usually transmitted through a
bite of an infected insect carrying the infective
agents of the organisms

A

Vector borne

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36
Q

Caused by apicomplexan parasites of the genus
Plasmodium

A

Malaria (bad air)

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37
Q

Two life cycles of malaria vector (enumerate and identify)

A

Erythrocytic; Exoerythrocytic

Female Anopheles Mosquito

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38
Q

Medically important species of Plasmodium

A

falciparum 60.8%
vivax 14.1%
ovale 3.7%
malariae 2.5%
undetermined 16.6%
mixed 2.3%

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39
Q

Plasmodium species with CNS involvement

A

P. falciparum

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40
Q

Plasmodium species with global endemicity

A

P. malariae

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41
Q

Plasmodium stages in man

A

Schizont
Trophozoite
Gametocyte

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42
Q

Plasmodium stages in mosquito

A

Zygote
Ookinete
Oocyst
Sporozoite

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43
Q

Malaria can be prevented by use of _______ _______ and use of protection measures against
mosquito bites.

A

antimalarial drugs

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44
Q

Malaria prevention for individuals

A

mosquito repellants

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45
Q

Can also be used for mosquito-treated nets
which is employed in Africa and in the
Philippines

A

N,N-diethyl-meta-toluamide (DEET)

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46
Q

Model for vector control

A

Swiss Cheese Model

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47
Q

ABCDE of Swiss Cheese Model

A

Awareness
Bite prevention
Chemoprophylaxis
Diagnosis
Emergency kits

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48
Q

DOH projects for vector control

A

Mag 4s Tayo!
4 o’clock habit

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49
Q

Dengue poses _________ effects

A

cumulative

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50
Q

Also known as the Forgotten Pandemic

A

Cholera

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51
Q

One of the longer occurring pandemics or epidemics

A

Cholera

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52
Q

Cholera bacteria

A

Vibrio cholerae

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53
Q

Year of John Snow’s work on cholera

A

1853-1854

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54
Q

_______ is an acute diarrheal disease that can kill
within hours if left untreated.

A

Cholera

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55
Q

Up to 80% of cholera cases can be successfully treated with

A

oral rehydration solution (ORS)

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56
Q

V. cholerae in the feces can be contagious for up to _____ days

A

14

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57
Q

More common cause of cholera in the Philippines

A

Vibrio cholerae O139

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58
Q

Shepherd’s crook morphology, ”U” or “6” shape

A

Ebola

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59
Q

Related families of ebola

A

Bundibugyo v
Sudan v
Tai forest v
Zaire v
Reston v
Filovirus

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60
Q

Family of Ebola that causes disease in primates

A

Reston virus

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61
Q

highly virulent and require maximum
containment facilities for laboratory work: Biosafety
Level 4

A

Filovirus

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62
Q

Natural/reservoir host of Ebola

A

Bats (fruit bats)

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63
Q

Human consumption of ________ has been linked
to animal-to-human transmission of Ebola

A

bushmeat

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64
Q

zoonotic/zootic: replicating within the species where they
are originally found; natural reservoir

A

zoonotic

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65
Q

zoonotic/zootic: outside the natural cycle or accidental

A

zootic

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66
Q

Immunosuppressive family of Ebola

A

Filovirus

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67
Q

MOT of Ebola

A

direct contact w/ blood or other body fluids

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68
Q

According to WHO, only people who are very sick are
able to spread Ebola disease in saliva and through _________

A

large droplets

69
Q

___% of the cases of Ebola infections in Guinea
during the 2014 outbreak are believed to have
been contracted via unprotected contacts with
infected corpses during Guinean burial rituals.

A

69

70
Q

Highest mortality rate of all the viral hemorrhagic fevers: 25-90%

A

Ebola hemorrhagic fever

71
Q

The largest outbreak to date was the Ebola virus
epidemic in ____ ______, which caused a large
number of deaths in Guinea, Sierra Leone, and
Liberia.

A

West Africa

72
Q

the first known outbreak of EVD

A

Sudan Outbreak

73
Q

second outbreak of EVD

A

Zaire Outbreak

74
Q

Ebola Diagnosis

A

ELISA
RT-PCR
Electron Microscopy
Virus Isolation by Cell Culture

75
Q

Experimental Ebola vaccine:

A

rVSV-ZEBOV

76
Q

Returning travelers and healthcare workers
should follow local policies for surveillance and
monitor their health for ___ days

A

21

77
Q

are infections that have newly appeared in a
population or have existed previously but are rapidly
increasing in incidence or geographic range.

A

Emerging and Re-Emerging Infectious Diseases (EIDs)

78
Q

Examples of reemerging diseases

A

chikungunya
influenza
Ebola

79
Q

are diseases that reappear
after they have been on a significant decline

A

Reemerging diseases

80
Q

Rises due to vaccine reluctance

A

Polio

81
Q

Reemergence may happen because of

A

a breakdown in pubhealth measures
new strains of known disease

82
Q

with the indiscriminate
use of antibiotics, we have now allowed the
return of diseases that were once treatable and
controllable

A

Antibiotic resistance

83
Q

are spread predominantly by unprotected sexual contact.

A

Sexually transmitted infections

84
Q

Transmission during pregnancy

A

Vertical transmission

85
Q

Bacterium in vaginal canal

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

86
Q

T or F: STIs are associated with stigma, domestic violence.

A

T

87
Q

T or F: The majority of STIs have no symptoms.

A

T

88
Q

T or F: STIs such as trichomonas, chlamydia, gonorrhea and syphilis are curable

A

T

89
Q

Rapidly increasing _______ _________ is a growing threat for untreatable gonorrhea.

A

antimicrobial resistance

90
Q

drug for gonorrhea

A

Penicillin

91
Q

Many STDs are (more easily) transmitted through
(breaks or tears of) ______ _________

A

mucous membranes

92
Q

other term for sexual fluids

A

Venereal fluids

93
Q

primary sources of STIs (in order)

A

venereal fluids
saliva
mucosal or skin
feces, urine. and sweat

94
Q

Risk is a product of _____ & ________

A

time; exposure

95
Q

there
is no transmission amongst individuals who
have ___________ viral load

A

undetectable

96
Q

Is a virus that attacks cells that help the
body fight infection.

A

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

97
Q

mechanism to
transform RNA back to DNA

A

Reverse transcriptase of retrovirus

98
Q

curable/treatable: HIV

A

treatable

99
Q

HIV Stages

A
  1. Acute HIV Infection
  2. Chronic HIV Infection
  3. AIDS
100
Q

People have a large amount of HIV in their blood
and very contagious

A

Stage 1

101
Q

swelling of lymph nodes; stage 1 symptom

A

lymphadenopathy

102
Q

HIV stage with flu-like symptoms

A

Stage 1

103
Q

Stage 2 is also called

A

asymptomatic HIV infection
or clinical latency

104
Q

stage of no physical set off, but the cells are already targeted

A

Latency

105
Q

Stage wherein HIV is still active and continues to produce in the
body

A

Stage 2

106
Q

WIthout HIV treatment, stage 2 may last _____, or may progress faster.

A

a decade or longer

107
Q

The most severe stage of HIV infection

A

Stage 3

108
Q

People with _____ can have a high viral load and may
easily transmit HIV to others

A

AIDS

109
Q

WIthout HIV treatment, people with AIDS typically
survive around ___ years

A

3

110
Q

Part of the immune system; important in resolving simple infections

A

CD4 Cells

111
Q

Loss of these cells makes it hard for the body to fight
off infections

A

CD4 cells

112
Q

Attacks immune system in humans

A

HIV

113
Q

A symptom of untreated HIV involves having

A

recurrent infections

114
Q

T or F: It is not the (HIV) virus itself that kills, but the loss of immunity.

A

T

115
Q

can prevent HIV from
spreading, and prevent HIV from advancing to AIDS.

A

Antiretroviral Treatment (ART)

116
Q

HIV is not transmitted via

A

sharing of food, drink, and utensils
insect bites
kiss, touch
clothes, towels
fomites
toilet, shower

117
Q

HIV Transmission %: Use of non-sterile syringe and tools

A

10

118
Q

HIV Transmission %: Pregnancy breastfeeding

A

10

119
Q

HIV Transmission %: Blood tansfusion

A

5%

120
Q

HIV Transmission %: Organ transplant

A

5

121
Q

HIV Transmission %: Unprotected sex

A

80

122
Q

4 Principles of HIV Transmission

A

Exit
Survive
Sufficiency
Enter

123
Q

If you engage in behaviors that may increase your
chances of getting HIV, ask if _______ is right for you.

A

Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP)

124
Q

If you think you’ve been exposed to HIV within the
last ___ days, ask a health care provider about _______

A

3; Post-exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)

125
Q

PEP can prevent HIV, but it must be started within ___ hours.

A

72

126
Q

T or F: If your viral load is not undetectable — or does not
stay undetectable — you can still protect your
partners by using other HIV prevention options.

A

T

127
Q

HIV Key populations

A

males having sex with males (MSM)
transgender
women
sex workers
trafficked women and
girls
people who inject drugs (PWID)

128
Q

Majority of HIV cases are with

A

men having sex with men (MSMs)

129
Q

An act promulgating the policies and prescribing
measures for the prevention and control of HIV/AIDS in the Philippines

A

RA 8504: Philippine AIDS Control and Prevention Act of 1998

130
Q

voluntary testing and
counseling without parental consent can now
be administered to teen agers in this age
bracket

A

15 to 17 years old

131
Q

Health Memorandum Order (HMO) coverage of People Living with HIV (PLHIV)

A

Comprehensive sexuality education in schools

132
Q

serves as a roadmap for government, civil society and the private sector to prevent and control the
spread of HIV in the country.

A

6-year AIDS Medium Term Plan (AMTP)

133
Q

are caused by pathogenic
microbes Small enough to be discharged from an
infected person via coughing, sneezing, laughing and
close personal contact or aerosolization of the
microbe.

A

Airborne diseases

134
Q

more than 5 microns
can travel less than 1 meter
fall to the ground in under 5 seconds
cannot be inhaled
> 100 um

A

Droplet

135
Q

less than 5 microns
can travel within and beyond 1 meter
can float in air for hours
can be inhaled

A

Aerosols

136
Q

4 types of Influenza viruses

A

ABCD

137
Q

Influenza viruses that circulate and cause seasonal epidemics

A

A and B

138
Q

Currently circulating in humans are
subtype ______ and ______
influenza viruses.

A

A(H1N1) or A(H1N1)pdm09
A(H3N2)

139
Q

Only influenza type that cause pandemics

A

A

140
Q

Influenza virus broken down into lineages

A

B

141
Q

lineages of Influenza B virus

A

B/Yamagata
B/Victoria

142
Q

is detected less frequently and usually causes
mild infections, thus does not present public
health importance

A

Influenza C virus

143
Q

primarily affect cattle and are not known to infect or cause illness in people

A

Influenza D Virus

144
Q

Influenza symptoms begin ____ days after infection and usually
last around a week.

A

1 to 4

145
Q

______ are constantly changing,
making it possible on very rare occasions for
non-human influenza viruses to change in such a
way that they can infect people easily and spread
efficiently from person to person.

A

Influenza A viruses

146
Q

Flu can spread through

A

direct contact
surface contact
air (droplets or dust)

147
Q

Viral infection that attacks the respiratory system

A

Influenza

148
Q

Use antiviral agents within first __ days to treat influenza

A

2

149
Q

__________ should be given only to complications of influenza (pneumonia/otitis media)

A

Antibiotics

150
Q

Meaning of WASH

A

water, sanitation, and hygiene

151
Q

is the only respiratory virus preventable
by vaccination.

A

Influenza

152
Q

Flu risk is reduced ___% by vaccine

A

60

153
Q

Weak or dead bacteria are introduced into the
patient, often by injection.

A

Vaccines

154
Q

In vaccines, _______ are activated to produce
antibodies that fight the disease.

A

WBCs

155
Q

In vaccines, if the microorganism re-infects the person, the
__________ neutralize the invading cells.

A

antibodies

156
Q

He falsely linked MMR Vaccine to Autism

A

Andrew Wakefield

157
Q

“A delay in acceptance or refusal of vaccination
despite availability of vaccination services” -WHO

A

Vaccine hesitancy

158
Q

Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by a bacterium called

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

159
Q

T or F: Not everyone infected with TB bacteria becomes sick.

A

T

160
Q

Infection is acquired by inhalation of M. tuberculosis in _________ and _______

A

aerosols; dust (airborne transmission)

161
Q

has a waxy outer coat that can withstand drying and survive for long periods in air and house
dust

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

162
Q

As few as ____ M. tuberculosis MTB
bacilli are necessary for human infection

A

5

163
Q

T or F: TB is curable via DOTS

A

T

164
Q

The treatment for TB is a combination of ____
anti-TB drugs.

A

3-4

165
Q

Price of TB-DOTS Benefit Package

A

Php 4,000

166
Q

MDR-TB manifests resistance to

A

Isoniazid and Rifampicin

167
Q

XDR-TB manifest resistance to

A

Isoniazid, Rifampicin, any Fluoroquinolone, and Linezolid OR Bedaquiline

168
Q

Most prevalent TB drug resistance

A

Isoniazid

MT 6312 (8 decks)

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