UNIT 2: Hemo Onc practice exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is missing in CGD

A

NAPD Oxidase

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2
Q

What kind of microbes are people with CGD susceptible to?

A

Catalase positive
ex. Staph aureus and aspergillus

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3
Q

Which disease results in extramedullary hematopoiesis with leukoerythroblastic blood smear and why?

A

Primary myelofibrosis

megakaryocytes produce excess PDFG which leads to marrow fibrosis

the other organs now need to help make RBC bc theres no space in the bone marrow

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4
Q

What cells are proliferating predominantly in primary myelofibrosis

A

megakaryocytes in bone marrow

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5
Q

What is aplastic anemia indicated by

A

Lack of cell production in the marrow and low level of marrow derived cells

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6
Q

Do you see extramedullary hematopoiesis in iron deficency anemia

A

NO

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7
Q

What is characterizes Hodgkins lymphoma

A

Proliferation of reed sternberg cells

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8
Q

What are the common symptoms of Hodgkins lymphoma

A

fever, chills, unintentional weight loss, and night sweats

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9
Q

what are some things that are seen in pts with multiple myloma

A

Bone pain with “punched out” lesions
M-spike on electrophoresis (monoclonality)
Bence Jones proteinuria
Rouleaux formation (inc serum proteins)

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10
Q

What antigen is seen in ovarian or other gyn cancers?

A

CA-125

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11
Q

What does high WBCs in UA mean?

A

Infection of urinary tract

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12
Q

What is messed up in Xlinked-Agamma…

A

Brutons tyrine kinase (BtK)- involved in B-cell maturation

B cell cant go bro progenitor B cell to pre Bcell,
therefore low B cell count and NOOOOO antibodies

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13
Q

X-linked Agammaglobulinemia presentation and treatment

A

Presentation: Male with recurrent infections, pneumonia, otitis media, GI problems (giardia)
Treatment: IVIG, prophylactic Abx

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14
Q

What in question can lead to us to Brutons agammaglobinemia?

A

Boy with disease, has boy fam member with same disease (X-linked)

Low B count, normal T cell count

Low serum Ig’s (all types)

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15
Q

Hyper IgE syndrome (Job’s) defect

A

STAT3 gene–> impaired Th17 differentiation–> dec. neutrophil activity to infection site

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16
Q

Job’s syndrome presentation

A

-High IgE
-Cold staph aureus abscesses
-Eczema
-Retained baby teeth “two rows”
-

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17
Q

What is messed up in wiskott aldrich syndrome? and what type of inheritance?

A

WAS gene mutations—> defective WASP—> affects immune cell cytoskeleton

X-linked

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18
Q

Wiskott aldrich syndrome presentation

A

-thrombocytopenia–>inc risk of bleeding
-Eczema
-petechiae
-Recurrent infection
-IgE and IgA inc.
-IgM dec.

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19
Q

What is messed up in Ataxia Telangiectasia

A

ATM gene defect–> defective DNA repair

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20
Q

Presentation of AT

A

Ataxia- involuntary movements
Telangiectasia- small dilated vessels visible on skin

-recurrent infections

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21
Q

What disease is associated with ADA

A

SCID

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22
Q

SCID presentations

A

-persistant muco-cutaneous candidiasis
- recurrent viral infections
-opportunistic pathogen infections (esp. pneumo jiro)
-live vaccines can kill these pt’s
-recurrent diarrhea and failure to thrive
-low T cell count
-Absence of thymic shadow

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23
Q

What CD markers are on NK cells

A

CD56 and CD16

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24
Q

What CD markers are on B cells

A

CD 19, CD 20, CD 21

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25
Q

What CD markers on follicular dendritic cells?

A

CD21

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26
Q

What cells have CD35

A

B cells, RBCs, monocytes

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27
Q

What is the role of CD35

A

help clear antigen:antibody complexes and foreign material from body

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28
Q

what Ig is used for primary antibody response?

A

IgM

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29
Q

What two important molecules are present in breast milk?

A

Vit K and IgA

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30
Q

what is IgG used for?

A

Opsonization and neutralization of bacterial toxins

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31
Q

What kind of drug is Doxorubicin

A

Anthracycline

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32
Q

MOA of Doxorubicin

A

Intercalates between G-C base pairs

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33
Q

What drugs inhibit thymidylate synthase (dUMP –> dTMP)

A

5-flurouracil, pemetrexed, and capecitabine

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34
Q

What drugs inhibit topoisomerase I

A

Topotecan and irinotecan

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35
Q

What does colchicine do?

A

Arrest cells in M phase by interfering with mitotic spindle formation

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36
Q

What drugs inhibit topoisomerase II

A

etoposide and teniposide

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37
Q

What is the most common type of leukemia?

A

Chronic Lymphocytic leukemia

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38
Q

What CD markers are expressed in CLL

A

CD20 and CD 5

-CD5 typically on T cells

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39
Q

What disease contains smudge cells

A

CLL

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40
Q

Leiomyoma =

A

benign neoplasm of smooth muscle

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41
Q

Fibroma =

A

benign neoplasm of fibrous tissue (connective)

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42
Q

Osteosarcoma =

A

Malignant growth of bone

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43
Q

Rhabdomyoma =

A

non-malignant growth of striated muscle

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44
Q

Adenoma =

A

Benign growth of gland type tissue

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45
Q

what does endogenously vs exogenously synthesized mean in terms of antigens

A

Endo means antigen originated from inside cell

Exo means antigen originated from outside cell (bacteria toxin type)

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46
Q

what does methotrexate inhibit?

A

DHFR

which can lead to megaloblastic anemia with hypersegmented neutrophils due to disruption of DNA synthesis

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47
Q

what is AIRE’s function

A

Induce thymic expression of peripheral antigens

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48
Q

What does ADA do

A

Degrades adenosine to deoxyadenosine

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49
Q

What does Checkpoint kinase 1 do

A

detects DNA damage and regulates cell cycle progression

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50
Q

What does WASP do?

A

link signaling pathways to actin cytoskeleton reorganization

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51
Q

What is the triad of symptoms in wiskott aldrich syndrome

A

Thrombocytopenia
Eczema
Recurrent infections

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52
Q

What is the difference between Mycosis fungoides and sezary syndrome

A

Mycosis fungoides has sezary cells in skin rash/nodules/plaques, but DOESNT have sezary cells in bloodstream

Sezary syndrome is when there is sezary cells in the bloodstream

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53
Q

Why kind of cells are proliferation in mycosis fungoides

A

Atypical mononuclear mature CD4 T cells

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54
Q

what disease is associated with t15;17

A

Acute promyelocytic leukemia

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55
Q

What is defective in APL

A

t15;17 leads to defective RAR

leads to blockage of myeloid cell maturation

which causes accumulation on blasts

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56
Q

What lab finding automatically rules out chronic leukemia?

A

BLAST proliferation

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57
Q

What basic principle is seen in multiple myeloma

A

Monoclonal expansion of plasma cells

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58
Q

ALL is proliferation of lymphoblasts or myeloblasts

A

lymphoblasts

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59
Q

what are some lab findings to differentiated ALL and AML

A

ALL- TdT positive
- t12;21
-t9;22 (both translocations associated with B-ALL)

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60
Q

Previous infection of EBV leads to what kinds of cancers?

A

Hodgkins lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinomas, burkitts lymphoma

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61
Q

What kind of cancers are associated with HPV infection

A

cervical, penile, anal, esophageal cancer

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62
Q

Hep C virus can lead to what kind of cancer

A

liver adenocarcinoma

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63
Q

what kind of cancer is HHV-8 associated with

A

Kaposis sarcoma

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64
Q

What disease is associated with Human T- Lymphoblastic Virus infection (HTVL-1)

A

Adult T cell Leukemia/lymphoma

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65
Q

What co-stimulatory signal proteins are needed for T-cell activation

A

B7:CD28 (T cells carry CD28)

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66
Q

What cell markers needed to activate B cell differentiation

A

CD40; CD40L (Ligand on T cell)

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67
Q

What ENHANCES T-cell activation

A

CD2:CD58 (CD58- on APCs)

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68
Q

What does LFA-1 do?

A

Surface protein on leukocytes that binds to ICAM on endothelial cells for adhesion

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69
Q

What are common presentation of Hemophilia A?

A

Deep tissue, joint and post surgery bleeding
Increased PTT
Bruising easily

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70
Q

What is used to treat hemophilia A/B

A

Factor concentrate and desmopressin

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71
Q

What does desmopressin do

A

vasoconstrictor that stimulates vWF

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72
Q

What cytokines contribute to fever? (pyrogens)

A

IL-1
IL-6
TNF-a

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73
Q

What kind of drug is Imatinib?

A

Tyrosine kinase inhibitor

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74
Q

What causes CML

A

t9;22 translocation (Philadelphia chromosome)
BCR-ABL fusion, tyrosine kinase activity increased

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75
Q

What drug is used to treat CML and why?

A

Imatinib. Because its a tyrosine kinase inhibitor. therefore inhibits BCL-ABL

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76
Q

Common presentations of sickle cell anemia

A

Pain crisis (left flank pain, spleen)
Dactylitis
gross hematuria

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77
Q

What MPD’s are associated with JAK2 kinase mutation

A

Polycythemia vera
Essential thrombocythemia
Myelofibrosis

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78
Q

Common presentation of PV

A

Increased platelets, granulocytes, RBCs (major)
ruddy (reddish) complexion
elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit
Headaches and dizziness from inc. blood viscosity
Itching after bathing

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79
Q

What drug is used for anaphylactic reaction? (nut allergy)

A

Epinephrine

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80
Q

What does Epi do?

A

Rapid acting vasoconstrictor and bronchodilator

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81
Q

What drug is an anti-histamine

A

Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

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82
Q

What does Albuterol do?

A

Bronchodilator used for ASTHMA

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83
Q

Recurrent ear infections and pneumonia suggests what? and why is it important?

A

pt is susceptible to encapsulated bacteria, which means theres most likely a defect is opsonization (B cell problem)

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84
Q

What is commonly seen with CGD pt’s?

A

granule formation due to immune system trying to contain catalase positive organisms

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85
Q

What causes increased susceptibility to candida infections?

A

MPO defects

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86
Q

What would be missing in leukocyte adhesion defeciency?

A

Purulent effusions (No neutrophils at infection site)

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87
Q

What should cue me to low platelet count disorders in lab findings?

A

Low platelet count, but normal PT/PTT
(ITP)

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88
Q

What would help me CONFIRM ITP diagnoses

A

Blood smear with low platelets BUT with megakaryocytes

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89
Q

What would a Platelet factor 4 assay test?

A

Heparin Induced thrombocytopenia

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90
Q

What would a ristocetin cofactor assay test?

A

Diagnosis of vWF disease(positive) or abnormal platelet adhesion/aggregation (negative test)

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91
Q

What complement proteins are anaphylatoxin (promotes inflammation) that attracts neutrophils

A

C5a and C3a

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92
Q

What complement protein acts as an opsonin

A

C3b

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93
Q

What complement protein activates classical cascade

94
Q

Elevated homocysteine, normal methylmalonic acid =

A

folate deficiency

95
Q

Elevated homocysteine, elevated methylmalonic acid =

A

Vit B12 deficiency

96
Q

Why would there be low serum ferritin

A

low iron storage

97
Q

Why would there be high TIBC

A

to attempt to recuperate stored iron

98
Q

Why would there be high transferrin

A

to try and promote iron absorption

99
Q

Why does somatic hypermutation occur

A

to reach affinity maturation; to process antibodies with even higher affinity of the original antigen

100
Q

What B cell antibody formation processes occur in the bone marrow PRIOR to antigen exposure

A

Random recombination of heavy and light chains
Allelic exclusion
VDL recombination

101
Q

What is alternative splicing in B cells

A

Process that changes the constant region (Isotype switching) of antibody AFTER the B cell is presented an antigen and activated

DOES NOT CHANGE VARIABLE REGION

102
Q

What type of inheritance is Hyper-IgM syndrome

103
Q

What is messed up in Hyper-IgM syndrome

A

Defective CD40L on T cells—> absence of B cell class switching

104
Q

What lab findings is indicative of Hyper-IgM syndrome

A

Defective CD40L (obvi)
Normal B and T cells
Increased IgM and low IgA,G,E
Normal complement and neutrophils

105
Q

What is CD55

106
Q

What molecule does CD55 (DAF) interact with

A

C3b to inhibit activation/opsonization of host cells

107
Q

What is CD16:Fc region of IgG called

A

antibody dependent cytotoxicity

108
Q

What is CCR5

A

Co receptor on macrophages and CD4 cells for HIV infection (bings Gp120 of virus)

109
Q

Hyperplasia=

A

increase in cell number

110
Q

Hypertrophy=

A

increase in cell size (rather than number)

111
Q

Metaplasia =

A

conversion of one adult cell type to another (squamous –> cuboidal)

112
Q

Dysplasia=

A

abnormal cell growth. can lead to formation of cancer

113
Q

Atrophy

A

decrease in cell size

114
Q

IL-2 receptor gene mutation is associated with what diease

115
Q

What is the type of inheritance of IL-2 receptor gene mutation SCID

A

X-linked recessive

116
Q

What type of inheritance is ADA deficiency

A

Autosomal recessive

117
Q

What type of inheritance is RAG1/2 mutation (Omenn syndrome)

A

Autosomal recessive

118
Q

What do RAG 1/2 do?

A

Recombination Activating Gene
-helps with VDJ recombination

119
Q

What cells are positive for CD14

A

Neutrophils and Macrophages

120
Q

Why is CD14 important

A

CD14 and TLR4 bind to LPS of gram neg bacteria inducing inflammatory response (IL-1,6 and TNF-a)

121
Q

TGF-B main role

A

cytokine involved cell growth, differentiation and apoptosis

122
Q

Terminal deoxynucleotidyl Transferase function

A

TdT.
DNA polymerase that adds random nucleosides to DNA during VDJ recombination

Present in B and T cells

123
Q

IL-10 function

A

anti-inflammatory and regulation cytokine

124
Q

Recombination activating gene 1 function (repeat)

A

-helps with VDJ recombination

125
Q

What mutation is seen in PNH

A

(phosphatidylinositol glycan class A)PIGA gene mutation—> GPI defect—> DAF cant bind–> complement binds to host cells and destroys them

126
Q

What does P-glycoprotein 1 do?

A

A membrane transporter unregulated in cancer cells that pump out chemotherapy drugs

127
Q

Why is expression of E-Cadherin important?

A

It mediated contact inhibition which inhibits cell proliferation

128
Q

What kind of drug is cyclophosphamide

A

Alkylating cancer drug (cross-links DNA strands)

129
Q

What drug can cause hemorrhagic cystitis? and what drug is co-adminstered to make sure this doesnt happen

A

cyclophosphamide

Co-admin: MESNA

130
Q

What platin causes nephrotoxicity the most

131
Q

What drug is co-adminestered to combat nephrotoxicity of cisplatin

A

Amifostine

132
Q

What drug is used to treat heavy metal poisining

A

Dimercaprol

133
Q

What drug is used to prevent thickening of striated muscle due to doxorubicin

A

Dexrazoxane

134
Q

What is contact inhibition

A

Halting cell growth when cell comes into contact with neighboring cell

135
Q

What can bleomycin cause?

A

-skin toxicity (rash, hyperpigmentation)
-pulmonary toxicity (dyspnea, pneumonitis)
-mucositis and stomatitis (inflammation of mouth and lips)
-alopecia

136
Q

Allopurinol MOA

A

Inhibits Xanthine oxidase (no uric acid formation)

137
Q

Why is allopurinol given to prevent kidney damage with chemo treatments

A

Chemo breaks down tumors and they release their contents into bloodstream which can lead to hyperuricemia (plus other things). Allopurinol stops uric acid production and saves the kidney

138
Q

What can cue me to vWF disease

A

Increased bleeding time with NO EASY BRUISING or thrombocytopenia

139
Q

Lab findings for vWF disease

A

Increased PTT, normal PT, Increased Bleeding time due to decreased platelet adhesion/aggre.

140
Q

Explain T0-4 in TNM staging

A

T0= no tumor
T1= small tumor confined in tissue
T2=Larger tumor confined in tissue
T3 = Tumor extends beyond the organ but not into major structures
T4 = Tumor invades nearby structures

141
Q

Explain N0-3 in TNM staging

A

N0 = No lymph node involvement
N1 = A few nearby lymph nodes involved
N2 = More lymph nodes involved, further from primary tumor
N3 = Extensive lymph node involvement

142
Q

Explain M0-1 in TNM staging

A

M0 = No distant metastasis
M1 = Distant metastasis present (e.g., lung cancer spreading to the brain)

143
Q

What causes Beta thalassemia major

A

mutations in both B globin chain genes which leads to hypochromic, microcytic hemolytic anemia

144
Q

What does Beta thalassemia major present with

A

Children demonstrate failure to thrive early in life.

Bone marrow biopsy shows frontal bossing (crewcut appearance) due to RBC production expanding to head bones

Hepatosplenomegaly

dark urine

Target cells

145
Q

What does G6PD deficiency present with

A

Hemolytic anemia
jaundice
dark urine
fatigue and anemia
Hienz bodies

146
Q

What causes hereditary spherocytosis

A

defects in cytoskeletal anchoring proteins such as ankylin and spectrin

Results in hemolytic anemia due to increased RBC fragility

147
Q

What does hereditary spherocytosis present with

A

Pale skin
Jaundice and splenomeg.

148
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reactive involves T cells and macrophages with NOOO antibodies

A

Type 4 (delayed)

149
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is is post streptococcal glomerulonephritis

150
Q

What are codocytes

A

Target cells

151
Q

What type of hypersensitivity rxn is atopic dermatitis (Eczema)

A

Type 1- dry, red, itchy skin

152
Q

what cells are predominantly found in medullary chords of lymph nodes

A

Plasma cells and macrophages

153
Q

what cells are predominantly found in medullary sinuses of lymph nodes

A

reticulocytes and macrophages

154
Q

IL-8 function

A

Proinflammatory cytokine that acts as a chemoattractant for neutrophils

155
Q

What is cachexia

A

EXTREME muscle fatigue weakness (muscle wasting)

156
Q

What cytokine mediates cachexia

157
Q

What state is bone marrow in during aplastic anemia

A

Hypocellularity

158
Q

Mitotic inhibitor drugs

A

Vincristine
Vinblastine
Taxanes (-taxal ending)
-pactitaxel
-docetaxel
-cabazitaxel

159
Q

Side effects of paclitaxel

A

Anemia, hair loss, numbness and tingling of hands and feet (peripheral neuropathy)

160
Q

What kind of drugs are associated with hand foot syndrome

A

Pain,redness and swelling in palms of hands and feet.

Thymidylate synthase inhibitors
(5 fluorouracil)

161
Q

What long does anti HIV antibodies to form after infection

162
Q

What NRTI is used to treat neonates and pregnant mothers

A

Zidovudine

163
Q

Side effects of Zidovudine

A

Anemia, Agranulocytosis (dec.), myelosupression

164
Q

What does chikungunya virus cause

A

-maculopapular rash (flat and raised skin rash)
-Arthralgia;multiple joint pain

165
Q

What does Zika cause

A

Mild symptoms in adults who are asymptomatic

Symptomatic pts
-conjunctivitis
-Microcephaly in neonates with vertical transmission
-Guillain Barre syndrome

166
Q

What does Yellow fever virus cause

A

-jaundice
-bloody diarrhea
-hemorrhagic fever leading to bleeding diathesis

167
Q

What does west nile fever cause

A

Encephalitis
Meningitis
Acute flaccid paralysis
Neurological dysfunctions (seizures, parkinson’s like symptoms

168
Q

Does sudden onset (acute) fever, chills, headache and chills come from bacterial or viral infections

A

Bacterial

Viral usually causes slower onset

169
Q

Does PAINFUL LAD compared to tender LAD make a difference characterizing the type of infection?

A

Yes. Typically tender LAD is viral infection

Painful LAD (bubos) is caused by yersinia pestis (bubonic plague). A gram - bacillus

170
Q

Which bacteria has bipolar coloration on wayson stain

A

Yersinia spp.

171
Q

Which bacteria has “ghost cells” on gram stain

A

Mycobac. Turburcolosis

172
Q

What bacteria has round encapsulated yeast organisms on india ink stain

A

Cryptococcus spp

173
Q

MOA of amphotericin B and nyastatin

A

Binds ergosterol and pokes holes in fungal cell membrane

174
Q

MOA of flucytosine

A

Halts RNA and DNA synthesis by acting as a Uracil analog

175
Q

What do amphotericin and flucytosine combo treat

A

Cryptococcus infections

176
Q

What major side effect is seen with amphotericin B medication

A

Kidney toxicity

177
Q

Common side affects of NNRTI’s

A

GI upset, rash, and liver toxicity

178
Q

What does echinocandins treat and how does it work

A

Candidiasis and aspergillus infections by inhibiting glucan synthesis of fungal cell walls

179
Q

what pathogen usually infects pt with AIDS, pneumonia with ground glass appearance

A

Pneumo jiro

180
Q

pt with pneumonia that has ground class appearance that is immonocomprimised

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

181
Q

If question stem is talking about chemo therapy, bone marrow transplant.. what are they trying go tell you about the pt

A

They are immunocompromised and can develop infections easily. espicially from opportunistic pathogens

182
Q

What are the opportunistic fungi

A

Candida albicans
Aspergillus fumigatus
Pneumocystis jirovecii
Cryptococcus neoformans
Mucor and Rhizopus

183
Q

What does a mucor and rhizopus infection present with

A

headache
vision changes
sinus congestion
necrotic lesions on nose or mouth

183
Q

What do cryptococcus infections present as

A

Lung infections (bubble appearance) that disseminate and cause meningitis

184
Q

What does sputum mean?

A

Mucus or phlegm from pulmonary tract

185
Q

What does aspergillus infections usually present with

A

Pulmonary problems(mainly)
-pneumonia (cough)
-hemoptysis
Kidney problems
heart problems
Brain abscesses

186
Q

What is Langerhans cell histiocytosis

A

Proliferation of skin dendritic cells that causes a rash

187
Q

What cell markers are present in langerhans cell histiocytosis

A

CD1a+ and S-100+

188
Q

What are birbeck granules

A

“Tenis-racket” granules present in langerhans cell histiocytosis

189
Q

What does burkitts lymphoma present with

A

Extranodal swelling usually seen in haw region due to B cell proliferation linked to EBV infection

190
Q

What is osteomyelitis

A

Infection of the bone. INFECTION

191
Q

What lab values are elevated during an infection

A

CRP—> inflammation
ESR due to inc. fibrinogen

Both APR’s produced during infection

192
Q

t8;14

A

Burkitts

c-myc (cell growth)

193
Q

t11;14

A

MANTLE CELL LYMPHOMA

cyclin D1

194
Q

t14;18

A

follicular lymphoma

Bcl2

195
Q

t12;21

196
Q

t9:22

A

CML - BCR ABL (inc. mature granulocytes)

197
Q

What does painful LAD mean

A

Infection is occurring. either viral or bacterial

198
Q

What does painless LAD mean

A

Lymphoma occuring

199
Q

What type of antibody attacks RBCs in transfusions when blood types are different

A

IgM. anti A and/or B antibodies

200
Q

What type of antibody attacks RBCs in transfusions when Rh is different

A

IgG. anti-Rh antibodies

201
Q

If pt with syphilis is allergic to penicillin what drugs are given

A

Doxycycline or Tetracycline

202
Q

What is Factor V Leiden deficiency

A

Mutated Factor V that lacks binding site for Protein C (anti-coag)

Leads to hypercoagulable state

203
Q

What is the most important prognostic value in tumor staging (TNM)

A

METASTASIS
either M0 or M1, very important

204
Q

What is leucovorin

A

A drug that serves as a folate analog

205
Q

When is leucovorin used and why?

A

During chemo therapy with methotrexate

Methotrexate can cause folate deficiency and lead to megaloblastic anemia. Leucovorin bypasses this which fixes megaloblastic anemia

206
Q

Rewatch babesia sketchy

207
Q

What bug has the maltese cross on blood smear

A

Babesia spp

208
Q

What is the vector for babesia

209
Q

What diseases do mosquitos transmit

A

Malaria
Dengue
Yellow fever
Chikungunya
Zike
West nile fever
Hep C

210
Q

What diseases do fleas transmit

A

Yersinia pestis (infected rodent–>flea—>human)
-bubonic plague

211
Q

What symptoms occur during a transfusion acute intravascular hemolytic anemia and how fast does it occur

A

Fever
Hypotension
Flushing
Wheezing
Anxiety
Red colored urine and plasma (hemolysis)

Within minutes to hours

212
Q

What symptoms occur during a transfusion delayed extravascular hemolytic anemia and how fast does it occur

A

Milder symptoms compared to acute

Occurs 3-10 days after tranfusion

213
Q

What is a febrile reaction due to blood transfusion present as

A

Same symptoms as acute but no hypotension or blood in urine or plasma (no hemolysis)

214
Q

What is an allergic reaction due to blood transfusion present as

A

Manifests as urticaria; rarely as anaphylaxis

215
Q

what marker is essential to know if a tumor is benign or malignant

A

Monoclonality= Malignant
Polyclonality=Benign

216
Q

If symptoms of malaria are severe then which strain caused it

A

Falciparum

217
Q

Are lymphomas acute

A

NOOOO they happen overtime, but can be aggresive

218
Q

What cells are infected by HIV and what are the differences

A

Macrophages- carry virus to lymph nodes, across blood brain barrier and can live silently within tissues for decades

Dendritic cells- carry virus to nodes but doesnt leave nodes

CD4 cells- Cells undergo lytic infection and have short lifespans

219
Q

What do hypochronic RBCs in iron deficiency anemia look like

A

Cells with HUGE white cytoplasm

220
Q

Go over in house HIV lectures

A

BRUHHHHHHHHHHHHHHHH

221
Q

What kind of drug is Raltegravir

A

Integrase inhibitor

222
Q

What kind of drug is Maraviroc

A

HIV gp120 inhibtior (viral attachment)

223
Q

What kind of drug is Enfuvirtide

A

HIV gp41 inhibitor (viral fusion)

224
Q

What is a typical presentation of someone with parvovirus B19 infection

A

Erythema infectiosum- cheeks look as if someone slapped them

225
Q

what is the most common target for genetic alterations in human neoplasms

A

p53 gene (dna damage response)
-mutation can be inherited

226
Q

What cancers are seen with APC gene mutations (tumor supressor)

A

Colon cancer and familial polyposis coli

227
Q

what is TACO

A

Transfusion associated circulatory overload

228
Q

What symptoms are seen in TACO

A

Pulmonary dyspnea, hypertension, pulmonary edema

229
Q

What symptoms does Dengue fever cause

A

Myalgia
Fever
Erythematous maculopapular rash
Bone pain
(No joint pain)

230
Q

GO OVER HIV GRAPH AND SCREENINGS

A

fuck med school

231
Q

What does elevated serum LDH indicate

A

Cell breakdown