UDEMY CompTIA Network (N10-008) Practice Exam #4

Question 1

You are installing a Small Office/Home Office (SOHO) network consisting of a router with 2 ports, a switch with 8 ports, and a hub with 4 ports. The router has one port connected to a cable modem and one port connected to switch port #1. The other 6 ports on the switch each have a desktop computer connected to them. The hub’s first port is connected to switch port #2. Based on the description provided, how many collision domains exist in this network?

9
3
8
11

Answer 1

OBJ-2.1: Based on the description provided, there are 9 collision domains. Each port on the router is a collision domain (2), each port on the switch is a collision domain (8), and all of the ports on the hub make up a single collision domain (1). But, since one of the ports on the router is connected to one of the switch ports, they are in the same collision domain (-1). Similarly, the hub and the switch share a common collision domain connected over the switch port (-1). This gives us 9 collision domains total: the 8 ports on the switch and the 1 port on the route that is used by the cable modem.

Question 2

Which of the following ethernet standards is used with a single-mode fiber optic cable?

10GBase-LR
10GBase-SR
1000Base-T
40GBase-T

Answer 2

OBJ-1.3: 10GBase-LR is a standard for 10 Gigabit Ethernet over single-mode fiber optic cabling. 10GBase-SR is a 10 Gigabit Ethernet LAN standard for use with multimode fiber optic cables using short-wavelength signaling. 1000Base-T and 40GBase-T are ethernet standards that use copper wiring. For the exam, remember the memory aid, “S is not single,” which means that if the naming convention does not contain Base-S as part of its name then it uses a single-mode fiber cable.

Question 3

What benefit does network segmentation provide?

Port mirroring
Link aggregation
High availability through redundancy
Security through isolation

Answer 3

OBJ-4.3: Network segmentation in computer networking is the act of splitting a computer network into subnetworks, each being a network segment. Advantages of such splitting are primarily for increasing performance and improving security through isolation. Link aggregation is the combining of multiple network connections in parallel by any of several methods, in order to increase throughput beyond what a single connection could sustain, to provide redundancy in case one of the links should fail, or both. Port mirroring is used on a network switch to send a copy of network packets seen on one switch port to a network monitoring connection on another switch port. Redundancy is an operational requirement of the data center that refers to the duplication of certain components or functions of a system so that if they fail or need to be taken down for maintenance, others can take over while maintaining high availability of your network and systems. Network segmentation, by itself, does not provide link aggregation, port mirroring, or additional redundancy.

Question 4

Johnny is trying to download a file from a remote FTP server but keeps receiving an error that a connection cannot be opened. Which of the following should you do FIRST to resolve the problem?

Ensure that port 161 is open
Ensure that port 20 is open
Validate the security certificate from the host
Flush the DNS cache on the local workstation

Answer 4

OBJ-5.5: Executing an FTP connection from a client is a two-stage process requiring the use of two different ports. Once the user enters the name of the server and the login credentials in the FTP client’s authorization fields, the FTP connection is attempted over port 21. Once the connection is established, FTP sends the data over port 20 back to the client from the server. For FTP to function properly, you should have both ports 20 and 21 open.

Question 5

According to the OSI model, at which of the following layers is data encapsulated into bits?

Layer 3
Layer 1
Layer 4
Layer 2

Answer 5

OBJ-1.1: Data is transmitted at Layers 5, 6, and 6 of the OSI model. At Layer 4, the data is encapsulated into segments. At layer 3, the segments are encapsulated into packets. At layer 2, the packets are encapsulated into frames. At layer 1, the frames are encapsulated into bits.

Question 6

Users connecting to an SSID appear to be unable to authenticate to the captive portal. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

CSMA/CA
SSL certificates
RADIUS
WPA2 security key

Answer 6

OBJ-5.4: Captive portals usually rely on 802.1x, and 802.1x uses RADIUS for authentication. The IEEE 802.1x standard is a network authentication protocol that opens ports for network access when an organization authenticates a user’s identity and authorizes them for access to the network. This defines port security. The user’s identity is determined based on their credentials or certificate, which is confirmed by the RADIUS server. The Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service (RADIUS) is used to manage remote and wireless authentication infrastructure. Users supply authentication information to RADIUS client devices, such as wireless access points. The client device then passes the authentication data to an AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) server that processes the request. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is a security protocol developed by Netscape to provide privacy and authentication over the Internet. SSL is application-independent that works at layer 5 [Session] and can be used with a variety of protocols, such as HTTP or FTP. Client and server set up a secure connection through PKI (X.509) certificates. Carrier-sense multiple access with collision avoidance (CSMA/CA) is a type of network multiple access method that uses carrier sensing, but nodes attempt to avoid collisions by beginning transmission only after the channel is sensed to be idle. CSMA/CA occurs in the background when communicating with a wireless access point and would not prevent the user from authenticating to the captive portal. A WPA2 security key is a preshared password used to authenticate and connect to a wireless access point. If the user connected to the SSID, then the WPA2 security key was valid.

Question 7

A network technician is asked to redesign an Ethernet network before some new monitoring software is added to each network’s workstation. The new software will broadcast statistics from each host to a monitoring server for each of the company’s five departments. The added network traffic is a concern of management that must be addressed. How should the technician design the new network?

Increase the number of switches on the network to reduce broadcast messages

Place each department in a separate VLAN to increase broadcast domains

Increase the collision domains to compensate for the added broadcast messages

Add a router and create a separate segment for all the monitored hosts

Answer 7

OBJ-2.3: Placing each of the departments on separate VLANs will help minimize the added network traffic caused by the broadcast messages. A virtual LAN is any broadcast domain that is partitioned and isolated in a computer network at the data link layer. Each VLAN becomes its own broadcast domain and this would minimize the total number of broadcast messages sent to every client on the network. For traffic to enter or leave a VLAN, it must go through a router or a layer 3 switch. A collision domain will not prevent a broadcast message from being sent. Increasing the number of switches will not reduce or increase the number of broadcast messages. To minimize the number of broadcast messages, you need to increase the number of broadcast domains.

Question 8

A small real estate office has about 15 workstations and would like to use DHCP to assign classful IP addresses to each workstation. The subnet only has one octet for the host portion of each device. Which of the following IP addresses could be assigned as the default gateway?

169.254.0.1
192.168.0.1
10.0.0.1
172.16.0.1

Answer 8

OBJ-1.4: Since the question wants a classful IP addressing scheme to be assigned to devices, and only one octet being available for the host portion, it would need to be a Class C address. The only Class C address to choose from is 192.168.0.1 based on the options provided. The IP 10.0.0.1 is a Class A address. The IP 172.16.0.1 is a Class B address. The IP 169.254.0.01 is an APIPA (reserved) address. A non-routable IP address (in this case 192.168.0.1), also known as a private IP address, is not assigned to any organization and does not need to be assigned by an Internet Service Provider. Therefore, the 192.168.0.1 could be assigned to the outside local IP address of the router in a Network Address Translation based network.

Question 9

When installing a network cable with multiple strands, a network technician pulled the cable past a sharp edge. This resulted in the copper conductors on several of the wire strands being exposed. If these exposed conductors come into contact with each other, they can form an electrical connection. Which of the following conditions would result in this scenario?

Electrostatic discharge
Crosstalk
Short
Open

Answer 9

OBJ-5.2: A short is an electrical term that is an abbreviation for a short circuit. A short generally means that an unintended connection between two points is allowing current to flow where it should not. In this scenario, the short is caused by the damaged cable in which two or more of the conductors are connected. This has caused the cable to fail and will report as “short” when using a cable tester. An open is the opposite of a short. An open is reported when there is no connection between the two ends of a cable or wire. This can occur when a wire or cable is accidentally cut in half. Electrostatic discharge is the sudden flow of electricity between two electrically charged objects. Crosstalk is the coupling of voltage to an adjacent line through mutual coupling composed of a mutual inductance, a coupling capacitance, or both. Crosstalk occurs within a twisted pair cable when the pairs become untwisted or no shielding or insulation remains.

Question 10

A technician installs a new WAP, and users in the area begin to report poor performance. The technician uses ping, and only 3 of the 5 packets respond. When the technician tests the connection from a wired connection, it responds with 5 of 5 packets. What tool should the network technician use next?

Port scanner tool
Interface monitoring tool
Spectrum analyzer tool
Packet capture tool

Answer 10

OBJ-5.3: A spectrum analyzer is a device that displays signal amplitude (strength) as it varies by signal frequency. Since the issue only occurs when connecting wirelessly, it is almost like a spectrum interference issue. Alternatively, you could attempt to conduct a wireless site survey using a WiFi analyzer, but that option wasn’t presented in this question. A packet capture tool is used to log and collect packets as they cross the wired or wireless network. An interface monitoring tool would collect data related to performance, bandwidth (utilization), errors and discard rate for a singular interface or switchport. A Port scanner is used to test if a particular port or port range is open, closed, or filtered. Since this appears to be a wireless connectivity issue, only a spectrum analyzer could help identify the connectivity issues. This issue is most likely associated with interference around the channels being used by this wireless access device.

Question 11

What is the first flag used in the establishment of a TCP connection or during the initiation of a three-way handshake between two hosts?

SYN
FIN
ACK
RS

Answer 11

OBJ-1.1: A synchronization (SYN) flag is set in the first packet sent from the sender to a receiver as a means of establishing a TCP connection and initiating a three-way handshake. Once received, the receiver sends back a SYN and ACK flag set in a packet which is then sent back to the initiator to confirm they are ready to initiate the connection. Finally, the initial sender replies with an ACK flag set in a packet so that the three-way handshake can be completed and data transmission can begin. A reset (RST) flag is used to terminate the connection. A finish (FIN) flag is used to request that the connection be terminated.

Question 12

You are working as a cybersecurity analyst intern at Dion Training. You have been asked to create a file that contains any data transmitted as part of a malware beacon from a client in a sandboxed wireless network. Which of the following tools should you utilize to create this file?

IP scanner
Packet capture
Your answer is incorrect
Port scanner
WiFi analyzer

Answer 12

OBJ-5.3: A packet capture tool is used to collect data packets being transmitted on a network and save them to a packet capture file (pcap) for later analysis. Packet capture tools are useful when attempting to capture traffic for malware analysis as a cybersecurity analyst. A WiFi analyzer is used to gather information about the available wireless networks, troubleshoot wireless networking issues, ensure optimal router placement, and identify existing coverage areas. A port scanner is used to determine which ports and services are open and available for communication on a target system. An IP scanner is used to monitor a network’s IP address space in real-time and identify any devices connected to the network.

Question 13

Question 38
Incorrect
Which type of personnel control is being implemented if Kirsten must receive and inventory any items that her coworker, Bob, orders?

Dual control
Correct answer
Separation of duties
Mandatory vacation
Background check

Answer 13

OBJ-4.1: This organization uses separation of duties to ensure that neither Kirsten nor Bob can exploit the organization’s ordering processes for their gain. Separation of duties is the concept of having more than one person required to complete a particular task to prevent fraud and error. Dual control, instead, requires both people to act together. For example, a nuclear missile system uses dual control and requires two people to each turn a different key simultaneously to allow for a missile launch to occur. Mandatory vacation policies require employees to take time away from their job and detect fraud or malicious activities. A background check is a process a person or company uses to verify that a person is who they claim to be and provides an opportunity for someone to check a person’s criminal record, education, employment history, and other past activities to confirm their validity.

Question 14

Which of the following types of network documentation would be used to illustrate the data flow across the network and include the IP addresses and subnets used by the different network devices?

Physical network diagram
Logical network diagram
Wiring diagram
Site survey report

Answer 14

OBJ-3.2: A logical diagram is used to illustrate the flow of data across a network and is used to show how devices communicate with each other. These logical diagrams usually include the subnets, network objects and devices, routing protocols and domains, voice gateways, traffic flow, and network segments in a given network. A physical network diagram is used to show the actual physical arrangement of the components that make up the network, including cables and hardware. Wiring diagrams are used to clearly label which cables are connected to which ports. The more in-depth wiring diagrams will include a floorplan or rack diagram, so you can see how the cables are run in the physical environment. A wireless site survey is the process of planning and designing a wireless network to provide a wireless solution that will deliver the required wireless coverage, data rates, network capacity, roaming capability, and quality of service (QoS). The site survey report will contain a floorplan of the areas surveyed with the wireless coverage areas and signal strengths notated on it.

Question 15

Students at Dion Training are working on a networking lab that requires a single switch to be remotely accessed by many students simultaneously. The instructor verifies that the switch can be accessed using the console, but the switch is only letting one student log in to the device at a time. Which of the following configurations should the instructor implement to fix this issue?

Increase the number of VLANs configured on the switch
Clear the ARP cache and flush the DNS cache on the switch
Increase installed memory and install a larger flash module
Increase the number of virtual terminals available

Answer 15

OBJ-5.5: You can set a limit of how many virtual terminals can simultaneously remotely connect to a switch. The issue in this scenario is that the switch is configured to a maximum of one virtual terminal, so only one student can access the switch at a time. When a student connects to a switch or router using ssh or telnet, it requires a virtual terminal connection. The default virtual terminal limit is 32 on Cisco devices, but you can configure it to allow between 1 and 64 simultaneous connections. To connect to a virtual terminal, you would utilize a terminal emulator. A packet capture tool is used to collect data packets being transmitted on a network and save them to a packet capture file (pcap) for later analysis.

Question 16

You are using an 802.11ac wireless network at your office which uses WPA2-PSK for encryption. Every few minutes, your wireless connection appears to disconnect and then quickly reconnect to the network. What type of attack might you be the victim of?

Rogue access point
Deauthentication
Evil twin
MAC spoofing

Answer 16

OBJ-4.2: A deauthentication attack is a type of denial-of-service attack that targets communication between a user and a Wi-Fi wireless access point by sending a deauthentication frame to the victim’s machine. This causes the wireless client to disconnect from the wireless network and then reconnect. During that reconnection, an attacker can conduct a packet capture of the authentication handshake and use that to attempt to brute force the network’s pre-shared key. An evil twin is a rogue wireless access point that masquerades as a legitimate Wi-Fi access point so that an attacker can gather personal or corporate information without the end-user’s knowledge. A rogue access point is any access point installed on a network without the network owner’s permission. For example, if an employee connected a wireless access point to a wall jack in their office so that they can use their smartphone or tablet, this would be considered a rogue access point. MAC spoofing is a technique for changing a factory-assigned Media Access Control (MAC) address of a network interface on a networked device.

Question 17

A technician installs three new switches to a company’s infrastructure. The network technician notices that all the switchport lights at the front of each switch flash rapidly when powered on and connected. After about a minute, the switches return to normal operation. Additionally, there are rapidly flashing amber lights on the switches when they started up the next day. What is happening to the switches?

The switches are running through their spanning tree process

The switches are having problems communicating with each other

The switches are connected and detected a spanning tree loop

The switches are not functioning properly and need to be disconnect

Answer 17

OBJ-5.5: The switch port lights flashing is indicating that the switch is performing the spanning tree process. The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is responsible for identifying links in the network and shutting down the redundant ones, preventing possible network loops. To do so, all switches in the network exchange BPDU messages between them to agree upon the root bridge. When spanning tree protocol is enabled on a switch, the switchports will go through five port states: blocking, listening, learning, forwarding, and disabled to create a loop-free switching environment.

Question 18

Which of the following IEEE specifications describes the use of the link aggregation control protocol (LACP)?

802.1d
802.1x
802.3ad
802.3af

Answer 18

OBJ-2.3: Link Aggregation Control Protocol or LACP is one element of an IEEE specification (802.3ad) that provides guidance on the practice of link aggregation for data connections.
The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is a network protocol that builds a loop-free logical topology for Ethernet networks to prevent bridge loops and the broadcast storms that results from them. STP is defined in the IEEE 802.1d standard.

The IEEE 802.1x standard is a network authentication protocol that opens ports for network access when an organization authenticates a user’s identity and authorizes them for access to the network. This defines port security. The user’s identity is determined based on their credentials or certificate, which is confirmed by the RADIUS server.

Power over Ethernet (POE) is a technology that lets network cables carry electrical power. POE is defined in the IEEE 802.3af.

Question 19

A malicious user is blocking cellular devices from connecting to the Internet whenever they enter the coffee shop. If they get their coffee to go and walk at least a block away from the coffee shop, their smartphones will connect to the Internet again. What type of network attack is the malicious user performing?

Blocklisting IP addresses in the ACL
Spoofing
On-path attack
Frequency jamming

Answer 19

OBJ-4.2: Frequency jamming is one of the many exploits used to compromise a wireless environment. Frequency jamming is the disruption of radio signals through the use of an over-powered signal in the same frequency range. It works by denying service to authorized users as legitimate traffic is jammed by the overwhelming frequencies of illegitimate traffic. There is no indication that the malicious user has created a rogue AP (which is a form of spoofing) or performing an on-path attack by having users connect through their laptop or device within this scenario. Also, there is no mention of certain websites or devices being blocked logically using a blocklist or ACL.

Question 20

Which of the following types of network documentation would include labels to indicate which cables are connected to which switch ports on an edge switch?

Physical network diagram
Wiring diagram
Logical network diagram
Site survey report

Answer 20

OBJ-3.2: Wiring diagrams are used to clearly label which cables are connected to which ports. The more in-depth wiring diagrams will include a floorplan or rack diagram, so you can see how the cables are run in the physical environment.

A wireless site survey is the process of planning and designing a wireless network to provide a wireless solution that will deliver the required wireless coverage, data rates, network capacity, roaming capability, and quality of service (QoS). The site survey report will contain a floorplan of the areas surveyed with the wireless coverage areas and signal strengths notated on it.

A physical network diagram is used to show the actual physical arrangement of the components that make up the network, including cables and hardware.

A logical diagram is used to illustrate the flow of data across a network and is used to show how devices communicate with each other. These logical diagrams usually include the subnets, network objects and devices, routing protocols and domains, voice gateways, traffic flow, and network segments in a given network.

Question 21

Dion Training wants to create a DNS record to specify a host and port to use for a new instant messaging service. Which type of DNS record should be created?

SOA
TXT
SRV
PTR

Answer 21

OBJ-1.6: A DNS service (SRV) record specifies a host and port for specific services such as voice over IP (VoIP), instant messaging, and others. PTR records are used for the Reverse DNS (Domain Name System) lookup. Using the IP address, you can get the associated domain/hostname. An A record should exist for every PTR record. A Start of Authority (SOA) resource record indicates which Domain Name Server (DNS) is the best source of information for the specified domain. The DNS text (TXT) record lets a domain administrator enter text into the Domain Name Systems. The TXT record was originally intended as a place for human-readable notes. However, now it is also possible to put some machine-readable data into TXT records.

Question 22

A network technician is tasked with designing a firewall to improve security for an existing FTP server on the company network. The FTP server must be accessible from the Internet. The security team is concerned that the FTP server could be compromised and used to attack the domain controller hosted within the company’s internal network. What is the BEST way to mitigate this risk?

Add a deny rule to the firewall’s ACL that blocks port 21 outbound

Upgrade the FTP server to an SFTP server since it is more secure

Migrate the FTP server from the internal network to a screened subnet

Configure the firewall to utilize an implicit deny statement

Answer 22

OBJ-4.1: A screened subnet (formerly called a demilitarized zone or DMZ) is a perimeter network that protects an organization’s internal local area network (LAN) from untrusted traffic. A screened subnet is placed between the public internet and private networks. Public servers, such as the FTP server, should be installed in a screened subnet so that additional security mitigations like a web application firewall or application-aware firewall can be used to protect them.

SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) is a file transfer protocol that leverages a set of utilities that provide secure access to a remote computer to deliver secure communications by leveraging a secure shell (SSH) connection to encrypt the communication between the client and the server. This will prevent an attacker from eavesdropping on the communications between the SFTP server and a client, but it will not prevent an attacker from exploiting the SFTP server itself.

An implicit deny is when a user or group is not granted specific permission in the security settings of an object, but they are not explicitly denied either. This is a best practice to enable, but the FTP server would still have some open ports, such as ports 20 and 21, to operate. These ports could then be used by the attacker to connect to the FTP server and exploit it.

Adding a deny rule to the firewall’s ACL that blocks port 21 outbound would simply prevent internal network users and servers from accessing external FTP servers. This would in no way prevent the exploitation of the company’s FTP server since it has port 21 open and listening for inbound connections.

Question 23

A firewall technician at Dion Training configures a firewall to allow HTTP traffic as follows:

Port 80 Allow

Dion Training is afraid that an attacker might try to send other types of network traffic over port 80 to bypass their security policies. Which of the following should they implement to prevent unauthorized traffic from entering through the firewall?

Application-aware firewall
HTTPS (SSL/TLS)
Stateful packet inspection
Stateless packet inspection

Answer 23

OBJ-2.1: An application-aware firewall can make decisions about what applications are allowed or blocked by a firewall, as opposed to simply using IP addresses and port numbers, by applications by inspecting the data contained within the packets. A stateless packet inspection firewall allows or denies packets into the network based on the source and destination IP address or the traffic type (TCP, UDP, ICMP, etc.). A stateful packet inspection firewall monitors the active sessions and connections on a network. The process of stateful inspection determines which network packets should be allowed through the firewall by utilizing the information it gathered regarding active connections as well as the existing ACL rules. Neither a stateless nor stateful inspection firewall operates at layer 6 or layer 7, so they cannot inspect the contents of the packet to ensure it contains HTTP traffic and not other types of network traffic. HTTPS (SSL/TLS) would allow for an encrypted communication path between the webserver and the client, but this would not prevent an attacker from sending other network protocol data over port 80 and bypassing the firewall rules.

Question 24

Dion’s Burgers and Fries is a fast-food restaurant that recently installed a new network-connected electronic signboard to display their menu items to customers. The signboard came preconfigured with a public IP address so that the central office can remotely connect to it and update the menu items and prices displayed. The installer unboxed the new device, hung it on the wall, plugged it into the network, and the menu appeared. The next day, the manager sees that the menu items have all been changed to include vulgar names and prices like $6.66. It appears the signboard has been digitally vandalized by an attacker. What is the MOST likely reason the attackers were able to access and modify the signboard’s display?

The default credentials were never changed during its installation

The self-signed digital certificate of the signboard had expired

Unnecessary services were not disabled during its installation

The default port, port 80, was left open during its installation

Answer 24

OBJ-4.3: We know that the signboard was installed with all of the defaults still in place because the installer simply removed it from the box, hung it on the wall, and plugged it in). This means that it is most likely that the electronic signboard default credentials were never changed. While the other options may cause an issue, the unchanged default username and passwords are the biggest threat and most likely the root cause of the digital vandalism since the attacker could simply login to the device using its public IP address and the default username/password to make any changes they desired.

Question 25

An employee at Dion Training reports that half of the marketing department is currently unable to access any network resources. A network technician determines that the switch has failed and needs replacement. Which of the following is required so that the technician can replace the switch and regain connectivity quickly?

Network diagram
Configuration backup
VLAN configuration
Router image

Answer 25

OBJ-3.3: Most large enterprise networks will use the same models of switches across much of the network. This allows them to keep spare switches on-site to use as replacements if a production switch fails. By maintaining a configuration backup of each production switch, it allows a network technician to remove the fault switch, install the new switch, and reload the configuration backup to the new switch. Using this method, a skilled network technician can restore a network switch within just a few minutes. While having a network diagram or VLAN configuration may be helpful, they will not expedite the recovery like a configuration backup will. The router image would be useless in this scenario since it was a switch that failed and requires replacement.

Question 26

Which of the following wireless technologies use MIMO on non-overlapping channels to increase the wireless network’s bandwidth?

802.11b
802.11g
802.11n
802.11a

Answer 26

OBJ-2.4: 802.11n introduced MIMO support on non-overlapping channels to increase the bandwidth available for the wireless network. This is also supported in 802.11ac (MU-MIMO), which was released after 802.11n. The other wireless networking technologies (a/b/g) do not support MIMO.

Question 27

What is the broadcast address associated with the host located at 189.76.60.164/26?

189.76.60.192
189.76.60.129
189.76.60.128
189.76.60.191

Answer 27

OBJ-1.4: In classless subnets using variable length subnet mask (VLSM), the broadcast address is the last IP address associated within an assigned range. In this example, the CIDR notation is /26, so each subnet will contain 64 IP addresses. Since the IP address provided is 189.76.60.164, the broadcast address will be 189.76.60.191.

Question 28

A small law office has a network with three switches (8 ports), one hub (4 ports), and one router (2 ports). Switch 1 (switch port 8) is connected to an interface port (FastEthernet0/0) on the router. Switch 2 (switch port 8) and switch 3 (switch port 8) are connected to Switch 1 (switch ports 1 and 2). The hub has three computers plugged into it on ports 1, 2, and 3. The fourth port on the hub is connected to the router’s other interface port (FastEthernet0/1). Based on the configuration described here, how many collision domains are there within this network?

4
8
1
2

Answer 28

OBJ-2.1: A collision domain is a network segment connected by a shared medium or through repeaters where simultaneous data transmissions collide with one another. Hubs do not break up collision domains, but routers and switches do. For each switchport or interface on a switch or router, there is a new collision domain. Therefore, in this network, you will have one collision domain for the hub and its clients that are connected to FastEthernet0/1. There is a second collision domain for the router’s other interface (FastEthernet0/0) that is shared with Switch 1 (switch port 8). There is a third collision domain for the connection between Switch 2 and Switch 1, and a fourth domain for the connection between Switch 3 and Switch 1. If there were additional clients on any of these switches, each client would also be a part of its own collision domain, but since none were mentioned, we only have 4 collision domains in this network.

Question 29

An organization wants to choose an authentication protocol that can be used over an insecure network without implementing additional encryption services. Which of the following protocols should they choose?

TACACS+
PAP
RADIUS
Kerberos

Answer 29

OBJ-4.1: The Kerberos protocol is designed to send data over insecure networks while using strong encryption to protect the information. RADIUS, TACACS+, and PAP are all protocols that contain known vulnerabilities that would require additional encryption to secure them during the authentication process.

Question 30

(This is a simulated Performance-Based Question.) What is the correct color scheme for Pin 1 to Pin 8 for a T-568A connector?

blue, white/blue, orange, white/brown, brown, white/green, green, orange/white

white/green, green, orange/white, blue, white/blue, orange, white/brown, brown

white/green, green, white/orange, orange, blue, white/blue, white/brown, brown

white/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown

Answer 30

OBJ-1.3: You need to have the T-568-A and T-568-B standards memorized before test day because you may be asked to perform a drag and drop exercise of placing the right colored wires into the right numbered pins based on a T-568A or T-568B connector. Remember, a straight-through cable will have T-568B on both ends. If you are asked to make a cross-over cable, you need a T-568A on one side and a T-568B on the other side.

Question 31

You just started work as a network technician at Dion Training. You have been asked to determine if Ethernet0/0 is currently connected using OSPF or EIGRP on one of the network devices. Which of the following commands should you enter within the command line interface?

show route
show config
show diagnostic
show interface

Answer 31

OBJ-5.3: The “show route” command is used on a Cisco networking device to display the current state of the routing table for a given network device. To determine if Ethernet0/0 is connected using OSPF or EIGRP, you would need to use the “show route” command to display the current status. The “show configuration” command is used on a Cisco networking device to display the device’s current configuration. The “show interface” command is used on a Cisco networking device to display the statistics for a given network interface. The “show diagnostic” command is used on a Cisco networking device to display details about the hardware and software on each node in a networked device.