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ANPH 1000 > Unit 1 Exam > Flashcards

Unit 1 Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What are some factors that affect metabolic rate?

A

Body size and composition, gender, and age

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2
Q

What are the 5 key hormones which affect appetite?

A

Leptin, peptide YY (PYY), ghrelin, insulin, and cholecystokinin (CCK)

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3
Q

Out of the 5 key hormones which affect appetite, which hormone produces sensations of hunger?

A

Ghrelin

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4
Q

Describe what leptin does

A

Leptin signals to the brain that the body has enough energy and suppresses appetite

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5
Q

Describe the function of peptide YY (PYY) in digestion

A

Signals satiety and prompts to stop eating

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6
Q

Describe the function of ghrelin in digestion

A

Produces sensations of hunger

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7
Q

Describe the function of cholecystokinin (CCK) in digestion

A

Stimulations the secretion of bile and pancreatic enzymes, as well as suppressing appetite

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8
Q

What is the body’s primary energy source?

A

Carbohydrates

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9
Q

Describe monosaccharides

A

Simple sugars which are absorbed through the intestine without being broken down. Include glucose, fructose, and galactose.

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10
Q

Describe disaccharides

A

A type of carbohydrate which is broken down into monosaccharides during digestion. Includes sucrose, lactose, and maltose

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11
Q

Describe polysaccharides

A

A complex carbohydrate which consists of starches found in vegetables, grains, rice, and legumes

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12
Q

Name some ways short-chain fatty acids benefit health

A
  • Promote the growth of beneficial gut bacteria
  • Lower bowel pH
  • Nourishes the bowel epithelium
  • Maintains the integrity of the intestinal mucosa
  • Promoting the removal of dysfunctional cells
  • Lessen the risk for osteoarthritis, obesity, type 2 diabetes, and cardiovascular disease
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13
Q

Why is fat ideal for storing energy

A

It is more compact and energy dense

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14
Q

Describe some key roles of lipids in digestion

A

Enable the absorption of certain vitamins, contributes to cellular structure and insulates and protects the body

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15
Q

What is the difference between complete and incomplete proteins?

A

While complete proteins supply all essential amino acids, incomplete lack one or more

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16
Q

What are water soluble vitamins?

A

Vitamins which are absorbed with water in the small intestine and must be consumed daily due to them not being stored in the body

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16
Q

What are fat-soluble vitamins?

A

Vitamins which are absorbed with dietary fat and are stored in the liver and fat tissues until they are needed

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16
Q

What are minerals?

A

Inorganic substances needed for functions such as nerve conduction, brain functioning, heart contraction, and red blood cell formation

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16
Q

What are some trace minerals?

A

Iron, iodine, selenium, zinc, copper, fluoride, and maganese

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17
Q

What is catabolism?

A

The breaking down of complex substances into simpler ones or into energy (used in the metabolism of carbs and lipids)

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18
Q

Describe anabolism

A

Used in protein metabolism, forming complex substances out of simpler ones

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19
Q

What are the 3 phases of glucose catabolism?

A

Glycolysis, anaerobic fermentation, and aerobic respiration

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20
Q

What happens during glycolysis?

A

One glucose molecule is split into two molecules of pyruvic acid, releasing a small amount of energy

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21
Q

Why is aerobic respiration more preferrable over anaerobic fermentation?

A

Since oxygen is needed for ATP production, aerobic respiration is preferrable as there is more oxygen available

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22
Q

What occurs in anaerobic fermentation?

A

Pyruvic acid is converted into lactic acid, which is stored in the liver until oxygen becomes available and can be converted back into pyruvic acid

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23
Q

What happens during aerobic respiration?

A

Pyruvic acid enters the mitochondria and is converted into acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl CoA). The citric acid cycle and electron-transport chain follows. The end result is the breakdown of glucose into carbon dioxide, water, and large amounts of ATP.

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24
Q

What is glycogenesis?

A

When the amount of glucose in the blood exceeds the body’s needs, hormones stimulate the liver to convert glucose into glycogen, which is stored in the liver

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25
Q

What is glycogenolysis?

A

When blood glucose levels fall, glycogen stored in the liver is broken down into glucose, which is diffused into the bloodstream

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26
Q

What is gluconeogenesis?

A

When the body creates glucose from fats and amino acids in the liver

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27
Q

Describe radiation as a method of the body losing heat

A

Involves the transfer of heat through the air by electromagnetic waves

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28
Q

Describe conduction as a method of the body losing heat

A

Involves the transfer of heat between materials that touch each other

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29
Q

Describe evaporation as a method of the body losing heat

A

As the skin becomes wet, evaporation occurs and heat is drawn from the body

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30
Q

If the body temperature is too hot, what does the hypothalamus do?

A

Signals the cutaneous blood vessels to dilate and for more warm blood to flow close to the body’s surface, resulting in heat being lost through the skin

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31
Q

If the body temperature is too low, what does the hypothalamus do?

A

Signals cutaneous blood vessels to constrict, resulting in warm blood being confined and less heat to be lost through the skin

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32
Q

What are atoms with a positive charge called?

A

cations

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33
Q

What are atoms with a negative charge called?

A

Anions

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34
Q

Describe what a solution is

A

Clear mixture which consists of particles of matter (solute) being dissolved into a more abundant substance like water (solute). Doesn’t separate

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35
Q

Describe what a colloid is

A

A cloudy mixture resulting which can change from liquid to a gel. Can stay permanently mixed

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36
Q

Describe what a suspension is

A

A cloudy or opaque mixture where particles will separate if left to stand

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37
Q

The lower the pH level, the more __ ions

A

H+

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38
Q

The higher the pH level, the more __ ions

A

OH-

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39
Q

Describe some characteristics of saturated fatty acids

A

Consists of carbon atoms saturated with hydrogen atoms, form a solid at room temperature, usually derived from animal sources

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40
Q

Describe some characteristics of unsaturated fatty acids

A

Consists of carbon that is not saturated with hydrogen atoms, liquid at room temperature, called oils, derived from mostly plant sources

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41
Q

What 4 major elements make up 98.5% of the human body?

A

Oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen

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42
Q

Name the 5 types of cells found in the body

A

Nerve, muscle, red blood, gland, and immune

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43
Q

What is the function of the plasma membrane?

A

Defines the boundaries of the cell and regulate passage of substances into and out of the cell

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44
Q

How do phospholipids and proteins impact the structure of the cell membrane?

A

Their slow movement keeps the membrane fluid, which gives it selective permeability

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45
Q

What is cytoplasm?

A

A gel-like substance that fills the space between the plasma membrane and the nucleus

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46
Q

What is the function of ribosomes in the ER?

A

They synthesize proteins which move through the golgi apparatus

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47
Q

What is the function of smooth ER?

A

It contains enzymes which synthesize lipids and carbohydrates

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48
Q

What is the function of the Golgi apparatus?

A

Receives proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum and prepares them for export to other parts of the body

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49
Q

What is the function of centrioles?

A

Play a role in cell division

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50
Q

What is the function of lysosomes?

A

Break down proteins not needed by the cell

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51
Q

How are lysosomes formed?

A

They are formed from pinched-off pieces of the golgi apparatus

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52
Q

What is the function of the mitochondria?

A

Convert organic compounds into ATP

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53
Q

What is the function of the cytoskeleton?

A

Acts as the supporting framework of the cell by determining its shape, giving it strength, and allows the cell to move

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54
Q

What are microvilli?

A

Folds of the cell membrane that increase the surface area of a cell

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55
Q

What are cilia?

A

Hair-like processes along the surface of the cell which beat in waves, moving particles

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56
Q

Name some forms of passive transport

A

Diffusion, osmosis, filtration, and facilitated diffusion

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57
Q

What is osmotic pressure?

A

The water pressure that develops in a solution as a result of osmosis

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58
Q

What is tonicity?

A

The ability of a solution to affect fluid volume and pressure through osmosis

59
Q

What does it mean for a solution to be isotonic?

A

The concentration of solutes is the same as it is in the cell

60
Q

What does it mean for a solution to be hypertonic?

A

Contains a higher concentration of solutes compared with the fluid within the cell

61
Q

What does it mean for a solution to be hypotonic?

A

Contains a lower concentration of solutes compared with the fluid within the cell

62
Q

What is endocytosis?

A

When substances are brought into a cell. Occurs through the plasma membrane trapping a substance that’s too large to diffuse through the plasma membrane and bringing it into the cell

63
Q

What is phagocytosis?

A

A form of endocytosis where the cell engulfs a solid particle and brings it into the cell

64
Q

What is pinocytosis?

A

A form of endocytosis where tiny vacuoles bring droplets of extracellular fluid containing dissolved substances into the cell

65
Q

What is exocytosis?

A

When vesicles release substances outside of the cell

66
Q

Name the 4 types of tissue

A

Epithelial, connective, nervous, and muscular

67
Q

What are the 3 layers of a tissue cell?

A

Ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm

68
Q

What is differentiation?

A

The process that occurs as layers give rise to different types of tissue

69
Q

What is the ectoderm?

A

The outer layer of a tissue cell which gives rise to the epidermis and nervous system

70
Q

What is the endoderm

A

The inner layer of a tissue cell which produces the mucous membrane of the respiratory tract, thyroid gland, and secretory parts of the pancreas

71
Q

What is the mesoderm?

A

The middle layer of a tissue cell which gives rise to connective and muscle tissue including cardiac muscle, skeletal muscle, bone, blood, and smooth muscle

72
Q

What is epithelial tissue?

A

A sheet of tightly packed cells which covers the body’s surface, lines body cavities and many organs, and forms certain glands

73
Q

What are some key functions of epithelial tissue?

A

Protection, absorption, filtration, and secretion

74
Q

What are the 3 cell shapes associated with epithelial tissue?

A

Squamous, cuboidal, and columnar

75
Q

Describe squamous cells

A

Flat, plate-like

76
Q

Describe cuboidal cells

A

Cube shaped, contain more cytoplasm than squamous

77
Q

Describe columnar cells

A

Are higher than they are wide, tall and cylindrical

78
Q

What are simple epithelia

A

In a cell layer, signifies every cell touches the basement membrane

79
Q

What is stratified epithelia

A

Where some cells stack on top of other cells and the upper layers of the cells don’t touch the basement membrane

80
Q

Describe glandular epithelium

A

Collection of epithelial cells specializing in the secretion of a particular substance

81
Q

What are exocrine glands?

A

Glands which secrete their products into ducts, which then empty onto a body surface or inside a body cavity

82
Q

What are endocrine glands

A

Glands which secrete their products, called hormones, directly into the blood

83
Q

What are goblet cells

A

Modified cells containing secretory vesicles which product large quantities of mucus

84
Q

Describe simple squamous epithelium

A

Consists of a single layer of flat, scale-like cells which allow for diffusion of filtration. It is located in the alveoli and the lining of blood and lymphatic vessels

85
Q

Describe simple cuboidal epithelium

A

Consists of a single layer of cube-like cells which secrete and absorbs. Found in ducts and tubules of many organs including the kidneys

86
Q

Describe simple columnar epithelium

A

Consist of a single layer of columnar cells, participates in the absorption and secretes mucus by goblet cells. Lines the intestines

87
Q

Describe pseudostratified columnar epithelium

A

Consists of a single layer of irregularly shaped columnar cells, appears stratified due to its cells being at different heights with nuclei at different levels. Provides protection and secretes mucus

88
Q

Describe stratified squamous epithelium

A

Contains multiple cell layers making it stronger than simple epithelia, most widespread in the body, resists abrasion and penetration, may contain keratin

89
Q

Describe transitional epithelium

A

Consists of multiple cell layers, and when stretched the cell layers decrease and the cell shape changes from cuboidal to squamous

90
Q

Name the 3 types of fibers that may be found in connective tissue

A

Collagenous fibers, reticular fibers, and elastic fibers

91
Q

Describe collagenous fiber

A

Strong and flexible, resist stretching

92
Q

Describe reticular fibers

A

Occur in networks, support small structures such as capillaries and nerve fibers

93
Q

Describe elastic fibers

A

Can stretch and recoil

94
Q

Describe loose connective tissue

A

Fibers are loosely arranged, stretchable, has 3 types (areolar, adipose, and reticular)

95
Q

What are the 3 types of loose connective tissue?

A

Areolar, adipose, and reticular

96
Q

Describe areolar connective tissue

A

Consists of collagen and elastin fibers in a gel-like matrix, lies underneath almost all epithelia

97
Q

Describe adipose connective tissue

A

Dominated by fat cells, forms supporting, protective pads, helps insulate the body

98
Q

Describe reticular connective tissue

A

Consists of a loose network of reticular fibers and cells, forms a framework

99
Q

Describe dense connective tissue

A
  • Consists of closely packed collagen fibers
  • Has very few blood vessels
  • Forms tendons and ligaments
  • May also form bands and sheets which bind organs and muscles together
100
Q

What is cartilage?

A

A type of dense connective tissue which has a rubbery flexible matrix and receives nutrients and oxygens through diffusion

101
Q

What are the 3 types of cartilage?

A

Hyaline, elastic cartilage, fibrocartilage

102
Q

Name some types of dense connective tissue

A

Cartilage, bone, and blood

103
Q

Describe the function of hyaline (connective tissue)

A

Eases joint movement, firm but flexible support

104
Q

Describe elastic connective cartilage

A

Provides flexible support in the ear

105
Q

Describe the function of fibrocartilage

A

Resists compression and absorbs shock

106
Q

Describe some functions of bone

A

Give the body structure, provide support, offer protection to internal organs, make movement possible, store calcium, produce new blood cells

107
Q

Name the two types of cells found in nervous tissue

A

Neurons and neuroglia

108
Q

Name the 3 types of muscle tissue

A

Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth

109
Q

Describe skeletal muscle

A

Consists of long, thin cells (muscle fibers), may be striated or voluntary, makes body movements possible, responsible for breathing, speech, control of urination, and facial expressions

110
Q

Describe the function of cardiac muscle

A

Only found in the heart, involuntary, joined together with intercalated discs which allow electrical impulses to spread rapidly and permits simultaneous stimulation and contraction

111
Q

Describe smooth muscle

A

Consists of long spindle-shaped cells, stimulated by the autonomic nervous system, not voluntary, controls the diameter of blood vessels

112
Q

What are the two ways tissue can repair itself?

A

Regeneration and fibrosis

113
Q

What are the two types of membranes?

A

Epithelial and connective

114
Q

What are the 3 types of epithelial membranes?

A

Mucous, cutaneous, and serous

115
Q

Describe mucous membranes

A

Line body surfaces which open to the body’s exterior, secretes mucus which coats and protects cells of the membrane, acts as a lubricant, traps dust and bacteria

116
Q

Describe cutaneous membranes

A

Known as the skin, consists of a layer of epithelium resting on a layer of connective tissue

117
Q

Describe the serous membrane

A

Composed of simple squamous epithelium resting on a thin layer of areolar connective tissue, lines some closed body cavities and cover many organs, secretes serous fluid

118
Q

What are joints?

A

Points where bones meet

119
Q

What are fibrous joints?

A

Fixed joints that are bound by fibers which result when the fibers from one bone penetrate the adjacent bone

120
Q

What are cartilaginous joints?

A

Semi-movable joints joined by cartilage

121
Q

What is a joint capsule

A

Located in synovial joints, extends from the periosteum of each of the articulating bones. Consists of a sheet of connective tissue which encloses the joint cavity

121
Q

Describe synovial joints

A

Freely movable joints which contain a fluid-filled capsule

122
Q

What is a synovial membrane?

A

A moist, slippery membrane which lines the inside of the joint capsule and secretes synovial fluid

123
Q

Describe joint cavities

A

A small space between bones which allows for freedom of movement and contains synovial fluidWhat

124
Q

What is synovial fluid

A

A slippery, viscous fluid which lubricates the joint, nourishes the cartilage, and contains phagocytes which remove debris

125
Q

What is articular cartilage?

A

In a synovial joint, is a thin layer of hyaline cartilage which covers the bones surface and, in combination with the synovial fluid, permits friction-free movement

126
Q

What are bursae?

A

Small sacs filled with synovial fluid which facilitate movement and ease friction

127
Q

Describe ball-and socket joints and where they can be found

A

Ball-shaped head of one bone fits into a cup-like socket of another bone, offering wide range of motion. Found in the shoulder and hip joints

128
Q

Describe a pivot joint

A

Projection from one bone articulates with a ring-shaped socket of another bone, allowing bones to rotate or pivot

129
Q

Describe a hinge joint

A

Allows back-and-forth movements as the convex surface of one benefits into a concave depression of another bone.

130
Q

Describe a saddle joint

A

Surface of bones are concave in one direction, convex in the other, allowing bones to move back to forth and side to side

131
Q

Describe condyloid joints

A

Oval convex surface of one bone fits into a similarly shaped depression on another, allowing flexion and extension as well as side-to-side movement

132
Q

Describe gliding joints

A

Two bone surfaces which slide over each other, allowing for limited movement

133
Q

What is flelxion?

A

Bending of a joint to decrease the angle of a joint

134
Q

What is extension

A

Straightening a joint to increase the angle between bones

135
Q

What is hyperextension

A

The extreme extension of a joint beyond its straight position

136
Q

What is dorsiflexion?

A

Moving the toes or foot upward

137
Q

What is plantar flexion?

A

Moving the toes or foot downward toward the plantar surface

138
Q

What is abduction?

A

Movement of a body part away from the midline

139
Q

What is adduction?

A

The movement of a body part toward the midline

140
Q

What is circumduction?

A

When the distal end of an appendage moves in a circle

141
Q

What is internal rotation?

A

When a bone spins toward the body’s midline

142
Q

What is external rotation?

A

When a bone spins away from the body’s midline

143
Q

What is supination

A

A movement turning the palm upward

144
Q

What is pronation?

A

A movement turning the palm downward

145
Q

What is inversion?

A

A foot movement which turns the sole medially toward the other foot

146
Q

What is eversion?

A

A food movement that turns the sole laterally away from the other foot

147
Q

What is protraction?

A

Moving a part forward

148
Q

What is retraction?

A

Moving a part backward

ANPH 1000 (5 decks)

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