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UK ADI EU340 > UK Lessons > Flashcards

UK Lessons Flashcards

1
Q

What is the alcohol limit for a breath sample?

A

9 microgrammes in

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2
Q

What is the alcohol limit for a blood sample?

A

20 milligrammes

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3
Q

What is the alcohol limit for a urine sample?

A

27 milligrammes in 100ml

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4
Q

What do we report when a captive balloon breaks free?

A
  1. Balloon type and whether carrying a load
  2. Position of the balloon site
  3. Direction and speed of drift
  4. Last observed height
  5. Length of cable attached to the balloon
  6. Balloon operators name and telephone number
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5
Q

How would you identify that a transmission is malicious interference?

A
  • Change in individuality of the transmissions
  • Message out of context, errors, wrong phraseology
  • Messages short time only, not repeated when queried
  • Signal may not be received by both pilot and controller simultaneously
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6
Q

How are malicious interference transmissions handled?

A
  • Duty Tels Officer or ATC to contact Radio Investigation Service (Radio-communications Agency)
  • tasked to track down sources and
  • take appropriate legal action
  • They need to know:
  • content, character, type of Tx
  • where and when received
  • MOR submission required from ATCO
  • Preserve recording of such communications
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7
Q

What is a CHIRP report?

A

Confidential Human Factors Incident Reporting Programme

Issues are able to be raised anonymously

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8
Q

What form would you use to report a wake turbulence incident?

A

SRG 1423

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9
Q

What form would be used to report bird strikes?

A

SRG

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10
Q

What form is used to report a breach of SCRATCOH?

A

SRG 1410

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11
Q

Describe class A airspace

A

IFR only

Clearance required

ATC must be complied with

Everyone separated from everyone

Gliders may enter in VMC

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12
Q

Describe Class C airspace

A

VFR & IFR

Clearance required to enter

Instructions must be followed

IFR sep from IFR & VFR

VFR sep from IFR, given Tx info on other VFR

VMC

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13
Q

Describe Class D airspace

A

VFR and IFR

Clearance required to enter

Instructions must be followed

IFR sep from IFR and SVFR, given tx info on VFR

VFR given tx info on everyone

SVFR treated as IFR for all intents and purposes

VMC

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14
Q

Describe Class E airspace

A

VFR and IFR

IFR require clearance to enter, VFR does not

IFR sep from IFR, tx info on VFR- avoidance advice given if requested

Participating VFR given Tx info on IFR and other VFR

IFR must comply with instructions

VFR pilots strongly encouraged to contact ATC and comply

VMC

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15
Q

Describe Class G airspace

A

ATCU’s provide FIS

Pilots responsible for all collision avoidance

Pilots still expected to comply with advice

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16
Q

What are aircraft required to have if using Class E+ routes?

A

A transponder

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17
Q

What are the dimensions of an ATZ?

A

Extend from the surface to 2000ft AAL

Radius is centred on the centre point of the longest runway and extends 2nm for runways 1850m or less in length or 2.5nm if over 1850m

If end of runway is less than

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18
Q

Are civil ATZ’s operational 24 hours a day?

A

No as they don’t operate outside the published hours of operation

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19
Q

Are all ATZ’s circular?

A

Nope

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20
Q

Are military ATZ’s inside MATZ’s operational 24 hours a day?

A

Yes

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21
Q

What are the dimensions of a MATZ?

A
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22
Q

Is permission required to enter a MATZ?

A

No

However you do need permission to enter the ATZ inside the MATZ

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23
Q

What is a TRA (G)?

A

Temporary Reserved Area Gliders

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24
Q

What is RA (T)?

A

Temporary Restricted Airspace

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25
Q

What is a TDA?

A

Temporary Danger area

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26
Q

What is the speed limit?

A

A/C must not fly faster than 250kts IAS below FL100, unless;

  • In Class A or B airspace
  • IFR in Class C
  • Exempted VFR in Class C when authorised by ATC in accordance with MATS pt 2
  • For exempted flights in Class D airspace when authorised by ATC in accordance with MATS pt 2
  • Test flights in accordance with certain specified conditions
  • Aircraft taking part in flying displays when authorised by CAA
  • Aircraft given written permission from the CAA
  • State aircraft such as military.
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27
Q

What is a basic service?

A

Similar to a normal FIS, however, traffic information is only passed if a definite risk of collision exists.

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28
Q

What is a traffic service?

A

Traffic identified using surveillance means
and traffic information given where possible

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29
Q

What is a deconfliction service?

A

AspertrafficservicebutIFRonly.however advice and information given to enable pilots to avoid other traffic. Based upon ATCO workload and other limitations.

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30
Q

What is a procedural service?

A

A non surveillance based service to IFR only. Advice and information given to enable pilots to avoid other participating IFR traffic, and traffic information on known BS traffic where a confliction exists.

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31
Q

Where does military low level flying take place?

A

Military low flying occurs in most parts of the United Kingdom at any height up to 2000 ft above the surface. However, the greatest concentration is between 250 ft and 500 ft and civil pilots are advised to avoid flying in that height band whenever possible.

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32
Q

What services do we provide to aircraft at Avon as part of an Aerodrome control service?

A

Basic

Alerting

Air Traffic Control

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33
Q

To whom do we provide an Aerodrome Control Serivce?

A

Provided to aircraft flying with visual reference to the surface in the vicinity of the ATZ, and operating on the manoeuvring area.

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34
Q

What are the responsibilities of aerodrome controllers?

A

Aerodrome Control is responsible for, issuing information and instructions to aircraft under its control to achieve a safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of air traffic and to: (differs from ICAO)
Prevent collisions between:
a. Aircraft flying in the vicinity of and within the ATZ.
b. Aircraft taking off and landing.
c. Aircraft and vehicles, obstructions and other aircraft on the manoeuvring area.

d. Assist in preventing collisions between aircraft on the apron.
to authorise Tower control of the Apron allows this. (UK allows control of aircraft on the apron)

TWR controller does A + B

GMC does C + D

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35
Q
A
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36
Q

What are the additional specific responsibilities of aerodrome control?

A
  1. Notifying Emergency services as per local instructions
  2. Informing Aircraft under its control of any depletion of the aerodrome emergency services
  3. Providing an approach control service when carrying out functions delegated by approach control
  4. Supplying the following information to approach control and, according to unit instructions, approach radar control;
    a) Pertinent data on IFR, SVFR, and VFR traffic including departures, missed approaches and overdue aircraft
    b) Appropriate items of essential aerodrome information
  5. Informing aerodrome operator when it becomes apparent that there is a deterioration in the state of the aerodrome or associated facilities for which the aerodrome operator is responsible
  6. Initiating overdue action at aerodromes where no approach control unit is established.
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37
Q

When does transfer of control take place for an aircraft transferred from approach control?

A

Once the aircraft is flying with visual reference to the surface

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38
Q

When in formation that prohibits the application of standard separations how is separation maintained between aircraft in that formation?

A

When in Formation:
Standard separation where possible.
Clearances, Instructions & Squawk to leader. Treat as one unit. The formation leader is responsible for separation between units comprising the formation.
This is known as MARSA – Military Accepts Responsibility for Separation of Aircraft.

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39
Q

What would the Callsign “Blackcat” mean?

A
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40
Q

What would the callsign “Blackcat 1” mean?

A

A single UK element

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41
Q

What would “deadly 31 flight” mean?

A

A US formation flight

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42
Q

What would the callsign “Deadly 31” mean?

A

A single US element

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43
Q

What flight category are Non deviating status flights?

A

B

44
Q

What information would a joining pilot need?

A
  • Landing direction/ runway in use
  • Pressure setting
  • Surface wind velocity
  • Circuit pattern
  • Circuit traffic when appropriate
45
Q

Describe the standard overhead join

A
  • Report overhead 2,000 ft above aerodrome elevation (2,000 ft QFE)
  • Maintain VMC
  • When cleared for descent - route to ‘dead’ side of circuit
  • Descend to circuit height (QFE)
  • Cross upwind end of runway at circuit height
  • Position into traffic pattern, report Downwind
46
Q

When can an arriving aircraft be cleared to cross the runway threshold?

A

When a preceding departing aircraft is airborne or a preceding landing aircraft has vacated the runway.

47
Q

What are the conditions associated with issuing a ‘land after’ clearance?

A
  1. Runway is long enough to ensure safe separation of aircraft
  2. braking action is good
  3. The preceding landing aircraft does not require a backtrack
  4. The controller considers that the pilot of the second aircraft will be able to maintain a continuous visual with the one ahead vacating.
  5. Pilot of landing aircraft is warned, this makes responsibility for separation his.
48
Q

What is the phraseology for a land after?

A

“G-CD, land after the Boeing 737 vacating at N, surface wind….”

49
Q

What can an ATM be used for?

A
  1. Determine the landing order, spacing and distance from touchdown of arriving aircraft
  2. Assist in providing longitudinal separation for departing aircraft
  3. Enable the controller to confirm that the initial track of a departing aircraft conforms with the clearance issued
  4. provide information to aircraft on the position of other aircraft in the circuit or carrying out an instrument approach
50
Q

What are the additional uses of the ATM?

A
  1. Following identification, validate SSR codes of departing aircraft and verify associated Mode C read-outs;
  2. Monitor the progress of overflying aircraft identified by approach radar control to ensure that they do not conflict with the tracks of arriving or departing aircraft
  3. establish separation between departing aircraft
  4. pass traffic information
  5. establish separation in the event of a missed approach
  6. assist in taking initial corrective action when the separation between arriving aircraft becomes less than the prescribed minima
51
Q

What is the level restriction for an aircraft conducting a low approach when the runway is occupied?

A

Not below 400ft QFE

Not below 400ft+ threshold elevation rounded up to the nearest 50ft QNH

Aircraft shall also be informed about one another.

52
Q

When can an aircraft be authorised to conduct a visual approach?

A
  • Pilot reports he can maintain visual reference to the surface and
  • Reported cloud ceiling is at or above the level of the beginning of the initial approach segment, or
  • After commencing the approach procedure pilot reports he can complete visual approach and landing, and
  • Reasonable assurance exists … (slide just ends there so not sure what reasonable assurance is needed)
53
Q

What factors would you consider when deciding the departure order of aircraft?

A

Factors to consider:

a) Types of aircraft and their relative performance
b) Routes to be followed after take-off.
c) Any specified minimum departure interval between take-offs.
d) Need to apply wake turbulence separation minima.
e) Aircraft which should be afforded priority.
f) Aircraft subject to AFTM requirements.

54
Q

What are the conditions associated with multiple line-ups from different points?

A
  • During daylight hours
  • All aircraft continuously visible to controller
  • All aircraft on same RTF frequency
  • Pilot advised about numbers and positions for departure sequence
  • Physical characteristics of the runway preceding a/c visible to succeeding a/c
55
Q

At what positions may an aircraft be issued its take-off clearance?

A
  • At the holding point for the runway in use
  • When lined up on the runway
56
Q

When can you issue a take-off clearance to an aircraft when there is preceding traffic?

A

When a previous departure is seen to be airborne

When a previous departure has reported airborne

When a preceding landing aircraft has vacated the runway.

57
Q

What would you expect to happen when an aircraft is issued an ‘immediate take-off’?

A

At the holding point, taxi immediately onto the runway and commence take off without stopping the aircraft
➢If on the runway, take off without delay

➢NOT for HEAVY category aircraft

58
Q

What is the UK phraseology for cancelling an aircraft’s take-off when it hasn’t yet commenced its take-off run?

A

GABCD, Hold position, cancel take-off I say again cancel take-off, acknowledge

59
Q

What is the phraseology for stopping an aircraft take-off when it has already begun its take-off run?

A

VIR798 stop immediately, i say again VIR798 stop immediately, acknowledge

60
Q

Who is responsible for aerodrome inspections?

A

Aerodrome operator

61
Q

Why are surface and lighting inspections carried out?

A

to ensure:
➢ATC becomes aware of any unserviceabilities or obstructions that may affect aerodrome use or reduces runway capacity

62
Q

When are inspections carried out?

A
  • At least one a day.
  • 24 hour station: as soon as practicable after first light.
  • At the cessation of work on manoeuvring area.
  • When runway not previously inspected brought into use.
  • Following aircraft accident.
  • After abandoned take-off by turbine engined a/c due to engine malfunction, or by aircraft with burst tyres.
  • Non- 24 hour: before flying commences.
  • Further inspection before night flying.
  • During snow and ice conditions as weather conditions warrant.
  • When considered necessary by ATC or Aerodrome Operator or per MATS 2.
63
Q

Name some runway contaminants

A
  • Water
  • Ice
  • Snow
  • Slush
64
Q

What does dry mean in terms of runway contamination?

A

Surface not affected by water, slush, snow or ice

65
Q

What does Damp mean in terms of runway contamination?

A

When the surface shows a change of colour due to moisture

66
Q

What does wet mean in terms of runway contamination?

A

When the surface is soaked but no significant patches of standing water are visible

67
Q

What does water patches mean in terms of runway contamination?

A

When significant patches of standing water are visible (ie. more than 25% of the runway surface is covered by water more than 3mm deep)

68
Q

What does flooded mean in terms of runway contamination?

A

When extensive standing water is visible (more than 50% of the runway surface is covered by water more than 3mm deep)

69
Q

When can you pass unofficial information regarding changes in the runway state?

A

only when conditions get worse,

never do report them as better than they are.

70
Q

What is the phraseology for the passing of unofficial reports of runway state?

A

Unofficial observation from the control tower/pilots report. The runway surface condition appears to be damp, damp, damp

71
Q

What effects can water have on aircraft operations?

A
  • Additional drag
  • Possibility of power loss or system malfunction due to spray impingement
  • Reduced wheel-braking performance
  • Directional Control problems
  • Possibility of structural damage.
72
Q

Define dry snow

A

Snow which can be blown losoe or, if compacted by hand, will fall apart again

73
Q

Define wet snow

A

Snow which if compacted by hand will stick together in a snowball

74
Q

Define compacted snow

A

Snow compresses into solid mass resists further compression, either holds together or breaks up if picked up

75
Q

Define slush

A

A water saturated snow which, with a heel toe slap down, will be displaced with a splatter.

76
Q

What changes to runway contaminents are condsidered significant?

A
  • Any change in surface deposit eg snow to slush, or water to ice
  • Changes in depth greater than;
    20mm for dry snow
    10mm for wet snow
    3mm for slush
  • Any change in available length or width of runways of 10% or more
  • Any change which requires reclassification in item F of a Snowtam
  • Any change in the distances apart of snow banks.
77
Q

When must measurements of runway contaminent be commenced?

A

As soon as the presence of snow, slush, ice and associated standing water is detected or observed and is expected to be operationally significant.

78
Q

How frequent are runway measurements of contaminents?

A

Whenever it appears that there is a significant change in conditions.

79
Q

How is braking action assessed?

A

With a MU meter

80
Q

How is braking action reported?

A
  • Snowtam- values for each third of the runway
  • METAR- one mean value for the whole length.
81
Q

How are runway surface conditions disseminated?

A

By SNOWTAM over the AFTN which will contain an 8 figure code group

82
Q

What is included in a SNOWTAM?

A
  • Runway cleared length/width
  • Runway contamination including depth
  • Runway braking action (thirds)
  • Snow banks
  • Runway lighting situation
  • Taxiway and apron situation
  • Further planned clearance of the runway
  • Next obs
83
Q

What is the maxiumum validity period for a SNOWTAM?

A

24hrs

84
Q

When do we issue a new SNOWTAM?

A

Whenever a significant change occurs

85
Q

How is contamination disseminated in a METAR?

A

As an 8 figure opmet code

  1. & 2. is Runway designator, 3= Runway deposits, 4 runway contamination as a %, 5 and 6 depth of deposit, 7 & 8 braking action
86
Q

How will snowbanks be notified?

A

In a SNOWTAM

87
Q

Who is responsible for creating and implementing a snow plan?

A

The aerodrome operator.

88
Q

What is a Royal Flight?

A

An aircraft specifically tasked with carrying one or more members of the Royal Family who have been afforded Royal Flight status by the head of Royal Travel

89
Q

What flight priority status are Royal Flights?

A

C

90
Q

If a Royal Flight is planned to route outside of controlled airspace how is it protected?

A

By the establishment of CAS-T (Controlled Airspace Temporary)

These can be temporary Control Zones, Control Areas, or airways

91
Q

What class of airspace is CAS-T?

A

D

92
Q

For how long is CAS-T established?

A

Temporary Control Zones- 15 minutes before until 30 minutes after the ETA/ETD of the aircraft

Airways- 15 minutes before ETA at the starting point of the airway until 30 minutes after ETD at the end point of the airway.

93
Q

What are the dimensions of a temporary controlled zone?

A

Radius is between 5 and 10nm

Upper limit depends on necessity

94
Q

What are the dimensions of temporary controlled airways?

A

5nm either side of track

Vertical limits as required

95
Q

How is Royal Flight information promulgated?

A

Via NOTAM

96
Q

Do selected helicopter flights for royals normally use CAS-T?

A

No they use Royal Low level corridors

97
Q

What does SSR code 0037 mean?

A

Selected helicopter flight

98
Q

What does SSR code 0035 mean?

A

Royal flight in a helicopter

99
Q

Where do royal flights normally take place and what is established if they are unable to remain in that area?

A

Normally inside the established CAS structure

If unable then CAS-T or Royal Low Level Corridors

100
Q

What would the call sign KRF1R mean?

A

Kitty hawk 1 R

No. 32 squadron RAF aircraft Royal Flight

101
Q

What would the callsign TQF1R mean?

A

Rainbow 1 R

Queens helicopter flight with royal flight status person on board

102
Q

What would the callsign KRH1R mean?

A

Sparrowhawk 1 R

Civilian chartered aircraft royal flight

103
Q

If a royal flight callsign doesn’t have an R on it then what does that mean?

A

That the aircraft isn’t actually a royal flight in that it isn’t carrying anyone afforded Royal Flight priority status.

It will have CAA priority (not sure what cat that would make them)

Eg;

KRF1- Kittyhawk 1 (No 32. Squadron)

TQF1- Rainbow 1 (Queens helicopter flight)

KRH1- Sparrowhawk 1 (civilian chartered aircraft)

104
Q

What information do you need for your report in the case of an incident onboard an aircraft?

A

➢ Nationality, registration marks of aircraft
➢ Commander’s name
➢ Name & nationality of person under restraint, reasons for his journey
➢ Description of the incident, position of the aircraft at the time
➢ Names of up to 3 witnesses
➢ ETA at aerodrome of intended landing

105
Q

What information do you need following a report of matter dropped from an aircraft in flight?

A

➢ Treat as Incident involving Safety
➢ Reasonable effort to identify aircraft a.s.a.p.
➢ Enlist aid of ACC Watch Manager(?)
➢ Might it be a military aircraft - beyond civil means of identification?
➢ Do not express an opinion to the reporting person as to likely source of the matter.

UK ADI EU340 (14 decks)

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