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UK ADI EU340 > MATS 1 sect 1 > Flashcards

MATS 1 sect 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the suite of FIS in the UK?

A
  • Basic Service
  • Traffic Service
  • Deconfliction service
  • Procedural service
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2
Q

What is an ATS?

A

Air traffic service is a generic term meaning variously a;

  • Air Traffic Control Service
  • Flight information Service
  • Alerting Service
  • Air Traffic Advisory Service
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3
Q

To whom do we provide an Air Traffic control service?

A
  • To all IFR a/c in Class A, B, C, D and E airspace
  • To all VFR a/c in Class B, C and D airspace
  • To all SVFR a/c
  • To all aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodromes
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4
Q

What is a Flight Information Service?

A

A service provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful to the safe and efficient conduct of flight.

  • weather
  • changes to serviciability of facilities
  • conditions at aerodromes
  • any other information pertinent to safety.
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5
Q

What is an Air Traffic Advisory Service?

A

-A service provided within Class F airspace which provides information on collision hazards which is more effective than FIS.

Suggest to the aircraft a course of action by which a potential hazard may be avoided. Priority shall be given to an aircraft already in advisory airspace over other aircraft wanting to enter advisory airspace. Pass to aircraft information comprising the same information as that received by an area control service.

The advisory service does not:

• offer the same degree of safety, or assume the same responsibilities as an ATCS. The information available to the unit providing the advisory service may be incomplete The advisory service does not deliver “clearances” but only “advisory information”. It uses the words “advise” or “suggest” when a course of action is proposed to an aircraft.

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6
Q

What are the objectives of an ATS?

A
  1. To prevent collisions between aircraft
  2. Prevent collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area
  3. Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of Air traffic
  4. Provide advice and information useful to the safe and efficient conduct of flight
  5. notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of SAR aid and assist such organisations as required.
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7
Q

What is the definition of a controlled aerodrome?

A

an aerodrome at which ATC service is provided to aerodrome traffic regardless of whether or not a control zone exists.

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8
Q

Define Aerodrome traffic

A

All traffic on the maneouvring area of an aerodrome an all aircraft flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome includes but is not limited to aircraft entering or leaving the aerodrome traffic circuit.

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9
Q

To whom do we provide FIS?

A

Shall be provided by the appropriate ATSU’s to all aircraft which are likely to be affected by the information and which are;

  • provided with an ATC service; or
  • otherwise known to the relevant ATSU’s
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10
Q

What is an alerting service?

A

A service provided to notify appropriate organisations regarding a/s in need of SAR aid and to assist such organisations as required.

Can be provided by anyone.

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11
Q

Describe class A airspace

A

IFR only

Clearance required

ATC must be complied with

Everyone separated from everyone

Gliders may enter in VMC

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12
Q

Describe class B airspace

A

VFR & IFR

Clearance required to enter

Instructions must be followed

Everybody seperated.

VMC applies

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13
Q

Describe Class C airspace

A

VFR & IFR

Clearance required to enter

Instructions must be followed

IFR sep from IFR & VFR

VFR sep from IFR, given Tx info on other VFR

VMC

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14
Q

Describe Class D airspace

A

VFR and IFR

Clearance required to enter

Instructions must be followed

IFR sep from IFR and SVFR, given tx info on VFR

VFR given tx info on everyone

SVFR treated as IFR for all intents and purposes

VMC

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15
Q

Describe Class E airspace

A

VFR and IFR

IFR require clearance to enter, VFR does not

IFR sep from IFR, tx info on VFR- avoidance advice given if requested

Participating VFR given Tx info on IFR and other VFR

IFR must comply with instructions

VFR pilots strongly encouraged to contact ATC and comply

VMC

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16
Q

Describe Class F airspace

A

Advisory service to participating flights

IFR and VFR

IFR are required to FPL before entry

no clearances required

Participating IFR expected to comply with advice

FIS provided on request

Advice provided in presence of essential tx info and pass course of action

“suggest” and “advise”

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17
Q

Describe Class G airspace

A

ATCU’s provide FIS

Pilots responsible for all collision avoidance

Pilots still expected to comply with advice

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18
Q

What is the speed limit?

A

A/C must not fly faster than 250kts IAS below FL100, unless;

  • In Class A or B airspace
  • IFR in Class C
  • Exempted VFR in Class C when authorised by ATC in accordance with MATS pt 2
  • For exempted flights in Class D airspace when authorised by ATC in accordance with MATS pt 2
  • Test flights in accordance with certain specified conditions
  • Aircraft taking part in flying displays when authorised by CAA
  • Aircraft given written permission from the CAA
  • State aircraft such as military.
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19
Q

What must a flight do if a navigation or anti-collision lights fail at night?

A

For any light he is not to depart at night if cannot be repaired immediately. If in flight, land as soon as possible unless authorised to continue by relevant authority.

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21
Q

What must a flight do if an anti-collision light fails during the day?

A

Nothing, he may continue provided that the light is repaired at earliest opportunity.

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22
Q

What must a controller take into account during the failure of anti-col or nav lights?

A

Permission to continue with the flight should normally only be given in the a/c is to remain in UK class A-D airspace, it can leave the UK if permission is granted by the adjacent authority.

If pilot intends to fly outside CAS or in Class E he should be instructed to land at the nearest suitable aerodrome.

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23
Q

Define a controlled aerodrome?

A

An aerodrome at which ATC service is provided to aerodrome traffic regardless whether a CTR exists or not

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24
Q

Define flight visibility

A

The visibility forward from the cockpit of an a/c in flight.

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25
Q

What is the CAA’s definition of night (ANO 2016 schedule 1)

A

Half an hour after sunset until half an hour before sunrise

Determined at surface level

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26
Q

Which visibility is used to determine whether VMC permits VFR flight?

A

Flight vis

However for fixed wing and helicopter flights to/or from aerodromes, or entering ATZ or traffic circuit in Class D airspace shall use Ground Vis

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27
Q

Which aircraft are exempted from the VMC criteria in the UK?

A
  • Powerline
  • Pipeline
  • Police
  • Helimed
  • SAR
  • SAR training if LOA (letter of agreement) with ATC provider exists
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28
Q

What are the VMC minima for an Aircraft crusing at FL100 or above in the day?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 8km

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29
Q

What are the VMC minima for an Aircraft crusing between FL100 and 3,000ft amsl or above 1,000ft above terrain in the day?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km

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30
Q

What are the VMC minima for an Aircraft crusing at or below 3,000ft amsl or at or below 1,000ft above terrain whichever is higher, Class C, D or E airspace during the day?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km (Class A-E airspace)

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31
Q

What are the VMC minima for an Aircraft crusing at or below 3,000ft amsl or at or below 1,000ft above terrain whichever is higher in uncontrolled airspace (F&G) in the day?

A

clear of cloud with the surface in sight with a flight visibility of 5km

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32
Q

What are the daytime VMC minima for a fixed wing Aircraft cruising at or below 3,000ft in Class F or G airspace where its IAS in Knots is 140 or less?

A

Clear of cloud with the surface in sight with a flight visibility of 1500m.

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33
Q

What are the daytime VMC minima for a Helicopter at or below 3,000ft in Class F or G airspace where its IAS in Knots is 140 or less?

A

Clear of cloud with the surface in sight with a flight visibility of 1500m (this may be as low as 800m providing the helicopter is travelling at a speed slow enough to see and avoid).

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34
Q

At night what are the VMC minima for aircraft at or above FL100?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 8km

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35
Q

At night what are the VMC minima for aircraft between FL100 and 3,000ft amsl or 1,000ft above terrain?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km

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36
Q

At night what are the VMC minima for aircraft at or below 3,000ft amsl or at or below 1,000ft above terrain whichever is higher?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km and with the surface in sight Helicopters may reduce the flight visibility to 3km provided they travel at a reasonable speed.

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37
Q

Under what met conditions do ATC advise pilots that VMC no longer possible?

A

In Class D airspace when the reported met conditions are below

a Cloud ceiling of less than 1,500ft and/or a G.V of less than 5km in dya or night ATC shall;

  • Advise pilots of a/c intending to operate under VFR to or from such aerodromes, and
  • Request the pilot to specify the type of clearance required.
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38
Q

What are the conditions for a VFR refusal?

A

ATC shall not issue any further VFR clearances to a/c wishing to operate under VFR,

  • to or from an aerodrome
  • or enter the ATZ
  • or traffic circuit

In Class D airspace when the reported MET conditions are below the following minima;

  • Cloud ceiling less than 1,500ft, and/or
  • Ground vis less than 5,000m
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39
Q

What are the VMC for a helicopter at or below 3,000ft amsl when transiting a Class D airspace?

A

Providing the a/c is remaining outside the ATZ, not joining the circuit;

1500m flight vis COCSIS

(ORS 1195)

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40
Q

What are the VMC for a fixed wing aircraft at or below 3,000ft amsl when transiting a Class D airspace?

A

Providing the a/c is remaining outside the ATZ, not joining the circuit;

5km flight vis COCSIS

(ORS 1195)

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41
Q

At night what are the VMC minima for aircraft at or below 3,000ft amsl or at or below 1,000ft above terrain whichever is higher?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km and with the surface in sight

slides say that it is 5km COCSIS in Class G airspace but MATS 1 makes no reference to this!!

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42
Q

What are the conditions for a SVFR refusal?

A

ATC shall not issue any further VFR clearances to a/c wishing to operate under VFR,

  • to or from an aerodrome
  • or enter the ATZ
  • or traffic circuit

In Class D airspace when the reported MET conditions are below the following minima;

  • Cloud ceiling less than 600ft, and/or
  • Ground vis less than 1,500m (800m for helis)
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43
Q

Under what met conditions do ATC advise pilots that SVFR no longer possible?

A

In Class D airspace when the reported met conditions are below

a Cloud ceiling of less than 600ft and/or a G.V of less than 1500m in day or night ATC shall;

  • Advise pilots of a/c intending to operate under VFR to or from such aerodromes, and
  • Request the pilot to specify the type of clearance required.
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44
Q

When must a pilot fly IFR?

A

When airspace is notified as class A

Met condition conditions preclude VFR

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45
Q

What are the VMC in class A airspace and when would you need this?

A

Above FL100 8km flight vis, 1500m and 1,000ft from cloud

Below FL100 5km flight vis, 1500m and 1,000ft from cloud (same as all other CAS)

VMC climb and descents

Powered a/c making an airways crossing

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46
Q

Can A/C cross airways without an ATC clearance? If so how?

A

Yes

Must fly at right angles across the base of an en-route section of an airway where the lower limit is defined as a FL.

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47
Q

What is the definition of an SVFR flight?

A

a VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a control zone in met conditions below VMC.

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48
Q

To what are SVFR flights seperated?

A

Standard separation applied between;

  • IFR and SVFR flights
  • SVFR flights and SVFR flights
  • No sep can be provided between SVFR flights on notifed SVFR routes or areas.*
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49
Q

What conditions is SVFR flight subject to?

A
  • COCSIS with the surface in sight
  • Flight vis must be at least 1,500m (800m for helis)
  • Speed of 140kt IAS or less
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50
Q

Do you normally assign a level to fly to an SVFR a/c?

A

no, vertical sep. achieved by requiring one to fly not above a level and the other not below a level

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51
Q

What form is used to complete Full FPL’s in the UK?

A

CA48

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52
Q

When is a pilot advised to file a flight plan in the UK?

A
  • Flying over the sea more than 10nm from the UK coast
  • Over sparsely populated areas where SAR may be difficult
  • Into an area where SAR ops are in progress
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53
Q

When must a DLA message be sent?

A

For IFR a/c when delayed more than 15 mins from their planned EOBT

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54
Q

What is the maximum time beforehand a FPL can be filed?

A

120 hours

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55
Q

Are VFR flight plans covered by the IFPS?

A

No, they must be addressed to aerodromes and appropriate FIRS on the route.

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56
Q

When is a Full FPL required for an SVFR flight?

A

Not normally required but pilot may give an abbreviated one

however a FPL will be required if destination needs to be informed with “I” written in flight rules

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57
Q

What are AIC’s?

A

Aeronautical information circulars

Information that doesn’t qualify for inclusion in the AIP or a NOTAM. NOT A NOTIFIED DOCUMENT.

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58
Q

What are the AIC colours?

A

White- Admin

Yellow- Operations/ATS

Pink- Safety

Mauve- UK restriction charts

Green- Maps/Charts

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59
Q

When may a pilot file a flight plan?

A

For any flight

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60
Q

When is a pilot required to file a flight plan?

A
  1. For any flight or portion thereof to be provided with an Air traffic control service
  2. Any flight within advisory airspace
  3. Any flight within or into areas or along routes designated by the authority to facilitate the provision of flight information, alerting and search and rescue services
  4. Any flight within or into areas or along routes designated by the authority to facilitate co-ordination with the appropriate military units or air traffic service units of an adjacent state to prevent the possible need for interception for the purposes of identification as prescribed by the state concerned.
  5. Any flight across international boundaries
  6. Any flight planned to leave the vicinity of the aerodrome at night
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61
Q

What are your actions for when a captive balloon breaks free?

A
  1. The type of balloon and whether carrying any person
  2. Position of balloon site
  3. Direction and speed of drift
  4. Last observed height
  5. Length of cable attached to the balloon
  6. Balloon operators name and tel. No.
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62
Q

What is a TMZ

A

A Transponder Mandatory Zone is airspace of defined dimensions wherein the carriage and operation of pressure altitude reporting transponders is necessary.

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63
Q

What is an RMZ?

A

A Radio Mandatory Zone is airspace of defined dimensions wherein the carriage and operation of suitable/appropriate radio equipment is Mandatory.

VFR flights in Class E, F or G RMZ’s and IFR flight in F or G RMZ’s shall maintain RTF watch and establish comms as prescribed.

There are requirements to enter covered in another slide.

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64
Q

Between whom is standard separation applied?

A
  1. All flights in Class A airspace
  2. IFR flights in Class C, D and E
  3. IFR and VFR flights in Class C
  4. IFR and SVFR flights
  5. SVFR except where reductions is authorised by the CAA
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65
Q

What conditions may a controller impart on a level change instruction?

A

Aircraft may be instructed to change level at a specified time, place or rate.

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66
Q

What are the conditions for climb or descent in VMC?

A

When climbing/descending in VMC when;

  • Essential Traffic Information is passed
  • the pilot agrees to maintain his own separation from other a/c and the maneuver is agreed by the pilot of the other a/c;
  • it is during the hours of daylight;
  • the aircraft is flying in VMC;
  • In Class D, E, F* and G* (*UK difference) airspace at or below FL100
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67
Q

What does essential Traffic information contain?

A
  • Direction of flight
  • Type of conflicting aircraft.
  • Cruising level of conflicting ACFT & ETA for Reporting Point. Or for aircraft passing through levels, ETA Reporting Point nearest where aircraft will cross levels.
  • Any alternative clearance.

“Essential traffic information, a (direction of flight) (a/c type), maintaining/climbing to/descending to (level) estimating (position) at (time), (any alternative clearance)”

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68
Q

Under what conditions may an a/c be instructed to climb/descend to a level previously occupied by another a/c?

A

An aircraft may be instructed to climb or descend to a level previously occupied by another aircraft provided that:

  • Vertical separation already exists. or;
  • Vacating aircraft is proceeding to a level which will maintain vertical separation, & either:
  1. Controller observes vacating aircraft has left the level, or
  2. Pilot has reported vacating the level.
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69
Q

What is radar separation?

A

Horizontal Separation based on radar exists when the distance between the centres of the radar returns does not represent less than the prescribed minimum, provided that the returns do not touch or overlap.

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70
Q

When may standard separtation be reduced in the vicinity of an aerodrome?

A

Also in the vicinity of an aerodrome as per ICAO, when:

  • ADC continuously sees all the aircraft, and can provide adequate separation
  • Aircraft see each other and agree to maintain separation (– good in circuit at night if IFR.)
  • Following aircraft sees the one in front and agrees to maintain separation.
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71
Q

When may standard separation be reduced?

A
  • May be reduced when authorised by the CAA and published in MATS Pt2.
  • Reduced separation in the vicinity of the aerodrome
  • Search and Rescue escorts- Standard Separation maybe reduced when escorting in an emergency
  • When climbing/descending in VMC
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72
Q

What shall you do in the event of a loss of separation?

A
  • Use every means to obtain the required minimum with the least possible delay
  • When considered practicable pass traffic info (when using RADAR) otherwise pass Essential Traffic Info.

Separate then inform!!!

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73
Q

How are levels assessed using Mode C?

A
  1. An aircraft may be considered to be at an assigned level provided that the Mode C readout indicates 200 feet or less from that level;
  2. An aircraft which is known to have been instructed to climb or descend may be considered to have left a level when the Mode C readout indicates a change of 400 feet or more from that level and is continuing in the anticipated direction;
  3. An aircraft climbing or descending may be considered to have passed through a level when the Mode C readout indicates that the level has been passed by 400 feet or more and continuing in the required direction;
  4. An aircraft may be considered to have reached an assigned level when three successive Mode C readouts indicate 200 feet or less from that level.
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74
Q

Why do we apply longitudinal separation?

A

Longitudinal separation shall be applied so that the spacing between the estimated positions of the aircraft being separated is never less than the prescribed minima

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75
Q

How can Longitudinal Separation be applied?

A

Distance or time;

  • Depart at a specified time
  • To lose time to arrive over a geographical point at a specified time
  • To hold over a geographical location until a specified time
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76
Q

What are the times for longitudinal separation of departing a/c and what are the conditions? (MATS 1)

A

1 min- If the a/c are flying on different tracks separated by at least 45°. Minima may be reduced if using lateral runways which do not cross, procedure must be approved and lateral separation must be effected immediately after take off.

2 min- For tracks not separated by 45° provided that the preceding a/c is 40kts or more faster and neither aircraft is cleared to execute a manoeuvre that would decrease the 2 min separation between them.

5 min- Provided that the preceding aircraft has filed a true airspeed of 20kts or more faster than the following aircraft.

5 min- Provided that 5 minutes separation is maintained up to a reporting point, within or adjacent to a control zone or terminal control area and the a/c will be subesequently separated either;

1) Vertically
2) by Tracks which diverte by 30° or more; or
3) by radar
* Only to be used at locations approved by CAA*

10 min

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77
Q

What are the distance based longitudinal separations for a/c on recipricol tracks in the UK?

A

Recipricol Tracks

40nm unless both a/c have been established as having crossed each other and are at least 10nm apart, if within 100nm of a DME/TACAN this may be further reduced to 5nm

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78
Q

Why do we apply Lateral Separation?

A

so that the distance between those portions of the intended routes for which aircraft are to be laterally separated is never less than an established distance to account for navigational inaccuracies plus a specified buffer.

• This buffer shall be determined by the appropriate authority and included in the lateral separation minima as an integral part thereof

If Nav equipment fails or capability detoriates then Pilot must inform ATC

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79
Q

How is Lateral Separation established?

A

By requiring aircraft to operate;

– On different routes, or

– In different geographical locations as determined by:

  • Visual observation, or
  • By use of navigation aids, or
  • By use of area navigation (RNAV) equipment
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80
Q

Whom do we separate in Class A airspace and who is allowed in it?

A

IFR only

All flights separated

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81
Q

Whom do we allow in Class C airspace and what are the separations?

A

IFR and VFR

IFR separated from IFR and VFR

VFR separated from IFR, TI given on other VFR

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82
Q

Whom do we allow in Class D airspace and what are the separations?

A

IFR/SVFR and VFR

IFR separated from IFR, TI on VFR

VFR given TI on IFR and other VFR

SVFR treated as IFR for all intents and purposes

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83
Q

Whom do we allow in Class E airspace and what are the separations?

A

IFR and VFR

IFR separated from other IFR, given TI on participating and non participating VFR traffic

Participating VFR traffic given TI on IFR and other participating and non partcipating VFR flights, BS

84
Q

What are the UK definitions of same, recipricol and crossing tracks?

A
  • ‘Same track’ when the track of one aircraft is separated from the track of the other by less than 45°;
  • ‘Reciprocal track’ when the track of one aircraft is separated from the reciprocal of the other by less than 45°;
  • ‘Crossing track’ intersecting tracks which are not classed as ‘same’ or ‘reciprocal’
85
Q

What is geographical separation in the UK?

A

• Positive position reports over different geographical locations - specified as being separated (MATS Pt2).

86
Q

What are the UK lateral separations using a VOR and co-located/associated DME/TACAN?

A

Both a/c diverging

  • Must be on tracks diverging by more than 20° and one of the a/c must be at least 15miles from the VOR/DME/TACAN
  • If diverging by 45° or more than they are separated straight away.

Both a/c converging

-Tracks must have a difference of at least 20° and one of the a/c must be at least 30miles from the VOR/DME/TACAN

When on a/c inbound other is outbound

-Tracks must have a difference of at least 20° and the inbound a/c must be at least 30nm from the VOR or the outbound a/c must be 20nm from the VOR/DME/TACAN.

87
Q

When using a bearing from an NDB what are the UK track lateral separations?

A

When both a/c diverging

-Tracks must be separated by 30° or more and one aircraft must be the time equivalent of 15miles or 4 mins from the NDB, whichever is greater.

88
Q

What are the UK wake turbulence categories?

A

Super- Over 136,000kg

Heavy- 136,000Kg or more

Medium;

Uppermedium- 136,000-104,000kg

Lower medium- 104,000kg-40,000kg

Small- 40,000-17,000kg

Light- 17,000kg or less.

89
Q

What wake turbulence category is used on FPL’s

A

ICAO ones not UK, to comply with PANS-ATM

90
Q

What are the time based longitudinal separations for aircraft flying on the same track and same level according to MATS 1?

A

2 min Provided 2 min departure sep has been applied

3 min When specifically authorised by the CAA and both aircraft are;

1) equipped with functioning transponders and;
2) both aircraft are continuously monitored by RADAR and the actual distance between them is never less than 20nm.

5 min Provided preceding aircraft has filed an air speed of 20kts or more faster than the following aircraft.

5 min when specifically authorised by the CAA provided both aircraft are;

1) equipped with functioning transponders and;
2) monitored by RADAR and the actual distance between them is never less than 30nm.

10 min otherwise

91
Q

What are the time based longitudinal separations for aircraft climbing or descending through levels when flying on the same track according to MATS 1?

A

5 min Provided that the level change is commenced within 10 mins of the time the aircraft has reported over the same exact reporting point.

10 min

92
Q

What are the time based longitudinal separations for aircraft Crossing tracks according to MATS 1?

A

10 min

93
Q

What are the time based longitudinal separations for aircraft flying on recipricol tracks according to MATS 1?

A

10 min before and after estimated passing time

Vertical separation shall be provided for at least 10 mins both prior to and after the estimated time of passing unless it has been confirmed that the aircraft have actually passed each other by;

1) ATS surveillance system information
2) Visual reports from both pilots (day only)
3) Aircraft reports over the same ERP provided vertical separation is maintained for sufficient time to take into account navigational errors

94
Q

What are the types of Horizontal separation?

A
  • Longitudinal
  • Lateral
  • RADAR
95
Q

What is an ERP?

A

Exact reporting Point

Established;

  • Overhead a VOR or NDB
  • Intersection of 2 VOR radials
  • Intersection of a VOR radial and a bearing from an NDB
  • Range and radial from a co-located or associated VOR/DME
96
Q

What are the distance based longitudinal separations for a/c on the same track when climbing and descending in the UK?

A

Climbing or descending on the same track

15nm at the time that the levels are crossed

97
Q

What are the distance based longitudinal separations for a/c on the same track and level in the UK?

A

Same level;

15nm When the leading a/c is 20kts TAS or more faster and both a/c are within 100nm of a DME/TACAN

20nm When the leading a/c is 20kts TAS or more faster

20nm when both a/c are within 100nm of a DME/TACAN

25nm otherwise

98
Q

What is the time based longitudinal separation we apply between an aircraft departing and those already en-route?

A

10mins

5 mins provided

  • En-route a/c is 20kt or more faster,
  • En-route a/c has reported over an ERP where departing traffic joins the route and
  • Departing traffic instructed to arrive at that point 5 mins behind en-route aircraft.
99
Q

When using DME’s to establish separation what is the minimum range the aircraft must be from the DME?

A

15nm,

within this range slant error makes the reading too unreliable therefore any aircraft within 15nm must be treated as if it is 15nm away.

For example if Aircraft A is outbound from a DME passing 17 miles what range can a following aircraft be instructed to climb through the first ones level? The first a/c must be 30nm because even though only 15nm is needed between them the second aircraft will be treated as if it is 15nm until it actually reaches there, therefore the first aircraft must be 30nm for the requisite 15nm to exist.

100
Q

What are the wake turbulence separations for a/c heading in opposite directions?

A

L/M following H= 2 mins

L following M= 2 mins

L/M following J= 3 mins

  • Departing on the opposite runway heading.
  • Is landing in the opposite direction on the same runway. or;
  • Is landing in the opposite direction on a parallel runway separated by less than 760m
101
Q

What are the wake turbulence separations for Departing A/C when intermediate?

A

H behind J= 3 mins

L/M behind H= 3 mins

L behind S/M= 3 mins

L, S & M behind J= 4 mins

H behind H= 4nm or time equivalent

Just add 1 min to the normal separations

102
Q

What are the wake turbulence separations for Departing A/C when not intermediate?

A

H behind J= 2 mins

L/M behind H= 2 mins

L behind S/M= 2mins

L, S & M behind J= 3 mins

H behind H= 4nm or time equivalent

103
Q

What wake turbulence separations do we apply for an a/c on a touch and go behind a departing a/c?

A

The same as an intermediate departure

H behind J= 3 mins

L/M behind H= 3 mins

L behind S/M= 3 mins

L, S & M behind J= 4 mins

H behind H= 4nm or time equivalent

Just add 1 min to the normal separations

104
Q

What wake turbulence is applied for aircraft departing or arriving behind another on a low approach and go-around?

A

For wake turbulence separation purposes, aircraft carrying out a touch-and-go or a low approach shall be considered as making a departure from an intermediate point on the runway

105
Q

For departing wake turbulence what do we treat Smalls as?

A

A medium a/c

so a small departing behind an uppermedium requires no wake turbulence separation.

106
Q

What are the wake turbulence distances for a/c on final approach?

A
107
Q

What are the wake turbulence separations for arriving aircraft when using a displaced threshold?

A

Arr L/S/M behind a H dep= 2mins

Arr L behind M/S dep= 2mins

Arr H behind J dep= 2mins

Arr L/S/M behind J dep= 3 mins

or

Dep L/S/M behind a H arr= 2mins

Dep L behind a S/M arr= 2mins

Dep H behind a J arr= 2mins

Dep L/S/M behind J arr= 3mins

If projected flight paths are expected to cross.

108
Q

When may standard separation be increased?

A
  1. Requested by the pilot
  2. A controller considers it necessary
  3. Directed by CAA
109
Q

What is an ATC clearance?

A

Authorisation for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by the an ATC unit.

110
Q

What is a clearance limit and how can it be defined?

A

The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance.

Can be

  1. A reporting point
  2. aerodrome
  3. Controlled Airspace boundary
111
Q

What must a clearance contain and in what order?

A
  1. A/C identity
  2. Clearance limit
  3. route of flight
  4. levels of flight for the entire route or part thereof
  5. Any necessary instructions or information on other matters such as approach or departure manoeuvres comms and the time of expiry of the clearance.
112
Q

When an aircraft has been cleared to land using the QFE how shall the vertical position of the aircraft be expressed?

A

In terms of height above the aerodrome level, however it will be expresssed as height above runway threshold when;

  • An instrument runway has a threshold height that is 7ft or more lower than the aerodrome elevation
  • for precision approach runways.
113
Q

When can a controller use conditional clearances?

A

When the clearance uses the active runway only when the controller can see all the aircraft/vehicles concerned.

The aircraft/vehicle causing the condition must also be passing in front of the other aircraft concerned.

114
Q

What shall a conditional clearance contain and in what order?

A
  1. The Callsign
  2. The condition
  3. The clearance
  4. A brief reiteration of the condition
115
Q

What items must be read back in a clearance?

A

Speed instructions

Transition Levels

Approach clearances

Runway in use

SSR code setting instructions

Type of ATS

Heading instructions

Airways/Route clearances

Taxi/Towing instructions

Clearance to enter, land on, backtrack on, cross, take-off from, hold short of, taxi on the active runway

Altimeter settings

Level instructions

Frequency changes

VDF Info

Ones in bold are additional ones that a pilot is required to read back as a normal instruction.

116
Q

Do CPDLC messages require a read back?

A

Not unless specified by the ANSP

117
Q

When can aircraft be cleared for the entire route or to the aerodrome of landing?

A
  • When it has been possible prior to departure to coordinate the clearance between all the units under whose control the aircraft will come, or
  • When there is reasonable assurance that prior coordination will be effected ahead of the passage of the flight for all the unit who will control the aircraft.
118
Q

In addition to whatever service the ATCU is providing what other services are automatically provided?

A

An alerting service and a basic service

119
Q

What is a basic service?

A

Similar to normal FIS however Traffic info is only provided if a definite risk of collision exists

120
Q

What is a traffic service?

A

Traffic identified using surveillance systems and traffic information given wherever possible.

121
Q

What is a deconfliction service?

A

As per traffic service but IFR only however advice and information given to enable pilots to avoid other traffic. Based on ATCO workload and other limitations.

122
Q

What is a procedural service?

A

A non surveillance based service to IFR only advice and info given to enable pilots to avoid other participating IFR traffic, and traffic information on known BS traffic where a confliction exists.

123
Q

Name the types of flights that are afforded Cat A flight priority status.

A

Aircraft in emergency

Aircraft which have declared a police emergency

Ambulance/medical aircraft where the safety of life is involved.

124
Q

Name the types of flights afforded Cat B flight priority status.

A

Police flights under normal operational priority

Aircraft engaged in search and rescue ops

Post accident flight checks

Other flights approved by the CAA including open skies observation flights

125
Q

Name the types of flights afforded Cat C flight priority status

A

Royal flights and flights carrying visiting heads of states which have been notified by NOTAM/temp supplement

126
Q

Name the types of flights afforded Class D flight priority status.

A

Flights carrying heads of government or very senior government ministers.

127
Q

Name the types of flights afforded Class E flight priority status.

A

Flight check engaged in or en route to time or weather critical tasks

HEMS flights positioning for the purposes of their duties

Other flights authorised by the CAA

128
Q

Name the types of flights afforded Normal flight priority status.

A

Flight planned aircraft following the standard routing procedures Initial instrument flight tests

129
Q

What flight category are training and non standard flights?

A

Class Z

130
Q

When is a police aircraft likely to declare a police emergency and what category would this make the aircraft?

A

In situations where an immediate response is required where the safety of life is at immediate risk or a serious crime or major incident is in progress. Class A

131
Q

What are the different flight categories relevant to police flights?

A

Cat A- Police emergency, call sign will be suffixed with A

Cat B- Normal operational priority

Cat Z- Authorised for training tests etc

132
Q

What call sign will UK police used and what will be added to denote the Flight being Cat A?

A

UKP- “Police” A will be suffixed to call sign

133
Q

What is a HEMS flight and what flight category can it operate under?

A

Helicopter Emergency Medical Services flight, these operate to incidents where the safety of life is involved.

They can operate as;

Cat A flights when on emergency operational tasks

Cat E when positioning for its duties

Cat Z when training, testing etc.

134
Q

What is the call sign for a he Helimed flight?

A

HLE- “Helimed” Suffixed by A or E when operating under either of these categories of priority. If no suffix than aircraft is performing routine tasks.

135
Q

How is information on a Royal flight disseminated?

A

By a notification message on a Royal flight collective, giving full details. Information on the establishment of CAS-T including vertical limits is promulgated by NOTAM.

136
Q

What is transfer of control?

A

Achieved when a flight operating in accordance with the co-ordination has reached agreed position, level or time.

This can take place at;

  • Agreed reporting point
  • On estimate for FIR boundary
  • At or passing an agreed level
  • Climbing or descending to agreed level-providing standard separation exists
137
Q

Why would transfer of communication take place before transfer of control?

A

So that instructions which become effective later can be issued.

138
Q

What is co-ordination?

A

The act of negotation between two or more parties each vested with the authority to make executive decisions appropriate to the task being discharged. Co-ordination is effected when both parties concerned, on the basis of known intelligence, agree on a course of action. Responsibility for implementing the agreed course of action may be vested in one of the controllers involved.

139
Q

What are Class E+ routes?

A

Same rules as for Class E airspace with the additional caveat that all aircraft must be equipped with transponders.

140
Q

How many Altimeter Setting Regions are there in the UK?

A

20

141
Q

To whom do we provide an Alerting service?

A

Alerting service shall be provided to all aircraft known by ATCU’s to be operating within UK FIR’s

142
Q

What is standing coordination?

A

Standing Co-ordination

Co-ordination which is implemented automatically, on a permanent basis, without communication between the controllers involved. (Achieved by written agreement, and is only valid for those aircraft and circumstances specified in MATS Pt 2)

143
Q

How do we deal with formations inside CAS?

A

Civil and mil formations may transit, arrive and depart in CTA’s, CTR’s, and TMA’s without NSF approval and subject to MATS S1 Ch4 and AIP ENR1.1.14

Consider as non RVSM compliant.

All aircraft will monitor relevant ATC frequency.

Prior to entering CAS obtain confirmation all aircraft within parameters of MATS S1 Ch4, if not remain clear.

If climbing or descending, ensure all aircraft have vacated the level.

Formation leader should confirm when all aircraft have reached an assigned level.

144
Q

What is tactical coordination?

A

Tactical Co-ordination

For individual aircraft provided with, or are about to be provided with, an ATS. Achieved either verbally (face-toface or over a landline) or silently using an electronic aid.

145
Q

How do we deal with formations outside CAS?

A

Consider formation as a single unit for separation purposes (Subject to MATS1 S1 Ch4)

Callsign of leader and number in formation on FPL but ensure pilot confirms number on initial contact.

Allocate a discrete code to lead aircraft. Others squawk standby. Also to last aircraft if stream extends 3nm or more.

During Coordination, traffic information and handover messages state number of aircraft in formation and identify full extent of any formation of more than 1nm in length.

146
Q

What is MARSA?

A

Military Accept responsibility for Separation

This is the name given to the fact that the responsiblity for separation between a/c comprising a formation rests with the formation leader.

147
Q

How are squawks and instructions passed to formations?

A

To the formation leader as the formation is treated as one unit.

148
Q

What suffix is applied to foreign formations?

A

“Flight”

Eg Deadly 31 flight

149
Q

How do Callsigns work regarding formations?

A

UK formations

Blackcat= a UK formation

Blackcat 1= a single element from that formation

USAF or foreign formations

Deadly 31= a single a/c

Deadly 31 flight= Formation.

150
Q

Define identification with regards to PSR

A

The situation which exists when the position indication of a particular aircraft is seen on a situation display and is positively identified. (ICAO)

151
Q

Describe the turn method of identification

A
  • Ascertain the aircraft’s heading
  • Observe the aircraft’s track for a period of time
  • Correlate the observed movement of a particular Position Indication with;

1) The acknowledged execution of an instruction to alter heading by at least 30 degrees.
2) One or more changes of heading of at least 30 degrees, as instructed by another controller, or
3) One or more changes of heading of at least 30 degrees, reported by the pilot.

A turn for identification does not constitute the provision of a surveillance service

Before instructing an aircraft to turn, consider:

  • Terrain
  • PSR coverage
  • Other surveillance returns
  • Rules of the Air
  • Proximity of Controlled airspace boundary

Caution must be exercised to ensure that;

  • the movements of not more than one Position Indication match those of the aircraft
  • This method is not used in areas where aircraft reguarly make turns for navigational purposes
152
Q

What is verification?

A

A check to confirm that the aircrafts Mode C read out is accurate within agreed parameters. There are strict guidelines concerning the use of Mode C data which vary according to whether the readout is verified or not

  • Mode C can be assumed to have been verified if associated with a deemed validated Mode A
  • Verification may be achieved, if necesssary, with the assistance of another ATSU.
  • If in error:- Request the pilot to “check altimeter setting and confirm level” If still in error: “Stop Squawk Altitude. Wrong indication” “Squawk 0000” – to indicate a data error (independent switching off of Mode A & Mode C not available)
153
Q

Describe the position report method

A

By correlating a particular radar position indication with an aircraft reporting its position over, or as bearing and distance from,

• a point shown on the situation display, either

1) An exact reporting point, or
2) Over a notified visual reference point or prominent geographical feature, in either case approved for the purpose and displayed on the situation display. Must not be more than 3,000ft above this point to use it in the UK.

• and by ascertaining that the track of the particular radar position is consistent with the aircraft path or reported heading;

Both must be within PSR coverage to be valid points to use.

Use an alternative method if there is any doubt concerning the identification. The appropriate ATS authority may prescribe conditions for the application of these methods, e.g.:

i) a level or levels above which this method may not be applied in respect of specified navigation aids; or
ii) a distance from the radar site beyond which this method may not be applied.

154
Q

Define an ERP

A

Exact reporting point.

A position established by a navigational facility, which is:

  • Overhead a VOR or NDB
  • A notified fix defined by VOR radials or a VOR radial and a bearing from an NDB
  • A position defined by a VOR radial and a range from a co-located DME
155
Q

When is it necessary to inform a pilot that his a/c has been identified?

A

When the a/c has been identified outside Controlled Airspace. It is no longer required to pass a position report in this situation unless controller deems it necessary.

156
Q

What are the methods for identifying an a/c using SSR?

A
  • Observing compliance with the instruction to set a discrete four digit code.
  • Recognising a validated four digit code Code/callsign conversion procedures may also be used if code/callsign pairing confirmed
  • Observing an IDENT feature when it has been requested

CAUTION:

(1) Possible mis-ident due to simultaneous requests to ident.
(2) Ident cannot be used for aircraft displaying a conspicuity code.

157
Q

What methods are there to validate an assigned Mode A Code?

A
  • Instruct aircraft to squawk assigned code and observe that the correct numbers appear.
  • Instructing the aircraft to “squawk ident” and simultaneously checking that the code numbers are associated with the radar return.
  • Matching a previously identified primary radar return with the assigned code for the flight.

Can be done at the same time as identifying.

158
Q

When may a Mode A code be deemed validated?

A

When the code set can be recognised by the Code Assignment Plan to have been assigned by an ATC unit capable of validating the code, providing the code has not been notified as being corrupt.

159
Q

How are levels assessed using mode C read Outs?

A

By checking that the level assessments correlate with the reported level of the aircraft, either by;

  1. Maintaining an assigned level (level occupied) Mode C readout indicates +/-200ft from that level in RVSM (FL290-410) or +/- 300ft in other airspace, unless the ATS authority specify smaller (not less than +/-200ft). +/-200ft in the UK and on the sims in all airspace.
  2. VACATED a level; when instructed to climb or descend Mode C readout shows a change of more than 300ft (400ft in UK) from the level, and is continuing in the anticipated direction.
  3. PASSING through a level in the climb or descent Mode C readout shows the level has been passed by more than 300ft and is continuing in the required direction. 400ft in the UK
  4. REACHED an assigned level Three successive Mode C readouts or 15 secs (whichever the greater) indicate the appropriate tolerance as in 1.
160
Q

When should a pilot be informed of his a/c’s position?

A
  1. Upon identification, except when the identification is established:
    i) based on the pilot’s report of the aircraft position; or within 1nm of the runway upon departure (and the observed position on the situation display is consistent with the aircraft’s time of departure;) or
    ii) by use of either ADS-B / SSR Mode S aircraft ident or assigned discrete SSR codes and the location of the position indication is consistent with the CPL of the aircraft; Or
    iii) by transfer of identification;
  2. when the pilot requests this information;
  3. when a pilot’s estimate differs significantly from the controller’s estimate based on the observed position;
  4. when the pilot is instructed to resume own navigation after vectoring if the current instructions had diverted the aircraft from a previously assigned route;
  5. immediately before termination of ATS surveillance service, if the aircraft is observed to deviate from its intended route.
161
Q

In what ways can you pass position information to a pilot?

A

a) as a well-known geographical position;
b) magnetic track and distance to a significant point, an enroute navigation aid, or an approach aid;
c) direction (using points of the compass) and distance from a known position;
d) distance to touchdown, if the aircraft is on final approach; or
e) distance and direction from the centre line of an ATS route.

162
Q

What should a controller be cautious of when using the turn method for identification?

A

Caution must be exercised to ensure that;

  • the movements of not more than one Position Indication match those of the aircraft
  • This method is not used in areas where aircraft reguarly make turns for navigational purposes
163
Q

Describe the departing aircraft method of identification

A

Identification is achieved by observing and correlating the Position Indication of a departing aircraft to a known airborne time. Identification is to be achieved within 1nm of the end of the runway used.

Take care to avoid confusion with:

  • Aircraft overflying the airfield
  • Aircraft making a Missed Approach
  • Aircraft departing from an adjacent runway
  • Aircraft holding overhead the airfield
164
Q

When using the departure method of primary identification what must the controller be cautious of?

A

Take care to avoid confusion with:

  • Aircraft overflying the airfield
  • Aircraft making a Missed Approach
  • Aircraft departing from an adjacent runway
  • Aircraft holding overhead the airfield
165
Q

What must a controller be

A

Use an alternative method if there is any doubt concerning the identification. The appropriate ATS authority may prescribe conditions for the application of these methods, e.g.:

i) a level or levels above which this method may not be applied in respect of specified navigation aids or points (3,000ft in the UK); or
ii) a distance from the radar site beyond which this method may not be applied.

166
Q

Over what type of points may the position report method be used?

A

a point shown on the situation display, either

1) An exact reporting point, or
2) Over a notified visual reference point or prominent geographical feature, in either case approved for the purpose and displayed on the situation display. Must not be more than 3,000ft above this point to use it in the UK.

167
Q

Define validation

A

The act of correlating a particular position indication with a specific aircraft target by means of laid down procedures. It is possible to achieve identification and validation at the same time.

168
Q

What are the methods for identifying an a/c using SSR?

A
  • Observing compliance with the instruction to set a discrete four digit code.
  • Recognising a validated four digit code Code/callsign conversion procedures may also be used if code/callsign pairing confirmed
  • Observing an IDENT feature when it has been requested

CAUTION:

(1) Possible mis-ident due to simultaneous requests to ident.
(2) Ident cannot be used for aircraft displaying a conspicuity code.

169
Q

What methods are there for transferring identity of an a/c between controllers?

A

Provided the position indication is in the surveillance cover of both controllers;

a) designation by automated means, provided that only one position indication is indicated with no possible doubt;
b) notification of the aircraft’s discrete SSR code or aircraft address;
c) notification that the aircraft is SSR Mode S / ADS-B equipped with an aircraft ident feature when Mode S/ADS-B coverage is available;
d) direct designation (pointing with the finger) of the position indication, if the two situation displays are adjacent - “That one!”, or if a common “conference” type of situation display is used;
e. designation by reference to bearing and distance from a geographical position or nav facility, together with the track of the observed position indication if the route of the aircraft is not known to both controllers; (ANSP’s may put conditions on this, such as max. distance from point – e.g. UK require a max. of 30nm from a VOR/DME facility.)
f) instructing an aircraft to change SSR code by the transferring controller and the observation of the change by the accepting controller; or
g) issuance of an instruction to the aircraft by the transferring controller to ‘squawk IDENT’ and observation of this response by the accepting controller.
* Note.— Use of procedures f) and g) requires prior coordination between the controllers, since the indications to be observed by the accepting controller are of short duration.*

170
Q

What must a controller do when allocating a squawk?

A

Validate and verify it.

171
Q

What must a controller do if a Mode A code displayed by an aircraft does not correlate with the code that has been assigned?

A

Instruct the pilot to reset the code

  • If an error persists, instruct the pilot to squawk A0000
  • If an error still exists then instruct the pilot to switch off the transponder. ( A corrupt code may be retained for identification and tracking purposes if the Mode C has been verified but adjacent ATSU’s must be informed.)
172
Q

What must a controller do if Mode C data is incorrect?

A

• If in error:

  • Request the pilot to “check altimeter setting and confirm level”
  • If still in error: “Stop Squawk Altitude. Wrong indication” “Squawk 0000”

– to indicate a data error (independent switching off of Mode A & Mode C not available)

173
Q

What is a TMZ?

A
174
Q

What is an RPS?

A

Regional Pressure Setting

The lowest forecast QNH in the ASR

175
Q

Define the Transition Altitude

A

The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitudes. The transition altitude is located at a fixed level and published in aeronautical information publications.

Unless otherwise notified the TA is 3,000ft in the UK

176
Q

Define the Transition Layer

A

The airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level. (from 2017 at least 1000 feet courtesy of SI 2016/01)

177
Q

What level is the Transition Altitude normally in the UK?

A

Unless otherwise notified its 3,000ft

However normally 5,000 or 6,000ft in CAS

178
Q

When is vertical position controlled with reference to FL?

A

When at or above the Transition Level or climbing through it.

179
Q

When do we control vertical position with reference to altitude?

A

When at or below the transistion altitude or descending below it.

180
Q

What is a Royal Flight?

A

An aircraft specifically tasked with carrying one or more members of the Royal Family who have been afforded Royal Flight status by the head of Royal Travel

181
Q

What flight priority status are Royal Flights?

A

C

182
Q

If a Royal Flight is planned to route outside of controlled airspace how is it protected?

A

By the establishment of CAS-T (Controlled Airspace Temporary)

These can be temporary Control Zones, Control Areas, or airways

183
Q

What class of airspace is CAS-T?

A

D

184
Q

For how long is CAS-T established?

A

Temporary Control Zones- 15 minutes before until 30 minutes after the ETA/ETD of the aircraft

Airways- 15 minutes before ETA at the starting point of the airway until 30 minutes after ETD at the end point of the airway.

185
Q

What are the dimensions of a temporary controlled zone?

A

Radius is between 5 and 10nm

Upper limit depends on necessity

186
Q

What are the dimensions of temporary controlled airways?

A

5nm either side of aircraft track, vertical limits are as necessary and promulgated in the NOTAM

187
Q

How is Royal Flight information promulgated?

A

Via NOTAM

188
Q

Do selected helicopter flights for royals normally use CAS-T?

A

No they use Royal low level corridors, the dimensions of which will be as necessary

189
Q

What does SSR code 0037 mean?

A

Helicopter on a Royal flight

190
Q

What does SSR code 0035 mean?

A

Selected Helicopter Flight

191
Q

How long before a potential collision is a TA received?

A

45 seconds

192
Q

How long before a potential collision is a RA given?

A

30 seconds

193
Q

What a/c have to carry TCAS?

A

According to ICAO ACAS II SARPS;

All turbine a/c with a MTOW of more than 5,700kgs or the capacity to carry more than 19 passengers must have ACAS II, currently the only system that meets the specs of this SARP is TCAS II

194
Q

What is the latest version of TCAS?

A

TCAS II (v7.1)

195
Q

How does TCAS work?

A

TCAS II uses range and altitude data obtained by interrogating other aircraft transponders to determine the possibility of collision (the bubble around the aircraft). TCAS II is also able to present bearing information of aircraft intruding into your airspace (the bubble), but uses this information on the display only to assist in visual acquisition of an intruder.

When range and altitude of an intruder are computed and a collision risk is predicted, TCAS II will declare the intruder a “threat” and give manoeuvre advice in visual and aural form. Avoidance manoeuvres using TCAS II are in the vertical plane only. Bearing information produced by TCAS II does not possess the accuracy necessary for determining horizontal avoidance manoeuvres.

TCAS relies on a functioning transponder as all functions use SSR data!!

196
Q

What transponder modes does TCAS use?

A

Mode A/C Transponders Give both Traffic Advisory and Resolution Advisory, but only if Mode C available but any manoeuvre may not be in the logical sense.

Mode S Transponders - communicate’ with each other and ‘agree’ a course of action.

197
Q

Where is the TCAS data displayed?

A

Vertical speed indicator visual display

198
Q

What would you expect a pilot to do on receipt of a TA?

A

Nothing as of yet, they may request specific traffic information on the intruder and prepare for possible RA (heightened alert)

199
Q

What must pilots do on receipt of an RA?

A

Respond immediately to the instructions (unless this would compromise safety) doing only the minimum necessary to resolve the confliction. The pilot shall advise ATC ASAP and return to previous clearance once clear of conflict.

200
Q

What are the level limitations associated with TCAS TA’s and RA’s?

A

Enhanced RA “Increase Descent” is inhibited below 1450ft AGL.

A Descend RA is inhibited below 1100ft AGL.

All RAs inhibited below 1000ft AGL.

All spoken messages inhibited below 500ft AGL.

RAs also inhibited when some GPWS or Windshear warnings are active.

201
Q

What is the Controller reponse to a pilot experiencing an RA?

A

Roger

202
Q

At what point after an RA does the controller become responsible for the standard separation of the a/c experiencing the RA?

A

once

  1. The controller acknowledges a report from the flight crew that the aircraft has resumed the current clearance, or;
  2. The controller acknowledges a report from the flight crew that the aircraft is resuming he current clearance and issues an alternative clearance which is acknowledged by the flight crew.
203
Q

Once off of an operational position what must a controller do in response to an RA?

A

File a MOR report

204
Q

What are the visual display symbols associated with TCAS?

A

UK ADI EU340 (14 decks)

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