Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Microbiology > Unit 2 > Flashcards

Unit 2 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Why does DNA replication, transcription and translation in bacteria provide targets for antibiotics?

A

Because even though the process is relatively the same, different enzymes are responsible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are three ways in which bacteria can be naturally resistant? Only a few types of bacteria are naturally resistant.

A
  1. mycolic acid
  2. drug efflux pumps
  3. secretion of toxins and antitoxins (so that they aren’t harmed by their own toxins)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How can bacteria become resistant to antibiotics?

A

mutations can occur in their genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Beneficial mutations (like antibiotic resistance) are _____ times less common than detrimental mutations

A

100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are three ways by which the problem of antibiotic resistance has reached its current scale?

A
  1. binary fission
  2. natural selection
  3. gene transfer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are two ways in which natural selection is promoted in bacteria?

A
  1. overuse of antibiotics in humans

2. use of antibiotics in animal feed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Is gene transfer among bacteria rare?

A

No, it is rampant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is transposase?

A

an enzyme that allows for the splicing in and out of a bacterial chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is an F plasmid?

A

A fertility plasmid, it causes the bacteria to sprout pili and it promotes conjugation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is conjugation?

A

Both the donor and the recipient are alive. Hollow pili (sex) mediate attachment and a copy of the F plasmid is made and sent through the pili to the recipient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Does conjugation occur during DNA replication?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How long does it take for conjugation to occur?

A

10 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is transduction?

A

The process by which a donor cell with an AB resistant gene is infected with a virus that splices into and out of the chromosome taking the AB resistant gene with it. The virus will eventually cause the cell to lyse. The viral DNA will be released and can splice into another cells chromosome giving them the AB resistant gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do viruses avoid exonucleases if they are linear segments of DNA?

A

They fold their ends in order to appear circular.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In transformation how are other bacteria aware of the fact that the bacteria has died?

A

The ATP spilled out with the rest of its contents acts as a signal to let them know that genes are available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do the live bacteria “pick up” the lysed cells genes?

A
  1. secrete autolysin (which creates holes in their cell membrane)
  2. secrete endonuclease which cut up the chromosome
  3. They insert a DNA binding protein into their plasma membrane
  4. They express an eclipse complex (like carrier proteins)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is an operon?

A

gene sequences that are found together and code for a protein that can be turned on or off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a repressor? What does it do?

A

It is a protein that attaches to operator sequences in order to stop the synthesis of certain proteins/products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Inducible operons

A

default off, nutrient attaches to repressor to turn it on, when the enzyme is needed to act on this nutrient. break things down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Repressible operons

A

default on, when there is nutrient available and it doesn’t need to be synthesized a repressor will bind to turn these off. synthesize things

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Constitutive operons

A

Always on, because they are for things that the cell will always need

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What would be a good way to regulate constitutive operons?

A

Antibiotic could fit and act as a repressor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Are fungi procaryotic or eucaryotic?

A

They are eucaryotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What intracellular components make up fungi?

A

true nucleus, numerous organelles, cell wall, and ergosterol in PM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is a fungal cell wall made up of?

A

chitin and glucan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a colony of fungi called?

A

a thallus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Most of the cells in a thallus are haploid or diploid?

A

haploid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the two forms in which fungal forms grow?

A

Filamentous and yeast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the name of a fungal colony growing end-to-end in a filament?

A

a hyphae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a ceonocytic hypha?

A

It is a hyphae in which the cytoplasms of the cell are connected, making it essentially a single, continuos hypha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How are nutrients diffused in a hypha?

A

By diffusion, capillary action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How do hyphae elongate?

A

mitosis and cytokinesis, at their tips not their bases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does it mean to say that fungi can reproduce by fragmentation?

A

Any part of a hypha with a nucleus is capable of initiating a new colony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Hyphae bundle to form thicker strands called _________

A

mycelia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Vegitative mycelia

A

grow into underlying nutrient source, with are absorbed and easily shared with other cells in the thallus bc their cytoplams are connected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Reproductive mycelia

A

grow upwards and produce reproductive spores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What does the yeast form of fungi look like?

A

unicellular and spherical, without mycelia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How do yeast cells reproduce?

A

by budding - form a bulge on outer surface where a nucleus copy and starter set of organelles are placed which then pinch off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are reproductive spores?

A

they are dormant and resistant (pigmented) - stored in sporangium (full of individual spores)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is histidine kinase?

A

It mediates between the two forms of fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What does it mean to say that fungi are dimorphic?

A

that they can grow in two different forms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When would a fungi grow into a filamentous or yeast form?

A

amount of N and glucose as well as temp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What type of molecules to fungi need in order to grow?

A

Only organic, extremely versatile, any organic molecule will do. But they need frequent or occasional exposure to water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What strange types of things can be metabolized by fungi? With the addition of a little bit of water

A

soap scum, damp leather, paint, vinyl, drywall (cellulose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What does it mean to say that fungi digest externally?

A

They secrete enzymes into their environment which digest the material into subunits which are then absorbed into the fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Fungi are primarily to responsible for decomposing ________________ which they break down into _____________

A

dead plant material, sugars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What type of digestive enzymes do fungi secrete?

A

cellulase and pectinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Fungi are mostly anaerobic or aerobic?

A

aerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

yeasts are facultative _____________

A

anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

If O2 is available

A

yeast will metabolize CHO by aerobic respiration to CO2 and H20 using O2 as a final e- acceptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

If O2 is unavailable

A

yeast will ferment CHO forming ethanol and H20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What type of pH do fungi prefer?

A

they prefer acidic environments 5.6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Why are fungi resistant to desiccation?

A

Because of their cell wall. They can grow at low moisture levels and in high salt/sugar conc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the generation time of fungi?

A

2 hours at 23 degrees C, 1 hour at 37 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What types of cells produce asexual spores?

A

single haploid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Fragments of hyphae are more or less resistant to the environment than vegetative hyphal cells? Why?

A

More, because the have a thickened cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the simplest and least elaborate type of spore?

A

fragments of hypha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is a sporangium?

A

It is a sac in which hundreds of spores form at the end of a reproductive hypha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How do the spores in a sporangium form?

A

One cell divides repeatedly by mitosis with all daughter cells becoming spores, which are then encased in a sac which eventually ruptures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What other types of spores do reproductive hypha produce besides sporagium?

A

chains of spores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How are sexual spores produced?

A

By the fusion or combining of genetically dissimilar parents from two different hyphae colonies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The parent cells are __________ and the zygote is _________ in sexual spore production

A

haploid, diploid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

If the zygote divides by mitosis before undergoing meiosis, how many haploid spores are produced per diploid cell?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

sexual spores germinate into what?

A

haploid hyphal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

sexual spores contain ____________ chromosome combinations than their parents which is beneficial

A

different

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are mycoses?

A

human diseases caused by fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What does nosocomial mean?

A

hospital-acquired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What percentage of nosocomial infections are fungal?

A

40 %

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the classification of fungal infections based on?

A

How deep into the body the microorganisms penetrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Superficial mycoses

A

It is on the surface of the skin only, filamentous form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Cutaneous mycoses

A

mycelia (hyphas) growing into the keratinized, dead cells of the skin, to absorb nutrients the fungi secrete keratinase, filamentous form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are examples of cutaneous mycoses?

A

ring worm and athletes foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Subcutaneous mycoses

A

infection beneath the skin, spores would have to have been directly implanted by a cut or puncture, yeast form.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Systemic mycoses

A

Can affect any and all of the body tissues and organs, because they are being carried by the bloodstream, yeast form.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How are most systemic mycoses contracted?

A

By inhaling spores which then germinate in the alveoli, and can then pass into the bloodstream b/c of the narrow boundary between the alveoli and capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What type of fungi cause histoplasmosis?

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Describe histoplasmosis

A

It is a pulmonary infection that is only symptomatic in people with weak or underdeveloped immune systems most people are exposed by age 20 (can cause pneumonia or TB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Where are Histoplasma capsulatum normally found?

A

In bird droppings, because they provide organic material, water, and an acidic environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How do histoplasma capsulatum yeast survive being phagocytosed?

A

The yeast cells chelate (adsorb) the Ca+2 in the phagosome, which is what activates its degradative enzymes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What type of fungi cause cryptococcal meningitis?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Describe cyrptococcal meningitis

A

The fungi are inhaled and then pass into the bloodstream where they can then pass into the meninges (subarachnoid space)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

How could cryptococcus neoformans cause encephalitis?

A

By crossing over the pia mater and into the nervous tissue of the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are two drugs that have been used to treat cryptococcal meningitis?

A

amphotericin B - attaches to ergosterol and rips it out of the PM (problem, it can rip cholesterol out of human cells PM). AND fluconazole - which blocks the synthesis of ergosterol, inhibiting growth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What type of fungi cause candidiasis?

A

Candida albicans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Are candida albicans part of the body’s normal flora?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What type of mycosis is candidiasis classified as?

A

superficial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is the cascade of events of Candida albicans leading to symptoms?

A
  1. eliminate competing MO’s
  2. This leads to an overgrowth of yeast
  3. The fermentation byproducts of yeast leads to host cell damage
  4. The host cell damage leads to inflammation
  5. Inflammation leads to a limiting of the spread of damage as well as the swelling
  6. swelling presses on nearby nerves causing pain or itching symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

How is the elimination of competing organisms (leading to candidiasis) caused?

A
  1. antibiotics - natural selection
  2. lack of competing bacteria - newborns
  3. alterations in acid or sugar in mucus
  4. suppression of the immune system - chemo, cancer, malnutrition, AIDS, anti-rejection drugs (transplant)
89
Q

What are the 4 treatment options four candidiasis and how do they work?

A
  1. anesthetics - block pain (benzocaine)
  2. anti-inflammatory - block inflammation (thereby promoting spread of damage)
  3. antimicotic - blocks ergosterol synthesis, killing the fungi (miconazole - superficial administration)
  4. experimental probiotic therapy - introduce competing MO’s
90
Q

Which is the only fungi that does not have ergosterol in the cell wall, but has cholesterol instead?

A

Pneumocystis carinii

91
Q

What type of infection do Pneumocystis carinii cause?

A

Pneumocystic pneumonia

92
Q

Describe Pneumocystic pneumonia

A

It is easily defeated by a healthy immune system. Nearly the entire lungs fill with fluid making it rapidly fatal in those with weakened immune systems - AIDS

93
Q

What size are protozoans?

A

5-15 micrometers

94
Q

What is the general structure of a protozoan?

A

A nucleus, a micronucleus, cilia, no cell wall

95
Q

Why do protozoans not have cell walls?

A

Because it interferes with their ability to phagocytose

96
Q

Why are parasitc protozoans facultative anaerobes?

A

Because the host has plenty of nutrients for them to survive using only glycolysis

97
Q

How do protozoans reproduce asexually? (2 ways)

A

By binary fission or budding

98
Q

How do protozoans reproduce sexually?

A

By conjugation - in which their haploid micronuclei are exchanged

99
Q

What are the two most common forms that a protozoan can be found in?

A
  1. trophozoite - active and feeding

2. cyst - inactive (dormant) and resistant

100
Q

Protozoan cysts have a cell wall made up of what?

A

chytin

101
Q

What type of protozoan causes amoebic dysentery?

A

Entamoeba histolytica (intestinal amoeba tissue lysing)

102
Q

How do E. histolytica cysts make it into the small intestine?

A

They are swallowed, and they are resistant to stomach acid

103
Q

What do the Entamoeba histolytica in the small intestine?

A

They undergo mitosis three times to produce eight trophozoites, because there are plenty of nutrients available

104
Q

How is it that Entamoeba histolytica produce ulcers? What shape are these ulcers?

A

They attach themselves to the intestinal wall and digest their way into it. As they reproduce they release lytic enzymes which create ulcers. They are flask-shaped due to the expanding population of protozoans.

105
Q

Why do Entamoeba histolytica result in dysentery?

A

Because they block water reabsorption, this allows them to spread.

106
Q

Why could dysentery be fatal?

A

Because up to 9.2 Liters of water could be lost a day, and that water is coming from the blood stream which results in a drop in blood volume -> drop in blood pressure -> can be fatal

107
Q

What are the three parts of infectious disease spread?

A
  1. reservoir 2. route of transmission 3. susceptible host
108
Q

Can a bacteria makes its way into a host by being inside of a trophozoite/cyst?

A

Yes

109
Q

What is the name of the protozoan that causes toxoplasmosis?

A

Toxoplasma gondii

110
Q

What do Toxoplasma gondii look like?

A

They are cresent-shaped

111
Q

What is the primary host (reservoir) of Toxoplasma gondii?

A

Cats

112
Q

How can a person become infected with Toxoplasma gondii?

A

Change litter box -> fail to wash hands -> end up ingesting cysts. Will only be symptomatic is immune system is weak

113
Q

What type of cells do Toxoplasma gondii cells often infect ?

A

They live inside of macrophages

114
Q

Why is it super important for a pregnant woman to not change a cat’s litter box?

A

Because she could ingest cysts which would be asymptomatic in her, but could cause brain damage in the baby, and possibly even a miscarriage

115
Q

What type of symptoms do people infected with Toxoplasmosis generally display? What is the greatest danger?

A

Mononucleosis-like symptoms. The greatest danger is a CNS infection.

116
Q

What are the CNS symptoms in AIDS patients with toxoplasmosis?

A

paralysis, confusion, vision or hearing loss, possibly coma

117
Q

What type of protozoan causes Giardiasis?

A

Giardia intestinalis (used to be Giardia lamblia)

118
Q

How is Giardiasis transmitted? (give 3 specific routes)

A

Via a fecal - oral route

  1. poor water treatment
  2. lack of hygiene in daycare workers
  3. drinking out of a stream while hiking.
119
Q

What is metronidazole for?

A

It is used to treat severe cases of Giardiasis

120
Q

What is the structural composition of Giardia intestinalis?

A

They flat and light bulb shaped. With two full-sized nuclei and 4 pairs of flagella. They have no mitochondria, or micronucleus. They have an adhesive disk on their outer surface.

121
Q

Will Chlorinated water be likely to have Giardia intestinalis in it?

A

There is a large chance that it will, because Giardia intestinalis are relatively resistant to chlorine.

122
Q

What is the morbidity rate of Giardiasis?

A

> 60 %

123
Q

What is the mortality rate of Giardiasis?

A

< 0.1 %

124
Q

How and where is the adhesive disk of Giardia intestinalis activated after cysts have been ingested by the host?

A

They are activated by trypsin in the small intestine

125
Q

What is the incubation period of Giardiasis?

A

1 - 4 weeks

126
Q

What are the symptoms of Giardiasis?

A

Vary from mild indigestion and nausea for a few days, up to vomiting, diarrhea, gas and stomach cramps for several weeks

127
Q

How can Giardiasis be prevented? ( 4 ways)

A
  1. water filtration
  2. boil water for 1 min
  3. add a few drops of bleach per quart of water
  4. drugs available (but have side effects)
128
Q

What does the word malaria mean?

A

Bad, air condition

129
Q

What type of protozoans cause Malaria?

A

4 intracellular Plasmodium species, including P. vivax and P. falciparum

130
Q

What is the morbidity rate of Malaria? What is the mortality rate?

A

morbidity - 25 %

mortality - 0.2 %

131
Q

What disease does Malaria predispose a person to?

A

HIV

132
Q

How do Plasmodium sporozoites get into a human host’s bloodstream?

A

Via the female Anopheles mosquito

133
Q

Once inside of the human host, what do Plasmodium sporozoites do?

A

They enter the liver within 10 minutes and rapidly reproduce asexually into merozoites (some become dormant hypnozoites). After 1-2 weeks the liver cells rupture and the merozoites enter RBC’s and become trophozoites

134
Q

What is the cycle involving Plasmodium merozoites, RBC’s and Malaria symptoms?

A

The merozoites enter the RBC’s and become trophozoites and in 2-3 days reproduce from 1-20 trophozoites. This causes the RBC’s to lyse (which is what causes the Malaria symptoms). The merozoites will then enter new RBC’s and the cycle will repeat itself

135
Q

What are the symptoms experienced with Malaria?

A
  1. Cold and Shivering
  2. High Fever (103-106)
  3. Exhaustion
  4. Anemia
  5. Lysed or aggregated RBC’s can cause blood clots
    Symptoms are only exhibited when RBC’s lyse, so every -3 days
136
Q

How is it that a mosquito can pick up the Malaria infection from the human host?

A

Merozoites will begin to reproduce sexually and form gametocytes in the RBC’s. These gametocytes will fuse to the mosquitos intestineand form diploid zygotes. Which then undergo meiosis forming haploid sporozoites and go to the salivary glands of the mosquito

137
Q

What does ACT (artimesinin combination therapy) do?

A

Heme is toxic to Plasmodium trophozoites, but they have a mechanism to block heme. ACT blocks their block, so that they can be destroyed by the heme

138
Q

What is the ACT treatment for Malaria made up of?

A

quinine derivatives (chloroquine and primaquine) and artemesinin

139
Q

What are the two ways of preventing Malaria via the route of transmission?

A
  1. pesticides to kill mosquitos

2. bed nets

140
Q

What are the 3 problems in the way of a vaccine development for Malaria?

A
  1. the protozoan is almost always intracellular
  2. it changes its antigens
  3. RBC’s lack MHCT proteins (immune system receptors)
141
Q

Why is irradiated sporozoites not a practical idea for a Malaria vaccine?

A

It would involve dissecting the salivary glands of mosquitos

142
Q

What vaccine do we have available now for Malaria?

A

RTSS - sporozoite antigen produced by bacteria, the only problem with this is that it is only 35 % effective.

143
Q

What are the parts that make up a virus?

A
  1. tiny wisp of DNA or RNA
  2. capsid (protein coat)
  3. single, single, enzyme or transcription factor
  4. some have a membrane (envelope)
  5. spike proteins
144
Q

Can a virus be treated with an antibiotic?

A

No, because viruses are not formed by the growth and division of another virus, they are entirely resistant to antibacterial antibiotics

145
Q

How do viruses survive with so few intracellular components?

A

They have to obtain all other essential materials from a host cell

146
Q

Which host cells a virus can infect depends on what two things?

A
  1. the right receptors

2. access to those cells

147
Q

How do host cells have receptors for viruses?

A

The spike proteins in the capsid (or envelope) of the virus are complementary to certain proteins in the plasma membrane (or cell wall) of prospective host cell.

148
Q

How small are viruses in comparison to other cells?

A

They are approximately the size of a ribosome.

149
Q

How much DNA does a viral genome have?

A

3000-250000 bases

150
Q

What 3 shapes are possible for a virus to have?

A
  1. helical
  2. polyhedral
  3. complex
151
Q

Are viruses specific in the type of bacteria or host cell that they infect?

A

Yes

152
Q

What is a complex virus made up? How do they infect host cells

A

A polyhedral head, pressurized nucleic acids, a tail core with a sheath, and tail fibers. They attach to the host with the tail fibers and then jab through the cell wall or membrane with the tail core and the nucleic acid which is pressurized, shoots into the cell.

153
Q

What is the first step of viral multiplication in animal and human cells?

A

It’s spike proteins attach to the receptor proteins on the cells PM

154
Q

The second step of viral multiplication is penetration which can be done in what 2 ways?

A
  1. endocytosis of the bound receptors

2. fusion of an enveloped virus to cells’ PM

155
Q

Once inside of the cell, what immediately happens to the viruses?

A

The capsid falls apart and the nucleic acid is released into the cytoplasm or nucleus.

156
Q

How do DNA-containing viruses transcribe their DNA?

A

They use the host cell’s RNA polymerase (DNA-dependent)

157
Q

How many of each virus component is made during viral multiplication?

A

At least 10,000 of each component

158
Q

Viral DNA is replicated using ________ polymerase

A

DNA

159
Q

What is the viral mRNA (transcribed from viral DNA) used for?

A

It is translated by the host cell’s ribosomes into new viral proteins

160
Q

What type of virus is capable of splicing into a host cell’s chromosome?

A

Only double-stranded DNA containing viruses

161
Q

What occurs to ssRNA viruses?

A

The RNA can generally act as mRNA directly and be translated into a number of viral proteins or it will be replicated into more ssRNA to be encapsulated

162
Q

What are endogenis retroviruses?

A

They are harmless viruses, that have no affect on the host cell

163
Q

What is the enzyme used by viral DNA to splice into the host cell chromosome?

A

transposase

164
Q

What are the 3 sources of DNA polymerase that a DNA virus can use to replicate itself?

A
  1. could be available if host cell is replicating its DNA
  2. the virus can force the host cell to express it, using it’s transcription factor
  3. the virus brings it along
165
Q

What is the fate of a dsRNA in a host cell?

A

It will use reverse transposase (which they bring along) to make ssDNA which will become dsDNA using DNA polymerase. From here it can be spliced into the host using integrase. Or it will be encapsidated or be used to produce new viral proteins

166
Q

How does the assembly of viral components to create new viruses occur?

A

It is spontaneous when the cytoplasm is full

167
Q

What are the 2 ways that new virus particles are released from host cell?

A
  1. cell membrane ruptures

2. by budding from the PM, acquiring an envelope in the process

168
Q

What are the 4 causes of a lytic infection (host cell death or lysis)?

A
  1. ruptures in the PM
  2. continual inhibition of host cell RNA and protein synthesis
  3. direct viral damage to host cell (nucleases and proteases)
  4. attack by immune system to kill these “virus factories”
169
Q

What are prions?

A

a protein, that does not contain nucleic acids, but is capable of being infectious even so

170
Q

How are prions spread?

A

By ingesting prion-containing neurons or lymphocytes

171
Q

How can prions be destroyed if they can survive cooking, digesting, and normal autoclaving?

A

They must be autoclaved at extremely hot temperatures or be treated with very potent chemicals

172
Q

Why is it so much worse for prions to infect neurons as opposed to lymphocytes?

A

Because lymphocytes are able to be replaced, but neurons are not.

173
Q

What type of damage do prions cause in neurons?

A

They induce misfolding of their own kind. They force all of the proteins in the neuron that are the same as it to bend into its shape by attaching to it. Eventually fibrils form when the altered proteins all start to stick together

174
Q

Why are fibrils thought to be lethal in neurons?

A

Because they could back up protein synthesis.

175
Q

What is the incubation period of prions?

A

10-20 years

176
Q

What are the names of the different infections caused by prions in various species?

A

mad cow disease -cow, chronic wasting disease - deer and elk, scrapie - sheep, kuru - cannibals, variant Creutzfeld-Jakob disease - humans.

177
Q

What are some other prion type disease?

A

Alzheimers, parkinsons, LouGehrigs, and other neurodegenerate diseases

178
Q

What is the mortality rate of prion diseases?

A

100 %

179
Q

There are _____________ procaryotic cells as eucaryotic cells in the body.

A

as many

180
Q

Where are normal flora typically found?

A

on external as well as some internal body surfaces

181
Q

Normal flora do not cause disease as long as…

A

they are kept in check - by maintaining them in certain locations and quantities

182
Q

What are the 5 locations for normal flora?

A
  1. skin 2. upper respiratory tract 3. mouth 4. large intestine 5. genito-urinary tract
183
Q

What types of microorganisms are normal flora of the skin? How are they kept in check?

A

Staphylococci and Pseudomonas. By the limited nutrient supply, saltiness, acidity, pH and multiple cellular layer of the skin.

184
Q

What type of microorganism is considered normal flora of the upper respiratory tract? How is it kept in check?

A

Staphylococci, the cilia in the lining of the trachea sweep it upward so that it does not fall down towards the lungs.

185
Q

What type of microorganism is considered normal flora of the mouth? How is it kept in check?

A

Streptococci, by the washing action of saliva and skin

186
Q

What type of microorganism is considered normal flora of the large intestine? How is kept in check?

A

Bacteroides, by specific nutrients available, mucus lining of GI tract,

187
Q

What type of microorganism is considered normal flora of the lower genito-urinary tract? How is kept in check?

A

Lactobacillus, flow of urine and its low pH.

188
Q

What are 6 things that normal flora may do?

A
  1. help digest complex nutrients
  2. secrete vitamines
  3. activate drugs
  4. influence weight
  5. cause allegies
  6. compete with pathogenic bacteria
189
Q

What is microbial antagonism?

A

competition of microorganisms for nutrients

190
Q

What does it mean to say that many normal flora are opportunistic?

A

That they are potentially pathogenic (able to cause disease) if left unchecked

191
Q

What are three ways that would cause a normal flora to become pathogenic?

A
  1. if there is a rapid increase in population of one type
  2. if they escape from their normal habitat ( e.g. getting beneath surface to a more nutritious environment
  3. if they expand their habitat ( e.g. nasopharynx to sinuses to middle ear)
192
Q

What is a reservoir?

A

A continual source of microorganism that provides the microorganism with conditions for growth and a means of spreading

193
Q

What are the 2 types of human reservoirs?

A
  1. people with the infection

2. carriers of the infection

194
Q

What does it mean to say that a person is a carrier of an infection?

A

It means that they have the microorganism as a normal flora so they never get the infection but they are capable of transmitting it.

195
Q

What are examples of infectious diseases transmitted from animal reservoirs?

A

Rabies, Toxoplasma Gondii ( toxoplasmosis )

196
Q

What are examples of non-living reservoirs?

A

contaminated water or soil

197
Q

What is an alternating reservoir?

A

I is when a microorganism grows in one location for awhile, then another

198
Q

What are some examples of nosocomial infections?

A

pressure sores, UTI’s, pneumonia, surgical wounds become infected

199
Q

What are iatrogenic nosocomial infections?

A

They are infections caused as side-effects of treatment or by the accidents or incompetence of health workers

200
Q

Which microorganisms are usually common opportunists?

A

S. aureus, E. coli, Pseudomonas, Candida

201
Q

Why are many nosocomial infections antibiotic resistant?

A
  1. gene transfer mechanisms

2. heavy antibiotic use in hospitals

202
Q

What does direct contact with a reservoir include?

A

all kinds of touching, sneezing and coughing

203
Q

What does indirect contact with a reservoir include?

A

a stationary, non-living intermediate = fomite

204
Q

What is a vehicle?

A

it is a moving, but inanimate route of microorganism transmission. Such as water, food, or air.

205
Q

What is a vector?

A

It is a living vehicle, like insects or health care staff.

206
Q

What is the 5 step pattern of infectious diseases?

A
  1. a reservoir is made available
  2. MO’s onto host
  3. MO’s into host
    4 some attach to host cells
  4. the MO’s successfully evade the host’s defenses and begin the periods of an infectious disease
207
Q

What are the 5 periods of infections disease?

A
  1. incubation
  2. prodromal
  3. peak disease
  4. decline
  5. convalescence
208
Q

What is the Threshold of an infectious disease?

A

The critical population of a microorganism in a host for symptoms to occur.

209
Q

What factors contribute to the time of the incubation period of an infectious disease?

A
  1. the # of MO’s
  2. the generation time of the MO’s
  3. the host’s resistance
  4. the threshold required
210
Q

What is epidemology?

A

The study which attempts to determine the cause, or etiology, of an infectious disease

211
Q

According to Koch, what are the 3 rules that must be met to claim that a specific MO causes a specific disease

A
  1. correlation between the disease and the specific MO must be found
  2. the microorganism should cause the disease when given to a healthy organism
  3. a plausible mechanism for how this microorganism causes the disease must be given
212
Q

What are some specific aspects of the microorganism studied in epidemology?

A
  1. the reservoir of the MO
  2. its mode of transmission
  3. its range or pattern of transmission
  4. the extent of its spread
  5. how best to vaccinate everyone
213
Q

What is R0?

A

How many people can each infected person infect

214
Q

How can the route of transmission of an infectious disease be determined?

A

Interviewing people, watching statistics

215
Q

What types of things fall under the range or pattern of transmission of an infectious disease?

A

Is there a geographic, demographic, or genetic pattern? (for example)

216
Q

What does R0 have to be in order for an infectious disease to be considered an epidemic?

A

> 1.5

217
Q

How can the mortality rate of an infectious disease bet determined?

A

No. deaths / No. hospitalized + No. asymptomatic + No. not hospitalized + No. exposed

218
Q

What are the 5 best ways to block the spread of an infectious disease?

A
  1. vaccinate everyone
  2. vaccinate certain people ( contacts of infected person + medical personnel)
  3. prophylactic drugs
  4. block the route of transmission
  5. eliminate the reservoir

Microbiology (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions