Unit 1 Quizzes Flashcards
The area of the lab responsible for studying the cellular components of blood is:
(a) Hematology
(b) Chemistry
(c) Microbiology
(d) Immunohematology
(a) Hematology
A laboratory test that is not performed in-house, but is delivered to a different laboratory to be performed, often due to its complexity, is known as a:
(a) Send Out
(b) Reference Test
(c) Routine Test
(d) Mailed Test
(a) Send Out
Sodium (Na), potassium (K), chloride (Cl), carbon dioxide (CO2), blood urea nitrogen (BUN), serum creatinine, serum glucose, and total calcium are all tests performed by which department:
(a) Chemistry
(b) Hematology
(c) Microbiology
(d) Immunohematology
(a) Chemistry
Which of the following is true in regards to large laboratories:
(a) Large laboratories are generally departmentalized, resulting in specialized areas/rooms of the lab for each of the different specialties.
(b) Large laboratories often have a large test catalog, sometimes upwards of hundreds of tests.
(c) MLS/MLT personnel that work in a large laboratory often specialized in one or two departments within the lab.
(d) All of the above
(d) All of the above
Point of Care Testing can only be performed by an MLT/MLS.
(a) True
(b) False
False
According to CLIA ’88 Point of Care Testing can also be performed by other healthcare personnel, including, nurses, respiratory therapists, anesthesiologist, physician assistants, etc.
What is a scope of practice?
(a) How a stethoscope is used
(b) The job duties assigned by an employer
(c) The procedures, actions, and processes that a healthcare employee is permitted to perform based on their education and professional license
(d) None of the above
(c) The procedures, actions, and processes that a healthcare employee is permitted to perform based on their education and professional license
A new trend in laboratory organization is what is known as the Core Laboratory. This department generally consists of the following departments:
(a) Hemostasis (Coagulation) and Urinalysis
(b) Microbiology and Immunohematology
(c) Hematology, Microbiology, Clinical Chemistry, Immunohematology
(d) Hematology, Hemostasis (Coagulation), Chemistry, and Urinalysis
(d) Hematology, Hemostasis (Coagulation), Chemistry, and Urinalysis
Rank the following according to their education requirements and responsibilities within the lab, with the highest educated person/person with the most responsibilities as number 1.
Medical Laboratory Scientist
Phlebotomist
Laboratory Director
Department Supervisor
Laboratory Director - 1
Department Supervisor - 2
Medical Laboratory Scientist - 3
Phlebotomist - 4
The laboratory staff member that often holds a PhD and is responsible for overseeing all laboratory operations is the:
(a) Department Supervisor
(b) Laboratory Director
(c) Emergency Operations Supervisor
(d) Medical Laboratory Scientist
(b) Laboratory Director
In most states, which of the following is usually the main difference between Medical Laboratory Technicians (MLTs) and Medical Laboratory Scientists (MLSs) in the workforce?
(a) Hours worked
(b) Job duties
(c) Salary
(d) All of the above
(c) Salary
Which of the following is true regarding the board of certification exam and licensure:
(a) Licensure is state regulated.
(b) If a state does not require licensure, the MLS does not need to take the BOC, unless required
by an employer.
(c) If the MLS attended a four year university and majored in MLS, the MLS program must be accredited by NAACLS in order for the MLS to sit for the board of certification exam.
(d) All of the above
(d) All of the above
Which of the following federal laws/regulations was established to ensure that laboratory testing results that are reported are of high quality, regardless of where the testing is performed?
(a) HIPAA
(b) Universal Precautions
(c) CLIA
(d) Chain of Custody
(c) CLIA
True or False: A clinical laboratory must a have CLIA license that corresponds to the level of testing they are performing. (ie. A laboratory with a CLIA certificate for waived testing, cannot perform COVID-19 testing via PCR)
(a) True
(b) False
(a) True
Which of the following agencies is responsible for the accreditation of the UND Medical Laboratory Science program?
(a) NAACLS
(b) ASCP
(c) ASCLS
(d) COLA
(a) NAACLS
The “gold standard” for the board of certification exam is distributed by which organization?
(a) American Medical Technologists (AMT)
(b) National Accrediting Agency for Clinical Laboratory Sciences (NAACLS)
(c) American Society for Clinical Pathology (ASCP)
(d) College of American Pathologists (CAP)
(c) American Society for Clinical Pathology (ASCP)
Which of the following test complexities must be performed by an MLT/MLS according to CLIA ‘88:
(a) Moderate Complexity
(b) Waived
(c) High Complexity
(d) Provider Performed Microscopy
(c) High Complexity
HIPAA stands for:
(a) The Hospital Insurance Profitability and Accountability Act
(b) The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
(c) The Health Inspection Passage and Acceptance Act
(d) None of the above.
(b) The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
An example of a waived test is which of the following:
(a) PCR Test
(b) CBC
(c) Throat Culture
(d) Bedside Glucose
(d) Bedside Glucose
You see your grandmas EDTA tube in the lab you are working in and call her after work to see how her appointment went (that you had no prior knowledge of). This is a violation of:
(a) HIPAA
(b) Universal Precautions
(c) CLIA
(d) Chain of Custody
(a) HIPAA
What is the main role of the American Society of Clinical Laboratory Science (ASCLS)?
(a) Licensing agency
(b) Professional organization (profession advocacy, etc.)
(c) Accrediting agency
(d) Board of Certification exam distributer
(b) Professional organization (profession advocacy, etc.)
Which of the following are the two main governing agencies for laboratory safety?
(a) American Medical Technologists (AMT) and Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
(b) National Accrediting Agency for Clinical Laboratory Sciences (NAACLS) and Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
(c) American Society for Clinical Pathology (ASCP) an American Mediation Technologists (AMT)
(d) Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) and Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
(d) Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) and Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
A written document developed by an employer which states the policies, procedures, and responsibilities that protect workers from health hazards associated with the hazardous chemicals used in that particular workplace is also known as a:
(a) Personal Protective Equipment Program
(b) Chemical Hygiene Plan (CHP)
(c) Exposure Control Plan (ECP)
(d) Hazard Communication Standard
(b) Chemical Hygiene Plan (CHP)
Which of the following is NOT a component of a Chemical Hygiene Plan?
(a) Safety Data Sheets (SDS)
(b) Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)
(c) Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
(d) None of the above
(d) None of the above
Treating every specimen as if it were infectious is an example of:
(a) PPE
(b) Chemical Hygiene Plan (CHP)
(c) Standard Precautions
(d) None of the above
(c) Standard Precautions
The following pictogram associated with the Hazard Communication Standards indicates which of the following hazards?
[Exclamation Mark Pictogram]
(a) Flammable
(b) Irritant
(c) Carcinogen
(d) Acute Toxicity
(b) Irritant
True or False: Wearing gloves is a proper substitute for handwashing.
(a) True
(b) False
(b) False
Personal Protective Equipment (PPE), Proper Sharps Disposal, Biohazardous Exposure Procedure, and Standard Precautions are all components of which of the following:
(a) Exposure Control Plan (ECP)
(b) Hazard Communication Standard (HCS)
(c) Chemical Hygiene Plan (CHP)
(d) Chain of Custody
(a) Exposure Control Plan (ECP)
Which of the following is not a plan mandated by OSHA:
(a) Standard Precautions
(b) Chemical Hygiene Plan (CHP)
(c) Exposure Control Plan (ECP)
(d) Hazard Communication Standard (HCS)
(a) Standard Precautions
What does SDS stand for?
(a) Single Data Sheet
(b) Safety Distinguishing Sheet
(c) Sheet Detailing Safety
(d) Safety Data Sheet
(d) Safety Data Sheet
PPE stands for which of the following:
(a) Proper Personal Equipment
(b) Personal Protective Equipment
(c) Proper Personal Etiquette
(d) Provider Performed Equipment
(b) Personal Protective Equipment
What is the main difference between a Chemical Fume Hood and a Biological Safety Cabinet?
(a) Chemical Fume Hoods protect the personnel using the fume hood, the product within the fume hood, and the environment outside of the fume hood, whereas a Biological Safety Cabinet only protects the personnel using the BSC from the product inside.
(b) Chemical Fume Hoods do not vent air outside of the Fume Hood, whereas Biological Safety Cabinets do.
(c) Chemical Fume Hoods only protect personnel from chemical fumes present in the cabinet, whereas a Biological Safety Cabinet protects the personnel using the BSC, the product within the BSC, and the environment outside of the BSC.
(d) Chemical Fume Hood and Biological Safety Cabinets refer to the same engineering control and can be used interchangeably.
(c) Chemical Fume Hoods only protect personnel from chemical fumes present in the cabinet, whereas a Biological Safety Cabinet protects the personnel using the BSC, the product within the BSC, and the environment outside of the BSC.
The universal symbol denoting infectious materials or agents that present a risk, or even a potential risk, to the health of human beings or animals in the laboratory is known as the __________?
(a) Health Hazard Symbol
(b) Biohazard Symbol
(c) Risk Symbol
(d) Chemical Safety Symbol
(b) Biohazard Symbol
Which of the following denotes a Biosafety Level 3 laboratory?
(a) A laboratory that works with moderate hazards to laboratory staff and the environment, including microorganisms associated with disease.
(b) A laboratory that works with moderate hazards to laboratory staff and the environment, including microorganisms associated with disease that may cause serious or potentially lethal disease through respiratory transmission.
(c) A laboratory that works with organisms that present minimal potential hazard of disease to humans.
(d) A laboratory that works with moderate hazards to laboratory staff and the environment, including microorganisms associated with disease that may cause serious or potentially lethal disease through respiratory transmission, of which there is no treatment or vaccine available.
(b) A laboratory that works with moderate hazards to laboratory staff and the environment, including microorganisms associated with disease that may cause serious or potentially lethal disease through respiratory transmission.
Which of the following is an example of a general infection control practice?
(a) Applying chapstick while in the lab
(b) Mouth Pipetting
(c) Drinking an energy drink in the lab
(d) Standard Precautions
(d) Standard Precautions
Inhalation, percutaneous inoculation, mucous membrane contact with contaminated material, and ingestion are all common routes of exposure to:
(a) Laboratory Acquired Infections
(b) Accidental Needle Sticks
(c) Healthcare-Associated Infections
(d) Antibiotic Resistant Infections
(a) Laboratory Acquired Infections
The majority of common use fire extinguishers are which type?
(a) Dry Powder
(b) Water
(c) Halon
(d) CO2
(a) Dry Powder
Which of the following is true regarding Chemical Fume Hoods:
(a) They must have a HEPA filter
(b) They protect the user, the environment, and the material
(c) They are used when handling infectious biological agents
(d) None of the above
(d) None of the above
The most important aspect of a disinfecting solution is its required____________:
(a) Contact Time
(b) Method of Delivery
(c) Brand
(d) Color
(a) Contact Time
A glass slide would be disposed of in which container:
(a) Biohazard Container
(b) Regular Trash
(c) Sharps Container
(d) All of the above; it does not matter which container they are disposed in.
(c) Sharps Container
Ebola is an example of a virus that can only be handled in which Biosafety Level Laboratory?
(a) BSL-1
(b) BSL-2
(c) BSL-3
(d) BSL-4
(d) BSL-4
Which of the following is a disadvantage of using plastic ware in the laboratory?
(a) Cost
(b) Absorption of dyes, stains, or proteins
(c) Size
(d) Durability
(b) Absorption of dyes, stains, or proteins
The most commonly used type of glass for laboratory grade glassware is:
(a) Borosilicate Glass
(b) Alumina-Silicate Glass
(c) Low-Actinic Glass
(d) Flint/Soda Lima Glass
(a) Borosilicate Glass
The pipette that requires a “blow out” step with a pipette bulb is the____:
(a) Volumetric Pipette
(b) MLA Pipette
(c) Transfer Pipette
(d) Serological Pipette
(d) Serological Pipette
A 50 mL volume being held in an Erlenmeyer flask with a tolerance of 0.05 mL is actually more accurately described as :
(a) 45 mL – 55 mL
(b) 49.95 mL – 50.05 mL
(c) 50 mL – 50.05 mL
(d) 49.5 mL – 50.5 mL
(b) 49.95 mL – 50.05 mL
When using an electronic balance, the first step is to always_____:
(a) Tare or Zero the empty secondary container
(b) Ensure the material to be weighed is in an even layer
(c) Weigh the material directly on the pan of the balance
(d) Weigh another material first
(a) Tare or Zero the empty secondary container
Which of the following is NOT proper centrifuge use?
(a) Tubes should be capped
(b) Allowing a spill to dry prior to future use
(c) Allowing the centrifuge to stop on its own
(d) Ensuring that the tubes being centrifuged are properly balanced
(b) Allowing a spill to dry prior to future use
The type of centrifuge that takes a small sample volume and spreads a layer of cells across a specialized slide is a _________:
(a) Refrigerated Centrifuge
(b) Cytocentrifuge
(c) Ultracentrifuge
(d) Table Top Centrifuge
(b) Cytocentrifuge
The liquid top portion of a centrifuged sample is known as the:
(a) Sediment
(b) Precipitate
(c) Supernatant
(d) Solute
(c) Supernatant
Which of the following is NOT an example of volumetric glassware?
(a) Serological Pipette
(b) Graduated Cylinder
(c) Volumetric Pipette
(d) Beaker
(d) Beaker
The normal range of patient values that includes 95% of the test results for a healthy reference population is known as a(n)______:
(a) Expected Value
(b) Expected Range
(c) Patient Result
(d) Reference Range or Reference Interval
(d) Reference Range or Reference Interval
A substance or mixture for use as a component in chemical analysis or other reaction is known as a _______:
(a) Reagent
(b) Chemical
(c) Calibrator
(d) Control
(a) Reagent
Purchased material from an outside organization (ie. CAP) with unknown values – is used to assess the accuracy of the processes and analysis of certain tests is known as (a) _________:
(a) Quality Control
(b) Proficiency Test
(c) Patient Sample
(d) Control
(b) Proficiency Test
A graphical representation of known standard or calibrator points is known as a __________?
(a) Expected Value
(b) Standard/Calibration Curve
(c) Reference Range
(d) Calibration Interval
(b) Standard/Calibration Curve
A purchased material with known quantitative or qualitative values that is used to correlate the results of an analyzer in order to check the analyzer’s accuracy is known as (a) _____:
(a) Calibrator
(b) Quality Control
(c) Patient Sample
(d) Proficiency Test
(a) Calibrator
A purchased material with a known quantitative range of values (or qualitative value) that is used to confirm the accuracy of a test is known as (a) ________:
(a) Patient Sample
(b) Calibrator
(c) Quality Control
(d) Proficiency Test
(c) Quality Control
Which of the following is NOT required to be documented on an open bottle of reagent, calibrator, or Quality Control material?
(a) Receive Date
(b) Open Date
(c) Expiration Date
(d) All of these dates are required
(d) All of these dates are required
The highest grade of chemical, and one that is usually used in the clinical lab, is known as ______?
(a) Chemically Pure Grade (CP)
(b) Analytical Reagent Grade (AR)
(c) US Pharmacopeia (USP)
(d) Technical or Commercial Grade
(b) Analytical Reagent Grade (AR)
The purification process that passes water through a column containing positively and negatively charged particles, which combine with ions present in the water to remove them, is known as______ :
(a) Purified Water
(b) Deionized Water
(c) Distilled Water
(d) Reverse Osmosis Water
(b) Deionized Water
Which of the following is the most suitable water to use to reconstitute controls?
(a) Tap Water
(b) Clinical Laboratory Reagent Water (CLRW)
(c) Instrument Feed Water
(d) Autoclave/Wash Water
(b) Clinical Laboratory Reagent Water (CLRW)
In terms of microscopy, working distance is defined as:
(a) how small and how close individual objects can be and still be recognized
(b) the distance from an object being examined microscopically to the center of the objective lens of the microscope
(c) the measure of the number of highly diffracted, image-forming, light rays captured by an objective
(d) the distance between the bottom of the objective and the specimen being examined
(d) the distance between the bottom of the objective and the specimen being examined
The most common microscope used in the clinical laboratory is the:
(a) Electron Microscope
(b) DIC Microscope
(c) Compound/Brightfield Microscope
(d) Polarized Microscope
(c) Compound/Brightfield Microscope
The component of the brightfield microscope that directs and focuses the beam of light from the light source onto the material under examination is called the:
(a) Condenser
(b) Rheostat
(c) Objective Lens
(d) Aperature Iris Diaphragm
(a) Condenser
Which of the following is the ONLY objective on which the course focus should be used?
(a) 10x
(b) 40x
(c) 100x
(d) The course focus can be used on all three of these objectives
(a) 10x
Immersion oil must be used on which of the following objectives on a brightfield microscope:
(a) 10x
(b) 40x
(c) 100x
(d) Immersion oil does not need to be used on any of the objectives listed above.
(c) 100x
Microscope objectives should be cleaned using which of the following:
(a) Lens Paper
(b) Kim Wipes
(c) Lens Cleaner
(d) Lens Paper and Lens Cleaner
(d) Lens Paper and Lens Cleaner
The type of microscopy in which the light is slowed down via the use of a specialized condenser and absorption ring fitted into an objective, is known as:
(a) Electron Microscopy
(b) Darkfield Microscopy
(c) Phase Contrast Microscopy
(d) Fluorescence Microscopy
(c) Phase Contrast Microscopy
The type of microscopy commonly used to identify monosodium urate (gout) crystals by observing their birefringent properties is:
(a) Polarized Microscopy
(b) Brightfield Microscopy
(c) Electron Microscopy
(d) Phase Contrast Microscopy
(a) Polarized Microscopy
Which of the following is usually a benefit of using digital microscopy?
(a) Increased efficiency
(b) Increased consistency and standardization of cell ID
(c) Images are saved and can be used for future reference
(d) All of the above
(d) All of the above
Which of the following is true regarding Transmission Electron Microscopy (TEM) and Scanning Electron Microscopy (SEM)?
(a) In TEM, the electron beam bounces off the surface of the specimen whereas, in SEM the electron beam is passed through the specimen.
(b) In TEM, the electron beam is passed through the specimen whereas, in SEM the electron beam bounces off the surface of the specimen.
(c) In TEM, the scattered electrons are focused into a cathode ray tube or photographic plate and visualized as a 3D image.
(d) In SEM, the scattered electrons are focused into a cathode ray tube or photographic plate and visualized as a 2D image.
(b) In TEM, the electron beam is passed through the specimen whereas, in SEM the electron beam bounces off the surface of the specimen.
