ABES Flashcards

1
Q

What are the categories of emergency according to the MATS 2

A
  1. Aircraft Accident/ Aircraft Accident imminent
  2. Aircraft Ground Incident
  3. Full Emergency
  4. Local Standby
  5. Weather Standby
  6. Unlawful Acts
  7. Off aerodrome accidents
  8. Other duties ie Domestic Fire, RTA’s and hazardous materials
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What do we do in the event of an aircraft accident?

A

Operate crash alarm

Fire one will call on frequency with “Pass Your message”

We reply;
Aircraft Accident at……. (crash grid ref.)
Aircraft type…….
Reason…….
POB……..

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What do we do in the event of an Aircraft ground incident?

A
  1. Operate crash alarm
  2. Fire one will call on frequency with “Pass Your message”
  3. We reply;
    Aircraft Ground Incident at……. (crash grid ref.)
    Aircraft type…….
    Reason…….
    POB……..
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What do we do in the event of a Full emergency?

A
  1. Operate crash alarm
  2. Fire one will call on frequency with “Pass Your message”
  3. We reply;
    Runway in us……… (crash grid ref)
    Aircraft type…….
    Callsign/Reg……
    ETA…….
    POB……..
    Nature of problem………
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What do we do in the event of a Local Standby being required?

A
  1. Call RFFS with following message;
    Local Standby
    Runway in use…..
    Aircraft type……..
    Callsign/reg…….
    ETA…….
    POB…….
    Nature of problem…….
  2. If upgrade required press crash alarm and update RFFS over the radio
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What do we do in the event of a weather standby?

A
  1. Call RFFS with the following message;
    Weather Standby
    Reason………. (eg crosswinds, snow or ice on the runway etc)
    Runway in Use
  2. If upgrade required press crash alarm and update the RFFS over the radio
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Who is responsible for Search and Rescue?

A

MOD and Department for Transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define an alerting service

A

A service provided to notify appropriate organisations regarding an a/c in need of SAR aid and assist such organisations as required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

To whom do we provide an Alerting service?

A

Alerting service shall be provided:

– For all aircraft provided with ATC service

– In so far as practicable, to all other aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to the air traffic services; and…

– To any aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the phases of emergency?

A

Emergency Phase- A generic term meaning as the case may be;

1. Uncertainity Phase- Situation wherein doubt exists as to the safety of an a/c or a marine vessel and of the persons on board.

2. Alert Phase- Situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an a/c or marine vessel and of the persons on board.

3. Distress Phase- Situation wherein there is a reasonable certainity that a vessel or other craft, including an a/c or a person on board, is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requires immediate assistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the distress phase of an emergency?

A

A situation wherein there is reasonable certainty that an aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger or require immediate assistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the uncertainity phase of an emergency?

A

–When no communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of 30 minutes after the time a communication should have been received, or…

– from the time an unsuccessful attempt to establish communication with such aircraft was first made, whichever is earlier, or…

– when an aircraft fails to arrive within 30 minutes of the ETA last notified to or estimated by ATSUs, whichever is later, except…

– when no doubt exists as to the safety of the aircraft an its occupants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the alert phase of an emergency?

A

– When following the uncertainty phase, subsequent attempts to establish communication with the aircraft or inquiries to other relevant sources have failed to reveal any news of the aircraft, or…

– When an aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to land within 5 minutes of the estimated time of landing and communication has not been re-established with the aircraft, or…

  • When information has been received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has been impaired, but not to the extent that a forced landing is likely, except…
  • When evidence exists that would allay apprehension as to the safety of the aircraft and its occupants, or…
  • When an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the distress phase of an emergency?

A

When following the alert phase, further unsuccessful attempts to establish communication with the aircraft and more widespread unsuccessful inquiries point to the probability that the aircraft is in distress, or…

  • When the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted, or to be insufficient to enable the aircraft to reach safety, or…
  • When information is received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has been impaired to the extent that a forced landing is likely, or…
  • When information is received or it is reasonably certain that the aircraft is about to make or has made a forced landing, except…
  • When there is reasonable certainty that the aircraft and its occupants are not threatened by grave and imminent danger and do not require immediate assistance.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define distress

A

Distress A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define urgency

A

A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a PAN-PAN medical?

A

A emergency message reserved for medical emergencies on medical transport aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

To whom do we provide an Alerting service?

A

Alerting service shall be provided to all aircraft known by ATCU’s to be operating within UK FIR’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Who acts as the focal point for collating info re an A/C in need of SAR aid?

A

FIC or ACC shall serve as the central point for collecting all information relevant to a state of emergency of an aircraft operating within the FIR or control area concerned and for forwarding such information to the appropriate aeronautical rescue coordination centre (ARCC).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If a state of emergency arises to an aircraft while under ADI or APS control what happens?

A

The ATC unit will notify the ACC/FIC who will in turn notify the ARCC (Aeronautical Rescue Coordination Centre). They do not need to do this though if the nature of the emergency is such that the notification is unnecessary.

Even if the ARCC is not notified the unit shall alert and take other necessary steps to set in motion all appropriate local rescue and emergency organisations which can give the immediate assistance required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Who is responsible initiating action?

A

Normally rests with the unit last in communication with the a/c or that which receives outside information from an outside source.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Name three types of SAR units and who coordinates them?

A
  1. Coastguard
  2. Mountain Rescue Teams
  3. Civilian Police

Aeronautical Rescue Coordination Centre (ARCC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe the organisation of SAR services in the UK

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the distress frequencies in the UK?

A

121.5 MHz- most of UK above 3,000ft, based at Swanwick (D&D)

243MHz for Military

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does squawk 7700 mean?

A

Emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does squwak 7500 mean?

A

Hijack/unlawful interference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does squwak 7600 mean?

A

Comms failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is an ELT?

A

Emergency Locator Transmitter

Transmits on 406MHz used for locating an aircraft in distress (older ones use 121.5 or 243 MHz but these frequencies are not monitored for these)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is an EPIRB?

A

Emergency Position Indicator Radio Beacon

For maritime distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is a PLB?

A

Personal Locator Beacon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the distress frequencies in the UK?

A

Civil = 121.5MHz

Military= 243MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Above what level are the D & D frequencies available?

A

3,000ft Altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What should a pilot do before flying into areas where SAR operations are in progress?

A

➢Contact ARCC by telephone before leaving

➢Flight plan with area entering/leaving times & operating height. Address to ARCC

➢Check weather en-route & in search area

➢Monitor distress 121.5mhz & scene of search 123.1mhz, avoid transmitting

➢UNICOM channel 130.425mhz for SAR ops (& for glider pilots)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When are pilots advised to file a flight plan?

A
  • When flying more than 10nm away from the UK coast
  • When flying over areas where SAR operations would be difficult such as sparesely populated areas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is autotriangulation?

A

How D & D determine your position when transmitting on the distress frequencies

Only available above 3,000ft due to antenna coverage

Almost instantaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is a TDA?

A

Temporary Danger Area

TDAs established around incident area, & promulgated by NOTAM.
If unable to achieve objective, restriction of flying (emergency) regulations invoked, promulgated by NOTAM, making it an offence to fly in designated area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the callsign for fixed wing SAR?

A

rescue 21 (2 numbers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What would be the callsign for a helicopter rescue aircraft?

A

rescue 341 (3 numbers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What flight category is a HEMS flight during an emergency?

A

CAT A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What flight category is a HEMS flight when repositioning?

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What flight category is a HEMS flight during training?

A

Z

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When are aerodrome control responsible for alerting the RFFS?

A
  • An aircraft accident has occurred on or in the vicinity of the aerodrome.
  • Information is received that the safety of an aircraft has been impaired.
  • Requested by the flight crew.
  • When deemed necessary or desirable.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What does the pneumonic ASSISTS mean withe reference to the controller and pilot?

A

A- Acknowledge

S- Separate

S- Silence

I- Inform

S- Support

T- Time

S- Squawk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the general principles you would consider as a controller dealing with an emergency?

A
  • Acknowledge the Mayday or Pan
  • Be aware
  • Consider all means at your disposal
  • Beware complacency in a familiar situation as differences may be subtle
  • Teamwork
  • Remain calm
  • Determine exact nature of problem
  • Assess before acting
  • Prioritise
  • Off-load non essential tasks
  • Inform, advise and coordinate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the phraseology for acknowledging a Mayday or Pan?

A

“C/S, Avon Tower, Roger Mayday/Pan-Pan”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the phraseology for imposing and cancelling silence on the frequency during an emergency?

A

“All stations, Avon Tower, Stop transmitting, mayday”

Cancelling= “All stations, Avon Tower, distress traffic ended”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the phraseology for transferring non emergency traffic to another frequency?

A

“Mayday (a/c c/s), all other aircraft contact … on … out”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When do we alert the local external emergency services of emergency situations?

A

During a Aircraft accident (including imminent ones) and fulle emergencies.

Also when outside the radius of action of the RFFS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

In what ways could we as Aerodrome controllers determine the position of an a/c?

A

Pilot report

ATM

VDF bearings

Map ref/ position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the actions of ATC when an emergency has been declared?

A
  • Unless stated, ascertain type of emergency, intention of crew, position and level of aircraft.
  • Decide upon the appropriate assistance
  • Enlist the help of other ATS units or other services as necessary.
  • Provide crew with any information requested as well as suitable aerodromes, minimum safe altitudes (MSA) and weather information.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the three questions we use to determine severity?

A
  1. Are you able to maintain height?
    This will allow you to consider time and distance available, and pilots workload.
  2. Can you affect a safe landing?
    This will allow you to understand the implications for your or another airfield.
  3. Report your POB.
    his will save time from sending the RQS message and in case a radio failure takes place – you never know if and when you may lose this vital lifeline.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Do ATC need the pilot to declare and emergency before taking precautionary action?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are a pilots priorities during an emergency?

A

1) Aviate
2) Navigate
3) Communicate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

When may pilots jettison fuel?

A

In an emergency situation
Should take place at least above 10,000ft AGL

However if not possible to remain above 10,000ft or above water then it must be at least 7,000ft AGL in winter and 4,000ft AGL in summer (to allow evaporation of fuel before it hits the ground)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are RFFS categories determined by?

A

The length and width of largest a/c using the aerodrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What RFFS categories are there?

A

Special & 1-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What helicopter RFFS categories are there?

A

H1- H3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the definition of the response time for the RFFS?

A

Defined as the time between initial call to RFFS and the time the first responding vehicle(s) is in position and, if required, to produce foam at rate of at least 50% of discharge rate specified.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What do we do in the event of RFFS category reduction?

A

We notify arriving and departing aircraft as well as putting it on the NOTAM and ATIS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Whose decision is it whether a RFFS category is acceptable for a/c operation?

A

Flight crew and aircraft operator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the phraseology for passing a message concerning the reduction in RFFS category to a/c over the RT?

A

“Message from the Aerodrome Operator, rescue and fire facilities reduced to category (number).”

Or

“Message from the aerodrome operator, no rescue and fire fighting facilities available.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Who else apart from the a/c do we inform about a reduction in RFFS category?

A

Parent ACC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What priority over other traffic do emergency vehicles have when dealing with an emergency?

A

The get top priority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring RFFS informed of any dangerous goods on an A/C?

A

ATCU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is an aircraft accident/ aircraft accident imminent?

A

When an Aircraft Accident has occurred or is inevitable on or in the vicinity of the aerodrome.

At some units Aircraft Accident covers both situations.

67
Q

What is an Aircraft Ground Incident?

A

When an aircraft on the ground is known to have an emergency situation other than an accident, which requires the attendance of the emergency services.

68
Q

What is a full emergency?

A

When it is known that an aircraft in the air is, or is suspected to be in such difficulties that there is danger of an accident.

69
Q

What is a local standby?

A

When it is known that an aircraft has, or is suspected to have, developed some defect but the trouble would not normally involve any serious difficulty in effecting a safe landing.

70
Q

What is a weather standby?

A

When weather conditions are such as to render a landing or take-off difficult or difficult to observe (e.g. Strong crosswind, poor visibility, ice or snow on the runway, etc.).

71
Q

What are off-aerodrome accidents?

A

aircraft accidents occurring outside the aerodrome boundaries.

72
Q

What is the frequency for the RFFS?

A

121.6MHz

Keep the a/c on your frequency as well, this frequency is only to allow direct comms between the RFFS and the pilot.

73
Q

Who is responsible for A/C removal after an accident?

A

Aerodrome Authority and aircraft operator

74
Q

Whose permission is required before removing an aircraft following a reportable accident?

A

AAIB, unless any delay of the removal further endangers life.

75
Q

When do we commence RCF procedures?

A
  • If the a/c has squawked 7600, or;
  • Cannot maintain comms with ATSU, or;
  • Cannot maintain comms with other aircraft.
76
Q

What does STORCALE stand for in RCF?

A

The procedures adopted by ATC

  • S= Separate
  • T= Transmit
  • O= Other a/c informed
  • R= Request assistance from other ATSU’s
  • C= Continue to transmit info that aircraft require
  • A= Alternate aerodromes
  • L= Liase with operator
  • E= Emergency, action as considered appropriate
77
Q

If an aircraft experiencing radio failure experiences a further emergency, what code should they squawk?

A

7700

78
Q

If you transmit “delay not determined” to an RCF aircraft?

A

That the runway is unusable or unavailable. Aircraft should therefore divert.

79
Q

When may normal ops be resumed when there is an RCF aircraft?

A

Once it has landed or once it has been established that safety will not be impaired.

80
Q

How would an aircraft initiate use of the speechless code

A

….= H for homing.

81
Q

What does . mean in speechless code?

A

Yes

82
Q

What does .. Mean in speechless code?

A

No

83
Q

What does … mean in speechless code?

A

Say Again

84
Q

What does -..- mean in speechless code?

A

Further emergency

85
Q

What would one long dash of a carrier wave mean in speechless code

A

manoeuvre completed.

86
Q

What callsign is assigned to speechless aircraft?

A

Speechless (1, 2 etc)

87
Q

How do we use the speechless code?

A

Used when aircraft can’t communicate with normal modulation but is able to transmit a carrier wave.

Use closed questions to determine nature of emergency and serverity

  1. Can you maintain height?
  2. Can you make a normal descent?
  3. Can you make a normal landing?

Repeat instructions given as a/c unable to read back

88
Q

What does the pilot do during VMC procedure when RCF?

A

➢Select SSR Mode A, Code 7600 with Mode C - and land at nearest suitable aerodrome.

➢Take account of visual landing aids and watch for visual signals.

➢Report arrival to appropriate ATC unit ASAP.

➢When VMC cannot be maintained, adopt IMC procedures.

89
Q

When given to an aircraft in flight what does a whit flashing light mean?

A

Land at the aerodrome and proceed to apron

90
Q

When given to an aircraft in flight what does a red flashing light mean?

A

Aerodrome unsafe do not land

91
Q

When given to an aircraft in flight what does a green flashing light mean?

A

Return for landing

92
Q

When given to an aircraft in flight what does a steady red light mean?

A

Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

93
Q

When given to an aircraft in flight what does a steady green light mean?

A

Clear to land

94
Q

When given to an aircraft on the ground what does a red flashing light mean?

A

vacate the landing area in use

95
Q

When given to an aircraft on the ground what does a steady red light mean?

A

stop

96
Q

When given to an aircraft on the ground what does a green flashing light mean?

A

clear to taxi

97
Q

When given to an aircraft on the ground what does a white flashing light mean?

A

return to starting point on the aerodrome

98
Q

When given to an aircraft on the ground what does a steady green light mean?

A

cleared for take-off

99
Q

How would you expect a RT fail aircraft to join?

A

Be prepared for any sort of join.

100
Q

What is a strayed aircraft?

A

Strayed Aircraft: An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track, or which reports it is lost.

101
Q

What is an unidentified aircraft?

A

Unidentified Aircraft: An aircraft which has been observed or reported to be operating in a given area but whose identity has not been established.

102
Q

What do we as ATC do if a strayed aircraft enters our area?

A
  • Attempt to establish communication (unless it already exists) and inform the pilot of his position.
  • Inform other ATS units into whose area the aircraft has strayed or may stray.
  • Request assistance from D&D, other ATS units and other aircraft in establishing communication with the strayed aircraft.
  • Notify the Civil Watch Supervisor at the parent ACC if unlawful interference is suspected.
103
Q

What must we as ATC do if an aircraft is lost in our area?

A

assist him using available means such as VDF, D & D remain aware of local terrain and obstructions

104
Q

What must we do if an aircraft unidentified aircraft enters your area?

A
  • Attempt to establish the identity of the aircraft. • Attempt to establish two-way communication.
  • Inform D&D & request their assistance in establishing the identity and two way communication with the aircraft.
  • Attempt to obtain information from other aircraft in the area.
  • Notify those units consulted when the aircraft’s identification has been established.
  • Complete MOR.
105
Q

Why do we use frequency monitoring codes?

A

To allow other units to more easily determine who an aircraft is listening to, allowing them to get messages to that aircraft more easily and therefore avoid zone infringements.

106
Q

Does the use of a frequency monitoring code imply a service is being provided?

A

No. Mode A must not be considered validated and Mode C considered unverified.

107
Q

Why do diversions occur?

A
  • Weather
  • Obstructions
  • Failure A/C equipment
  • Failure ground equipment
  • Unacceptable delay
  • Closure
108
Q

What do we do in the event of a diversion?

A
  • Call APC
  • Hold a/c (VRP or in vicinity)
  • Obtain clearance
  • Pass diversion to a/c
  • Pass alternate wx if required
  • Advise operator
109
Q

If an aircraft diverts into your airport what do you need to send to the original destination aerodrome?

A

An arrival message so they know it has landed safely

110
Q

Would you consider RCF procedures or actions if an aircraft is overdue?

A

Yes as it may just not be able to talk to anyone.

111
Q

What things should you consider before going full overdue actions?

A
  • A/C Type Strict adherence to the flight plan cannot be expected of a non-radio light aircraft.
  • Route The need for prompt action if the route is over sparsely populated or mountainous areas or long stretches of water.
  • Weather Possible route change or diversion to avoid adverse WX.
112
Q

What are the prelimenary actions for overdue action?

A

➢Commence not later than 30 minutes after ETA.

➢Check flight plan.

➢Consult operator.

➢Confirm ATD with aerodrome of departure.

➢Inform ACC and in co-ordination with: -Check alternates. -Send RQS message. -Check aerodromes near route.

113
Q

What are the actions for full overdue action?

A

➢Commence not later than 1 hour after ETA.

➢Notify the parent ACC that the aircraft is now fully overdue and state action already taken.

➢In consultation with ACC keep trying to trace aircraft, eg local police or any other bodies for possible forced landing or crash.

114
Q

When is an aircraft considered to be a non appearance?

A

If it doesn’t land after 5 minutes of being cleared to.

  • Alert radar services.
  • Aircraft in vicinity to keep a lookout.
  • Caution with movement of aerodrome traffic.
  • Alert emergency services.
  • Check aerodromes in the vicinity.
  • If necessary, send RQS message.
  • Advise ACC.
115
Q

Give some examples of what would tell you that an aircraft has been hijacked?

A
  • Unauthorised deviation from cleared flight profile
  • Refusal or inability to comply with ATC instructions (including vectoring) for no good reason
  • Loss of RT contact, particularly associated with flight profile deviation
  • Unauthorised SSR code changes; extended use of IDENT
  • Use of non-standard phraseology by the crew, or other covert attempt to highlight the situation (marked change in voice characteristics, etc)
  • Selection of SSR code A7500
  • Notification from non-official sources (e.g. news agencies, etc)
  • Open RT transmitter from the cockpit
  • Non-ATC related RT transmission, e.g. political statement
  • Non-specific threat passed via third party
116
Q

Who has overall responsibility over a hijack position?

A

The civil watch supervisor at the ACC until the Air Defence Authority takes over.

117
Q

What must ATC do if an aircraft is hijacked?

A

a) transmit, and continue to transmit, information pertinent to the safe conduct of the flight, without expecting a reply from the aircraft
b) monitor and plot the progress of the flight with the means available, and coordinate transfer of control with adjacent ATS units without requiring transmissions or other responses from the aircraft, unless communication with the aircraft remains normal

118
Q

What is the phraseology for checking the aircraft is intentionally squawking 7500?

A

“(Callsign) confirm you are squawking assigned code…” (code assigned by ATC that it would otherwise be squawking).

119
Q

What is the phraseology for the witholding of clearances?

A
  • “(callsign), I am instructed by Her Majesty’s Government to refuse entry into United Kingdom Airspace. What are your intentions?”
  • “(callsign), I am instructed by Her Majesty’s Government to inform you that landing clearance has been refused for any airfield within the United Kingdom.”
  • “(callsign), I am instructed by Her Majesty’s Government that you are to hold at (fix or GPS position) at (level). Acknowledge.”
120
Q

How do we pass the messages from the government?

A

Verbatim

121
Q

Who do we report hijacking to?

A

➢ Watch Supervisor at parent ACC to be advised immediately.

➢ Information on hijacks in European airspace to be reported to other states.

➢ Reporting action listed in National procedures.

122
Q

Are bomb warnings treated as an emergency?

A

yes if its an amber or red warning.

123
Q

Who assesses the risk of a bomb threat?

A

MOD, Airline operators, airport operators and Department for Transport.

124
Q

What are the categories for bomb warnings?

A
  • Red= credible threat of a specific target
  • Amber= one or more targets or doubt about credibility
  • Green= doesn’t identify a target or lacks credibility
125
Q

Where would you find procedures for bomb warnings?

A

Mats 1 sect 5 and local emergency instructions

126
Q

What would you expect the aircraft to do if the captain if he initiates a distress message with “bomb on board”?

A

Land immediately.

127
Q

What are the procedures for dealing with an aircraft with a bomb warning?

A

➢ Avoid densely populated areas and unless absolutely essential, landing particularly at main hub airport.
i.e. London Heathrow.
➢Co-ordinate withACCSupervisor.
➢ Do not provide advice or suggestions concerning action to be taken by the flight crew in relation to the explosive device.

➢On receipt of a bomb warning the senior controller is to ensure Local Emergency Orders are initiated.
➢If aircraft is in flight, the watch supervisor at parent ACC to be informed - messages to pilots from operators must be referred and coordinated with ACC supervisor.

➢ If aircraft likely to land, Local Emergency Orders are to be activated - this will invariably mean parking the aircraft in a designated isolation area clear of other aircraft and installations.
➢ Reporting action – ECCAIRS MOR

128
Q

Who has executive control over an aircraft that has called on 121.5MHz?

A

D & D

Even if they have transferred operational control to another unit they still retain executive control.

129
Q

What must a pilot of an aircraft carrying dangerous goods do if he experiences an emergency?

A

He must inform the ATSU immediately with full details of the type and nature of the dangerous cargo so that this information may be relayed to the RFFS if necessary.

130
Q

Who would the senior controller tell about an aircraft in an emergency carrying dangerous goods?

A

The aerodrome operator and RFFS asap

This info must also be passed to relevant emergency services

If its a military aircraft then D & D must also be informed.

131
Q

What type of aerodrome should be considered in the first instance for an aircraft in an emergency carrying explosives?

A

A military one

If not possible then Prestwick or Humberside

132
Q

Where would you find the RCF procedures for a specific aerodromes approach?

A

On the aerodromes SMAC in the AIP AD 2 section

133
Q

In accordance with the IMC RCF procedure what would you expect an aircraft on a SID to do?

A

Continue to follow the profile of the SID until complete and then maintain speed and level for 7 minutes after that.

134
Q

If an aircraft experiences radio failure during its flight how long and from when would you expect it to continue present speed and level?

A

From when it squawks 7600 it should continue for either 7 minutes on the same level and speed or if it has been radar vectored it will continue for 3 minutes before rejoining the FPL route at the nearest suitable point

135
Q

Why do we pass EAT’s to RCF aircraft?

A

For planning purposes so that we know roughly when the aircraft will aim to be over either a landing aid or making an approach to land

136
Q

If an SVFR aircraft experiencing a Radio Failure has been given a clearance to enter the CTR but has not yet done so can he enter the CTR?

A

No

137
Q

What would you expect an SVFR aircraft that has been cleared to enter the CTR and is inside it during RCF?

A

To continue and land in accordance with the SVFR clearance

If transiting will leave the CTR by the most direct route.

138
Q

Where is D & D based?

A

Swanwick

139
Q

When are inspections carried out?

A
  • At least one a day.
  • 24 hour station: as soon as practicable after first light.
  • At the cessation of work on manoeuvring area.
  • When runway not previously inspected brought into use.
  • Following aircraft accident.
  • After abandoned take-off by turbine engined a/c due to engine malfunction, or by aircraft with burst tyres.
  • Non- 24 hour: before flying commences.
  • Further inspection before night flying.
  • During snow and ice conditions as weather conditions warrant.
  • When considered necessary by ATC or Aerodrome Operator or per MATS 2.
140
Q

Name some runway contaminants

A
  • Water
  • Ice
  • Snow
  • Slush
141
Q

What does dry mean in terms of runway contamination?

A

Surface not affected by water, slush, snow or ice

142
Q

What does Damp mean in terms of runway contamination?

A

When the surface shows a change of colour due to moisture

143
Q

What does wet mean in terms of runway contamination?

A

When the surface is soaked but no significant patches of standing water are visible

144
Q

What does water patches mean in terms of runway contamination?

A

When significant patches of standing water are visible (ie. more than 25% of the runway surface is covered by water more than 3mm deep)

145
Q

What does flooded mean in terms of runway contamination?

A

When extensive standing water is visible (more than 50% of the runway surface is covered by water more than 3mm deep)

146
Q

When can you pass unofficial information regarding changes in the runway state?

A

only when conditions get worse,

never do report them as better than they are.

147
Q

What is the phraseology for getting an aircraft to cross a red stop bar?

A

“G-CD, stop bar unserviceable, cross red stop-bar via A1… (take-off/line up)”

148
Q

How would an aircraft in flight acknowledge light signals?

A

By day- By rocking wings

By night- flashing on and off of landing lights

149
Q

How would an aircraft on the ground acknowledge light signals?

A

By day- by moving the aircrafts ailerons or rudder

By night- flashing on and off the landing or navigation lights

150
Q

What does the pneumonic NITS mean?

A

Used by pilots to structure emergency briefings to cabin crew and ATC

N- Nature of Emergency

I- Intentions of Flight crew

T- Time available

S- Special handling requirements

151
Q

What does the pneumonic DODAR refer to?

A

Pilot response to emergency

D- Diagnose Problem

O- Options, which are available

D- Decide on best option

A- Take action to bring that option around

R- Review situation and actions taken

152
Q

What does the term minimum fuel mean? Does this consitute an emergency?

A

That the aircraft’s fuel levels are such that no further delay or diversion can be accepted. The controller has no obligation to prioritise this traffic as Minimum fuel is not an emergency.

153
Q

If a pilot is running critically low on fuel what phrase can he use to notify ATC?

A
  • Minimum fuel- this says fuel is low and no further delay can be accepted, however this is not an emergency
  • Mayday, mayday, mayday fuel- Means the fuel shortage is now so critical that the situation has become an emergency.
154
Q

What is the definition of a runway incursion?

A

A runway incursion is any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle or person on the protected area of a surface designated for aircraft take-off and landing. The protected area of a surface for aircraft take-off and landing is determined by the existence and location of the runway strip, clear and graded area, obstacle free zone and ILS sensitive areas. The precise configuration of these areas is dependent on the aerodrome layout and the operations that are taking place.

155
Q

What is the definition of a reportable accident?

A

An Occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft in which a person is fatally or seriously injured as a result of;

  • Being in the aircraft
  • through direct contact with the aircraft
  • Or from jet blast

(doesn’t include medical emergencies from natural causes, self inflicted injuries or injuries caused by another passenger)

It is also any occurrence in which the aircraft sustains damage or structural failure which adversely affects the structural strength, performance or flight characteristics of the aircraft, or the aircraft is missing/ inaccessible.

Sorry if this is clunky its an attempt to paraphrase a very large definition from MATS 1, sec 6, ch 3, pg 1.

156
Q

What does ANC stand for?

A

Pilots priorities during an emergency

  • Aviate
  • Navigate
  • Communicate
157
Q

What is a CHIRP report?

A

Confidential Human Factors Incident Reporting Programme

Issues are able to be raised anonymously

158
Q

What form would you use to report a wake turbulence incident?

A

SRG 1423

159
Q

What form would be used to report bird strikes?

A

SRG 2004 (also this has already been withdrawn so don’t know why we’re still taught this)

160
Q

What form is used to report a breach of SCRATCOH?

A

SRG 1410

161
Q

What form is used to report a breach of legislation?

A

CA 939