3.0 Network Operation

Question 1

You are hired to manage the network at a large data center. On your first day, a user reports that they have lost network connectivity. At the user’s workstation, you successfully ping 127.0.0.1 and then swap out the patch cable that runs from the computer to a blank wall plate. In the network closet, you notice that all four patch panels were mounted to the rack after the punchdowns were completed, but nothing indicates port assignments or which areas the patch panels serve. You end up resolving the issue, but it takes longer than necessary. You want to speed up the resolution of future connectivity issues. What should you prepare FIRST?

A) Labeling
B) Physical diagrams
C) IDF/MDF documentation
D) Inventory management
E) Logical diagrams

Answer 1

Labeling is an important component of the network build and its documentation. Patch panel ports should be labeled and wall jacks should be labeled with the corresponding port number on the patch panel. Likewise, the patch cable should have the same labeling. Switches, routers, hubs, and wireless access points should be labeled, as well as each piece of equipment in a server rack.

When comparing logical vs physical diagrams, each provides a different visualization of the network topology. The physical network diagram includes cable lengths and types, server names, IP addresses, server roles, network equipment locations, and number of network users.

Question 2

What does IDF/MDF functions do?

Answer 2

Intermediate Distribution Frame/Main Distribution Frame (IDF/MDF) documentation first describes and details the primary ISP feed into the building (MDF). The documentation also shows how the MDF splits out and feeds the various IDFs throughout the facility. Most often, and IDF will provide network service to a floor or department. This documentation would not provide any information on the ports in the patch panels.

Question 3

What does Inventory management entail?

Answer 3

Inventory management deals with the identification, tagging, allocation, and placement of the major physical pieces of equipment with which the network is built. Routers, switches, hubs, wireless access points, and high-end NICS are among the items that are often tracked in an inventory management system. Inventory management would give detailed device information but would not contain information on the ports in a patch panel.

Question 4

Your company’s network experienced some recent performance issues that you resolved with a lot of effort. After resolving the problem, you decide to start monitoring network performance. You have selected the network performance tool that you will use. What must you do first?

A) Determine where the bottlenecks are.
B) Capture the baselines.
C) Examine the logs to determine where to deploy the tool.
D) Measure the current available bandwidth.

Answer 4

Once you have selected the network performance tool, you need to capture the network performance baselines. These baselines will act as a basis of comparison. Baselines should be captured at different times. Network utilization will be much higher during peak usage times. If you do not capture the appropriate baselines, you may not realize when actual performance issues arise.

Question 5

What is the purpose of graphing?

Answer 5

For the Network+ exam, you need to analyze metrics and reports from monitoring and tracking performance tools. This includes graphing and link status. Graphing will provide an easy way to determine trends. This helps in forecasting when needs will reach the point where an upgrade may be necessary. For example, graphing trends may show a 10% increase in bandwidth usage every six months. If trends continue, it may be necessary to upgrade the network to a faster cabling. For link status, you need to read the documentation that accompanies any network device to ensure that you can properly interpret lights on the network devices. “High utilizations threshold exceeded on r01: current value 9624161.18” is an example of an interface link status message.

Question 6

You need to determine the reliability of a network segment. Which of the following would help you?

A) Packet drops
B) Error rate
C) Utilization
D) Bandwidth

Answer 6

Error rate is a metric that can be used to tool to indicate the reliability of the network. A segment with a high error rate would be less reliable than a segment with a low error rate. The error rate is usually expressed as a percentage.

Question 7

What happens when Packet Drops?

Answer 7

Packet drops occur when a data package transmitted from one device fails to reach another device, measured as packet loss. Packet loss can be measured with the ping utility. If you add “-n 100” at the end of a ping command, as in ping www.somesite.com –n 100, you will end up with a report that tells you the percentage of packet loss.

Question 8

What does Utilization mean?

Answer 8

Utilization is a measurement of how much of the capacity of the network is being used. For example, a utilization of 40% would mean that 40% of the total capacity of the network is being used.

Question 9

Which two guidelines are the best to implement for passwords according to CompTIA guidelines? (Choose 2)

A) Configure passwords to change periodically.
B) Ensure that passwords change rarely or never change.
C) Ensure that passwords are only constructed of only alphanumeric characters.
D) Create passwords that contain at least one symbol.
E) Ensure that passwords are at least 15 characters in length.

Answer 9

Of the choices presented, you should configure passwords to change periodically and create passwords that contain at least one symbol in order to create the strongest passwords. Depending on the security level required, passwords might change once every three months, once per month or once per week. In some very high security situations, such as military and intelligence agencies, passwords are commonly configured to change as often as twice per day. Configuring passwords to change periodically can significantly increase the strength of password security on a network. Passwords should also include alphanumeric characters and at least one symbol, such as the dollar sign ($) character. Whenever creating a password, it is always important to have complexity requirements established. These policies are designed to reduce the threat of password attacks by adding in random characters and numbers that make the password nearly impossible to ever guess.

Passwords should usually be between eight and ten characters in length. A minimum password length of greater than ten characters will force users to create passwords that are too long to be easily remembered. If a user’s password is too long, then the user might record the password and place it where it can be easily found, which can cause a security risk.

Passwords are often victims of brute force or dictionary attacks where attackers attempt to guess passwords. Using complex passwords help prevent these attacks. Both brute force and dictionary attacks are forms of password attacks. Additionally, it is worth noting that brute force attacks can be used to crack both passwords and cryptography. Organizations should also implement account lockout policies to lock accounts after a certain number of invalid login attempts.

Question 10

Which component of a computer use policy should state that the data stored on a company computer is not guaranteed to remain confidential?

A) information ownership
B) computer ownership
C) acceptable use
D) no expectation of privacy

Answer 10

A no expectation of privacy policy is the component of a computer use policy that should indicate that data stored on a company computer is not guaranteed to remain confidential. A no expectation of privacy policy should also state that data transferred to and from a company network is not guaranteed to remain confidential. Policies must be communicated to personnel as part of end-user awareness. End-user awareness is the responsibility of management and should include training, policies, and procedures to ensure that organizational security is understood by all personnel.

Computer ownership is a component of a computer use policy that indicates that computers are owned by the company and should be used only for company purposes. Information ownership is a component of a computer use policy that states that all information stored on company computers is owned by the company. Acceptable use is a computer use policy, which states the conditions under which company computers should be used.

Question 11

Which term is used to describe the ability to respond to a single point of failure on a network?

A) Loopback
B) Fault tolerance
C) RAID
D) Clustering

Answer 11

The ability to respond to a single point of failure on a network is called fault tolerance. Fault tolerance on servers involves hardware RAID, UPS systems, power conditioning, backups, and clustering.

Fault tolerance refers to making sure that devices are safe from any kind of problem that might occur with them. It carries with it the ideas of redundancy, backups, clustering, power conditioning, RAID, and UPS systems that can keep computers up and running.

Question 12

What does Clustering and RAID are associated with?

Answer 12

Clustering and RAID are associated with fault tolerance on servers, rather than fault tolerance on a network.

Question 13

What does Network fault tolerance help with?

Answer 13

Network fault tolerance amounts to redundancy in both the network gear and the backbone links that connect wiring closets together. The key component for routers, switches, and hubs are redundant parts. Your goal with network gear is to look for single points of failure (SPOFs), and provide redundancy to make sure the network remains up and functional. To ensure a company’s long term health in the event of a disaster, redundancy and offsite backups are two of the best tools to implement.

Question 14

What does Firewalls do in terms of helping redundancy?

Answer 14

Firewalls are also critical to ensuring redundancy. Establishing multiple firewalls in a network greatly increases security in the event that one is broken as well as can help secure different zones within a network and monitor the traffic sent between them greatly reducing security concerns.

Question 15

Which of the following types of backups would back up data that has NOT been changed since the last backup?

A) Full backup
B) Incremental backup
C) Differential backup
D) System snapshot

Answer 15

Full backups backup all of the files on a system, regardless of whether the data has been changed or not. While full backups provide the protection in case of a failure, they take the most time and require the most storage resources to accomplish. A full backup resets the archive bit, which is the indicator in file attributes that tells the OS whether or not the file needs to be backed up. When a file is created or modified, the archive bit is “set” or turned on.

Question 16

What is differential backups?

Answer 16

Differential backups look at the archive bit and back up all data whose archive bit is set. Differential backups do not reset the archive bit. If, for example, a full back up is performed on Sunday, a differential backup performed on Monday night will back up all of Monday’s new files and modifications, without resetting the archive bit. A differential backup performed on Tuesday night will back up all of Monday’s new/modified files as well as all of Tuesday’s new/modified files. Wednesday night’s backup will process changes from Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday. To restore data, the administrator would restore the full backup and the most recent differential backup.

Question 17

What is Incremental back up?

Answer 17

Incremental backups look at the archive bit and back up all data whose archive bit is set. Unlike differential backups, however, incremental backups reset the archive bit. If, for example, a full back up is performed on Sunday, an incremental backup performed on Monday night will back up all of Monday’s new files and modifications, while resetting the archive bit. An incremental backup performed on Tuesday night will only backup all of Tuesday’s new/modified files and reset the archive bit. Wednesday night’s backup will process Wednesday’s changes and reset the archive bit. To restore data, the administrator would restore the full backup and each of the incremental backups.

Question 18

What is a snap shot?

Answer 18

Snapshots create a system image at a given point in time. While they can be considered a form of backup, snapshots are not concerned with archive bits and capture the entire system state.

Question 19

Why is it important to have a best-known state documented for a network?

Answer 19

For the Network+ exam, you will need to understand the importance of restoring network devices after they fail or are compromised. Regardless of what caused a device to crash, organizations should establish a best-known state for a network device that will detail how it has been configured and what patch it is operating on while it is functional. Establishing a best configuration will allow IT teams to detect whether a device is out of compliance and quickly make changes if it is.

Question 20

You are the network administrator for a healthcare organization. Recently several federal and state government laws have been enacted which will affect network operations. Which change management documentation should record this information?

A) policies
B) regulations
C) baselines
D) procedures

Answer 20

Regulations are governmental guidelines that are written by federal or state agencies based on the laws passed by federal or state government. Regulations are established by entities outside the network owner.

Policies set forth the network rules, including the who, what, and when of the rules. Policies tell what the rules are, who is covered by the rule, and when the rule applies. Procedures set forth the steps that must be taken to enforce the policies, including updating the network drivers. Procedures tell how to achieve the desired results.

Question 21

What do we consider first when we have performance issues on the network?

Answer 21

Baselines are primarily used to identify performance issues. They are actually performance statistics used for comparative purposes. By establishing a performance baseline, you can ensure that performance issues are identified much easier in the future.

Question 22

Which option represents the amount of time that a system is expected to be operational over the course of a year?

A) Load balancing
B) Port aggregation
C) High availability
D) NIC teaming

Answer 22

High availability refers to the amount of time that the system is expected to be operational over the course of a year. It is often expressed in nines, as in “5 nines,” which would mean the system is up 99.999% of the time. This translates to about 5 minutes and 15 seconds downtime per year, which may be too much downtime for some organizations.

Question 23

What is a NIC teaming?

Answer 23

NIC teaming is binding two or more network interface cards (NICs) so they appear as one. If one of the cards fails, the others still carry the traffic. Aggregation is also used for load balancing, and providing increased bandwidth.

Question 24

What is Port Aggregation?

Answer 24

Port aggregation is binding two or more network ports so they appear as one. If one of the aggregated ports fails, the others still carry the traffic. Aggregation is also used for load balancing, and providing increased bandwidth. While NIC teaming can be thought of as a RAID for NICs, port aggregation can be thought of as a RAID for switch ports. Port aggregation is often associated with flow control. Flow control is the process of managing the rate of data transmissions between two different nodes to prevent a sender from overwhelming a receiver and causing it to freeze up or slow the network down.

Question 25

You are designing a network for a new facility. The client wishes to provide main connections to several floors from where the ISP service enters the building. On each floor, switches will handle the distribution to end devices. What would be the most helpful for maintaining and documenting those main connections?

A) IDF/MDF documentation
B) Labeling
C) Wiring and port locations
D) Change management documentation

Answer 25

Intermediate Distribution Frame/Main Distribution Frame (IDF/MDF) documentation first describes and details the primary ISP feed into the building, which is handled by the MDF. The documentation also shows how the MDF splits out and feeds the various IDFs throughout the facility. Most often, an IDF will provide network service to a floor or department.

Question 26

What is change management primarily used for?

Answer 26

Change management documentation primarily applies to software patches, updates, and rollbacks. It is important to document when these events occur, and what the results were. Change management also refers to the documentation, justification, and approval process for major configuration changes, such as the addition of a switch or a storage area network. Change management documentation is not part of any diagram and would not note where ISP service entered a building.

Change management documentation includes system life cycles. A system life cycle is used to help organizations manage and keep track of how various systems are being used. These plans detail the process of designing, implementing, maintaining, and removing various devices, applications, and tools within a network. While a system life cycle may change from organization to organization, they help you track and manage different aspects of a network.

Wiring and port locations should be a critical component of the network documentation. This documentation facilitates troubleshooting connectivity by not only identifying the IP or MAC address where the problem is located, but also the physical location of the problem. Wiring and port location documentation maps the individual network connection to and from each device, not the ISP feed into a building.

Question 27

Which of the following statements is UNLIKELY to appear in an organization’s safety policies and procedures for its networking equipment?

A) Look for simpler, more approachable alternatives to technician’s manuals online.
B) Wear appropriate safety equipment.
C) Always use insulated tools.
D) Keep all work areas clean, uncluttered, and organized.
E) Exercise caution when working around electrical equipment.
F) Arrange for assistance or lifts when moving heavy equipment.

Answer 27

The essence of stating and practicing proper safety procedures and policies is doing things by the book. Because looking for simpler, more approachable alternatives to technician’s manuals online encourages readers to skip the book quite literally, it is completely at odds with this approach.

Keeping work areas clean, uncluttered and organized not only minimizes the potential for accident or mishaps, it also promotes productivity. It also ensures that confidential information is not left out in the open for prying eyes. This makes it a cornerstone for best safety practice and policy.

Wearing appropriate safety equipment means exercising due diligence in the workplace. It is another best safety practice when working with and around electrical equipment.

Using insulated tools minimizes the risk of shock or injury when working around electrical equipment. It should be automatic for those who work in such environs, but an explicit policy/requirement simply emphasizes how important this is for safety.

Moving heavy equipment always carries a risk of damage to the gear or injury to those who work with it. That is why arranging for assistance, mechanical or from a sufficient number of co-workers is an absolute must.

Electricity is dangerous and can be life-threatening (or -ending). It is absolutely essential to exercise caution when working in or around electrical gear.

Question 28

You have two Web servers, named WebSrv1 and WebSrv2. You need to configure the Web servers so that they share the Web request load equally. What should you do?

A) Implement an active/active cluster.
B) Implement traffic shaping.
C) Implement Quality of Service (QoS).
D)Implement an active/passive cluster.

Answer 28

You should implement an active/active cluster, also known as a load-balancing cluster. This will ensure that the two Web servers share the Web request load equally.

High availability is an important concern regarding Web servers. Operating Web servers in a cluster environment could improve availability. Providing two identical Web servers would improve availability and provide redundancy.

Question 29

When should you implement active/passive cluster?

Answer 29

Active//passive known as failover cluster. With active/passive, one of the Web servers handles the Web request load. If the active server fails, then the passive server will take over the Web request load.

Question 30

What is traffic shaping?

Answer 30

Traffic shaping is a specialized type of Quality of Service (QoS) feature where traffic from each host is monitored. When traffic from the host is too high, packets are then queued. Traffic shaping can also define how much bandwidth can be used by different protocols on the network.

Question 31

What is redundancy?

Answer 31

Redundancy is the process of adding additional network devices, equipment, and communication mediums within a network. These extra devices ensure that even if one were to fail, there are multiple other devices that can keep the network running while the problem is identified. High availability is designed to keep system running in the event of a disaster. Two additional ways to help ensure redundancy are implementing multiple internet service providers and using diverse pathways. Multiple internet service providers can provide redundancy if one of the providers loses service. Having multiple and diverse pathways within a network can ensure that the network can still function and transmit information in the event that one pathway fails.

Question 32

You have changed the IP address scheme for two of your company’s networks. In addition, the names of two servers have changed. Which change management documentation should you revise?

A) network baseline
B) logical network diagram
C) wiring schematic
D) physical network diagram

Answer 32

You should only revise the physical network diagram. The physical network diagram includes cable lengths and types, server names, IP addresses, server roles, network equipment locations, and number of network users.

The logical network diagram includes server roles, domain architecture, protocols used, and trust relationships. Server names and IP addresses are not included in the logical network diagram.

Question 33

What is a wiring schematic?

Answer 33

The wiring schematic emphasizes the flow of the network. It includes equipment symbols and lines that indicate the flow. Changing the IP address scheme and server names will not affect the wiring schematic.

Question 34

Management has decided to renovate a portion of the office. You have been asked to relocate several computers and other network devices in the renovation area to another part of the building. After relocating the computers and devices, you document the new location. What is the term used to describe the actions you took?

A) baseline
B) SLA
C) NAC
D) asset management

Answer 34

Asset management involves documenting information regarding the company assets, including location, user, IP address, and other information. Asset management is part of the network documentation that must be maintained.

Question 35

Why is SLA so important?

Answer 35

A service level agreement (SLA) is an agreement from a service provider that details the level of service that will be maintained.

Question 36

What does NAC do in terms of security?

Answer 36

Network access control (NAC) is a method whereby an organization implements rules for security for devices that connect to the network. The rules include all requirements for any device to connect to the network. If a device is compliant, it is given access to the network. If it is not, it will be quarantined from the rest of the network.

Question 37

In terms of documentation what does IP address utilization provide?

Answer 37

IP address utilization − You should always track your IP usage, particularly if you implement a network with multiple subnets. Two devices on the same network cannot use the same IP address, even if you implement private IP addresses. Carefully document your IP address usage to ensure communication. Implementing a DHCP server on your network is the best way to do this. At any time, you will be able to view IP address utilization from the DHCP server

Question 38

In terms of documentation what does vendor documentation provide?

Answer 38

Vendor documentation − Retain all vendor documentation for all devices, including computers. When it comes to configuration management, vendor documentation can aid you in ensuring that you purchase hardware that is compatible with the device or computer. In many cases, vendor documentation can be found online. But this isn’t always the case, especially with older, legacy hardware.

Question 39

What is On-boarding and Off-boarding procedures of mobile devices?

Answer 39

For the Network+ exam, you also need to understand the on-boarding and off-boarding of mobile devices. Mobile devices are increasingly being used on corporate networks. Companies must consider the impact of these devices and create the appropriate policies for their use. Formal on-boarding procedures should be developed and should include minimum security requirements for the devices. Companies should implement some sort of mobile device management (MDM), which would allow you to manage mobile devices from a central management console. MDM would allow you to on-board and off-board mobile devices quickly and easily.

Question 40

Which of the following options would be the fastest to activate in the event of a disaster at the primary site?

A) Hot site
B) Warm site
C) Port aggregation
D) Cold site

Answer 40

Hot sites would be the fastest to activate in the event of a disaster at the primary site. They have all the personnel, equipment, and software installed and running in an off-site location. Hot sites are typically mirrors of the original site. When a disaster occurs, operations are transferred to the hot site.

Question 41

What can a cold site do in terms of recovery options?

Answer 41

Cold sites are a disaster recovery concept where you have a remote location procured. In the event of a disaster, then the equipment is installed and configured to get the enterprise back to a functional state. They are the slowest to activate because all the resources and personnel have to be installed and activated.

Question 42

What can a warm site do in terms of recovery options?

Answer 42

Warm sites have all the equipment set up in an off-site location. When a disaster occurs, personnel are brought in, and the warm site is updated with the most current information from backups. They are better than cold sites, and not as expensive to operate as hot sites.

Question 43

What is a cloud site?

Answer 43

For the Network+ exam, you will also need to understand the importance of a cloud site. A cloud site is a managed platform that hosts a cloud server for an organization to store information, manage and run applications, and allow users to connect and engage with. Cloud sites provide an alternative to having another physical site, such as a hot or cold site, as the infrastructure is often managed by a cloud provider. Thus, if the organization has access to the cloud, they can utilize its services even if their own network is not functional. Cloud sites are often seen as a more affordable option than having a hot site at another location as a backup office center. However, using a cloud site requires internet connectivity.

Question 44

Which of the following would you perform periodically to ensure that the normal traffic patterns and volume have not changed?

A) Traffic analysis
B) Reviewing baselines
C) Reviewing of alerts
D) Audits of notifications

Answer 44

It is important for a company to have a policy for reviewing baselines periodically, because network traffic may change over an extended period. Reviewing baselines is an important tool in identifying abnormal behavior. You would first need to establish a baseline. To establish a baseline, you would monitor network traffic (or some other metric) for a predetermined amount of time. This establishes what the “normal” amount of traffic is for that period of time. By comparing network traffic against the baseline, you can identify spikes that might indicate abnormal behavior.

Question 45

What is the application tool Wireshark and Solar Winds are for?

Answer 45

Traffic analysis, also referred to as packet analysis, is performed with network monitoring tools. Two such tools are Wireshark and Solar Winds. Traffic analysis begins with capturing and logging traffic(packets). Once captured, the traffic can be analyzed, look for patterns and abnormalities indicating abnormal activity.

Question 46

What does audit and alerts notification help with?

Answer 46

Notifications are system-generated communications indicating an event has triggered an alert. The notification may come in the form of an email, a text message, a signal to a pager, or a pre-recorded message to a cell phone.

Alerts are indicators that an event has reached a certain threshold.

Question 47

You are the network administrator for a manufacturing company. Technicians that work on computers used on the manufacturing floor may come into contact with dangerous chemicals. You need to understand which chemicals they will come into contact with and their associated safety issues. What should you consult?

A) ACL
B) HVAC
C) ESD
D) MSDS

Answer 47

You should consult the material safety data sheet (MSDS) to understand which chemicals technicians will come into contact with and any safety issues regarding those chemicals. If personnel come into contact with any chemicals, including thermal compound, you should consult the MSDS.

An access control list (ACL) determines who has access to resources. Electrostatic discharge (ESD) can damage electronic and computer components. Heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) systems control the temperature and humidity.

For the Network+ exam, you need to understand installation safety. Lifting equipment requires that you use proper lifting techniques, including lifting with your legs. You should ensure that procedures for rack installation are followed to ensure proper ventilation. Device placement is important to ensure that proper ventilation occurs and that no electrical or radio interference is present. Finally, you should be sure that you use the appropriate tools in a safe manner. Never use tools on a device that is still plugged in.

Question 48

Which of the following items is likely NOT to be covered in the on-boarding procedures for new hires as they report to work for the first time at some organization?

A) AUP
B) Safety procedures and policies
C) Asset disposal
D) Password policy
E) NDA

Answer 48

Because asset disposal policies and procedures deal with how an employee should dispose of an organizational asset and so few employees actually get involved with this activity, it is unlikely to be discussed during the initial phases of the on-boarding process.

Question 49

What do we need to consider when it comes to asset disposals?

Answer 49

For the Network+ exam, you will need to understand best practices for asset disposal. The first practice that should be utilized are factory wipes or configuration wipes. These methods are designed to reset a device to how it was when it initially released or back to a previously known safe configuration. Organizations may do this if they are attempting to restore a device back to a state where it was functional or if an organization is decommissioning a device and need to wipe all sensitive information from it to prevent a potential leak. This is a process is also known as asset sanitization. Organizations should always be sure to sanitize any data or decommissioned device to minimize risks of exposure.

Question 50

What is an AUP?

Answer 50

An organization’s acceptable use policy (AUP) governs what employees can and cannot do while using company resources or the Internet at work. To avoid unwanted or undesirable behavior or situations, employees must be coached on the AUP early in the on-boarding process.

Question 51

What is a NDA?

Answer 51

New employees must understand what kinds of information, intellectual property, and private or confidential material they may have to handle or deal with at work. They must also understand who they may mention or discuss such information with, including customers, clients, friends and family. Reading, discussing, and signing a non-disclosure agreement (NDA) is an important part of the on-boarding process.

Question 52

What does a new hire/ new employee need to learn once they step into the organization premises as apart of the onboarding process?

Answer 52

As soon as a new hire enters the organization’s premises, he or she must understand evacuation plans, safety practices and policies, first aid locations, and emergency reporting requirements. These are all part of the normal on-boarding process, and will be repeated in regular ongoing training as well. The opposite of on-boarding is off-boarding, which is when an employee is leaving the company. During this process it is critical to ensure the leaving employee does not have access to the system, prevent any future data leaks, as well as ensure that no compliance or regulatory processes are violated.

Question 53

What other processes of the onboarding procedure needs to covered for the new employee?

Answer 53

Often a bring your own device (BYOD) policy is covered during the personnel on-boarding process. BYOD policies allow personnel to use their personal devices to connect to company resources, including email servers. Other device policies that an organization can adopt include corporate-owned, personally-enabled (COPE), choose your own device (CYOD), and corporate-owned, business only (COBO).

Question 54

You need to collect management information on the routers and switches used on your company’s network. You decide to use SNMP. What is the name of the software component that runs on a managed device when you deploy this technology?

A) SNMP manager
B) SNMP agent
C) NMS
D) MIB

Answer 54

The SNMP agent runs on a managed device, such as a router or switch. This agent collects management information. Network management systems based upon SNMP contain two primary elements: a manager and agents. The manager is the console through which a network administrator performs network management functions. Agents are the entities that interface to the actual devices being managed. You would use an SNMP agent to monitor remote traffic through an access point. SNMP can monitor almost any type of network device, such as hubs, servers, interface cards, repeaters, and bridges. Threshold alarms can be set for all the parameters that the agent can monitor.

The management information is stored in the Management Information Base (MIB) on the agent or managed device. The information in the MIB is then forwarded to the SNMP manager, where the network management application resides. The SNMP manager is also referred to as the Network Management Server (NMS).

Managed devices will run the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) agent. Unmanaged devices are not configured to run this software. By using SNMP to manage devices, you can simplify administrative effort using a single management console located at the SNMP manager. Often SNMP data is used to perform device diagnostics.

Question 55

Which four of the following elements are most likely to appear in a well-designed password policy that explains requirements for formulating secure passwords? (Choose 4)

A) 12 characters or longer
B) one or more numbers
C) pet’s name
D) spouse’s birthday
E) one or more special characters
F) mix of upper and lower case characters

Answer 55

The strongest passwords are long, and include a mix of upper and lower case alphabetic characters, along with one or more numbers and special characters (such as !@#$% and so forth). For this scenario, the following options are correct:

12 characters or longer
mix of upper and lower case characters
one or more numbers
one or more special characters

Modern technology and ubiquitous Internet access make it easy for users to be equipped with and use an online password generator and secure password safe. Such tools randomly generate passwords of any length desired, chock-full of numbers and special characters and filtered to avoid including dictionary terms or substrings. Best security practice is to recommend their use, and to set a good example by using them yourself.

Question 56

Which four of the following objectives best describe the kinds of protection that data loss prevention systems seek to provide or deliver? (Choose 4)

A) Blocking unauthorized data transit
B) Encrypting of data in motion
C) Promoting data breaches
D) Preserving competitive advantage
E) Encrypting of data at rest
F) Establishing identity or role-based access controls

Answer 56

Data loss prevention (DLP), often called data leak protection, focuses on ways to prevent sensitive, proprietary, private, or confidential information from unauthorized disclosure. DLP concentrates on identity management and authentication to establish who is trying to access what, or uses role-based access controls (RBAC) to limit access to data. DLP also depends on keeping sensitive information inaccessible to all but authorized parties, which means encrypting data both in motion (being transmitted) or at rest (in storage anywhere). Finally, DLP’s mission is to block any kind of unauthorized data transit, including in email, on a USB drive, and as a file copy.

To implement RBAC, an administrator defines the various roles within an organization and the permissions each role needs to perform its duties. Employees within the organization are assigned to a role, inheriting its permissions so they can complete their daily tasks. The goal of RBAC is to limit an individual user’s permissions, thereby preventing unauthorized access to sensitive data areas.

While preserving competitive advantage may be a benefit of data leak protection, it is not an objective or stated purpose for this technology.

Promoting data breaches means making it easier for data to leak or for unauthorized access and disclosure to occur. It is directly contrary to data loss prevention.

Question 57

You have reconfigured your network to change the cable type used on one of your subnets from Cat5 to Cat6. Which change configuration management documentation should you revise? (Choose 2)

A) physical network diagram
B) logical network diagram
C) wiring schematic
D) network baseline

Answer 57

You should revise both the physical network diagram and the network baseline when the cable type of a subnet is changed. The physical network diagram includes cable lengths and types, server names, IP addresses, server roles, network equipment locations, and number of network users. Network diagrams are also referred to as network maps.

A network baseline includes the performance statistics for your network. By establishing a network performance baseline, you can ensure that performance issues can be identified much more easily in the future. If you wanted to track the improvement of the network infrastructure after you have upgraded several components, you would need a baseline to perform an accurate comparison. Without a baseline, you cannot determine if performance improvements have occurred.

Question 58

What does a wiring schematic provide?

Answer 58

The wiring schematic emphasizes the flow of the network. It includes equipment symbols and lines that indicate the flow. Changing the cable type of a subnet from Cat5 to Cat6 wiring will not affect the wiring schematic.

Question 59

What do you need to update if you change the cable from co-axial to TP?

Answer 59

The logical network diagram includes server roles, domain architecture, protocols used, and trust relationships. Changing the cable type of a subnet from Cat5 to Cat6 will not affect the logical network diagram. However, if you changed from using coaxial cable to using twisted pair cable, you would need to update the logical network diagram because the communication flow would change.

Question 60

You have been hired as a consultant for the medium-sized business. As part of your duties, you need to make recommendations on changes to the network. You decide that you want to install agents on the network devices to monitor network traffic and record the behavior of network components. You will then use the statistical data that is gathered to make your recommendations. Which standard should you deploy?

A) Token Ring
B) X.25
C) SNMP
D) SMTP

Answer 60

Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a protocol that governs network management. The protocol reports on whether a device is functioning properly.

Network management systems based upon SNMP contain two primary elements: a manager and agents. The manager is the console through which a network administrator performs network management functions. Agents are the entities that interface to the actual devices being managed. You would use an SNMP agent to monitor remote traffic through an access point. SNMP can monitor almost any type of network device, such as hubs, servers, interface cards, repeaters, and bridges. Threshold alarms can be set for all the parameters that the agent can monitor.

Question 61

What is the X.25 function do?

Answer 61

X.25 is a WAN protocol that is used to create a continuous link between two offices. It employs switches, routes, and circuits to produce the best route to transfer data at any given time.

Question 62

What standard of the IEEE does the token ring follow?

Answer 62

Token Ring networks follow the standards set forth in the IEEE 802.5 specification.

Question 63

How does the SNMP v1 function?

Answer 63

SNMP has three versions: version 1, 2, and 3. SNMPv1 is widely used and is the de facto network-management protocol. SNMP is a simple request/response protocol. The network-management system issues a request, and managed devices return responses. This behavior is implemented by using one of four protocol operations: Get, GetNext, Set, and Trap. SNMPv1 used only one form of security, community names. Community names are similar to passwords. The main problems in version 1 are 1) the authentication of the message source, 2) protecting the messages from disclosure, and 3) placing access controls on the Management Interface Base database.

Question 64

How does the SNMP v2 function?

Answer 64

SNMP v2 adds and enhances some protocol operations. SNMPv2 defines two new protocol operations: GetBulk and Inform. SNMP v2 also offered improved security. With SNMP v2, everything in the packet except for the destination address is encryptedSNMP v3 provides additional security and administrative capabilities. SNMPv3 provides three levels of security. The highest level is with authentication and privacy, the middle level is with authentication and no privacy, and the bottom level is without authentication or privacy. SNMP v3 is the best tool to use if you need to examine interface settings throughout various network devices in a secure manner.

Question 65

You have been handed a document that details the steps to take to update the network drivers. Which type of change management document do you have?

A) baselines
B) procedures
C) policies
D) regulations

Answer 65

Procedures set forth the steps that must be taken to enforce the network owner’s policies, including updating the network drivers. Procedures tell how to achieve the desired results. Baselines are primarily used to identify performance issues. They are actually performance statistics gathered for comparative purposes. By establishing a performance baseline, you can ensure that performance issues are identified much easier in the future.

Question 66

What is MOU?

Answer 66

Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) − defines the roles and parameters of an agreement between two parties. It is often not a legally binding document. Some companies will use MOUs to define services within the organization, such as the services that will be provided by the IT department.

Question 67

What is MSA?

Answer 67

Master Service Agreement (MSA) − specifies payment terms, product warranties, intellectual property ownership, dispute resolution, and other aspects between two parties. It will be used to govern all future statements of work (SOWs) between the two parties.

Question 68

WHAT is SOW?

Answer 68

Statement of work (SOW) − defines the activities, deliverables, and timeline that a vendor must provide for the specified work for a client. For example, an SOW would be used if a company contracts with a third party to improve the availability of the customer’s services and applications, enabling the customer to minimize downtime to a few hours per quarter.

Question 69

What is DRP?

Answer 69

Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) – A document that sets for the policies, tool, and procedures designed to enable the recovery or continuation of vital infrastructure and systems following a natural or man-made disaster. The plan focuses on restoring the IT systems that are needed to support critical business functions. DRPs are often seen as subsets of business continuity plans.

Question 70

What is BCP?

Answer 70

Business Continuity Plan (BCP) – A plan that is designed to ensure that the business can produce their products or continue their work at acceptable levels following a disruptive incident. Unlike a DRP, a BCP targets incidents such as the loss of a key member of an organization or how the organization responds in the event of a device falling or something that would causes a similar network disruption.

Question 71

Which of the following computing technologies is most likely to fall under the U.S. government’s export administration regulations designed to protect the sale or transfer of commodities, technology, information, or software considered of strategic importance to the U.S.?

A) Encryption tools
B) Deduplication software
C) File compression techniques
D) Web page design tools

Answer 71

Encryption tools are most likely to fall under the U.S. government’s export administration regulations. Since the days of the Cold War, the US and western powers established a variety of export control regulations to keep cryptography out of the hands of the Soviet bloc countries. To this day, the US Commerce department maintains restrictions on cryptographic methods for applying security to data communications or storage, proofs of identity, or public/private key management and exchange.

Question 72

Does Web page design tools make use of encryption technology?

Answer 72

Web page design tools do not embed, include or make use of encryption technologies. They use commercially available options that are already regulated. Web page design tools are not subject to export administration regulations from the U.S. government.

Question 73

You are working with your support specialists on expanding your company’s existing network. You need to determine the actual network interfaces used on all network devices. Which configuration management documentation should you consult?

A) network baseline
B) wiring schematics
C) logical network diagram
D) physical network diagram

Answer 73

You should consult a physical network diagram. A physical network diagram includes the actual network interfaces used. A physical network diagram represents the physical locations of the network devices and how they are connected.

Question 74

Your company has decided to implement an acceptable use policy (AUP) that must be distributed to all users. You have been asked to write the preliminary policy to submit for management approval. What is defined in this policy?

A) which method administrators should use to back up network data
B) the sensitivity of company data
C) how users are allowed to employ company hardware
D) which users require access to certain company data

Answer 74

An acceptable use policy (AUP) defines how users are allowed to employ company hardware. For example, an acceptable use policy, which is sometimes referred to as a use policy, might answer the following questions: Are employees allowed to store personal files on company computers? Are employees allowed to play network games on breaks? Are employees allowed to “surf the Web” after hours?

Question 75

What is a network policy?

Answer 75

A network policy outlines rules for computer network access, explains how policies are enforced, and lays out some of the basic architecture of the network.

Question 76

After a data breach occurs at a client’s site, you determine that some of the switches, routers, and servers in the network were updated with the most current security patches, and some have never been updated. When you examine the network diagram, you notice that many of the same types of devices do not look the same in the diagram. What type of documentation should you provide to the client to ensure all devices are consistently identified by their type?

A) Inventory management
B) Change management documentation
C) Network configuration and performance baselines
D) Diagram symbols

Answer 76

Diagram symbols should be standardized throughout the network documentation. For example, routers should all be depicted in the documentation with the same shape. The same would be true for other devices, such as switches, bridges, and patch panels: each type of equipment should use a symbol, icon, or shape that is unique to that type of equipment. The most commonly used symbols were developed by Cisco, but Amazon Web Services uses its own set of symbols, and different software packages may have their own symbols.

Question 77

How does change management work?

Answer 77

Change management documentation primarily refers to software patches, updates, and rollbacks. It is important to document when these events occur, and what the results were. Change management also refers to the documentation, justification and approval process for major configuration changes, such as the addition of a switch or a storage area network. Change management documentation is not part of any network diagram.

Question 78

What is inventory management?

Answer 78

Inventory management deals with the identification, tagging, allocation, and placement of the major physical pieces of equipment with which the network is built. Routers, switches, hubs, wireless access points, and high-end NICS are among the items that are often tracked in an inventory management system. Most inventory management information is not included in diagrams.

Question 79

You have been given a drawing that shows the flow of communication in your network, with symbols to indicate each piece of equipment’s function. Which configuration management documentation have you been given?

A) physical network diagram
B) network baseline
C) logical network diagram
D) wiring schematic

Answer 79

You have been given a wiring schematic. Schematics include the flow of network communication and symbols to indicate equipment function. They use horizontal and vertical lines to show how the system flow functions, not the physical layout of the devices in the network.

Question 80

Management has requested that you document the minimum level of security for all network devices. Which of the following will this provide?

A) guidelines
B) procedures
C) standards
D) baselines

Answer 80

A baseline defines the minimum level of security and performance of a system in an organization. A baseline is also used as a benchmark for future changes. Any change made to the system should match the defined minimum security baseline. A security baseline is defined through the adoption of standards in an organization.

Question 81

Your company is building a new facility, and you are tasked with designing the new network at that site. You will need multiple servers, switches, patch panels, UPS equipment, and other equipment. You need to plan and document the placement of the equipment in the site’s network data center. Which tool should you use?

A) Network diagram
B) Logical diagram
C) Rack diagrams
D) Standard operating procedures/work instructions

Answer 81

Rack diagrams depict the placement of network equipment, such as routers, switches, hubs, patch panels, servers, and more, in a standard 19”-wide cabinet called a rack. Rack diagrams are particularly useful when planning server rooms and networking closets, as the diagrams allow the engineer to determine the proper placement of equipment prior to the physical buildout. They also serve as a tool to help locate equipment for maintenance or repair.

A network diagram would show where the racks are located on the network, but would not show the placement of the equipment in the data center, especially if that equipment is located in a rack.

Question 82

What does Standard operating procedures/work instructions represent?

Answer 82

Standard operating procedures/work instructions represent key documents used to manage the network. While the two documents are related, they each have a different purpose. A standard operating procedure (SOP) indicates what is to be done, as well as the responsible party. The work instructions describe how to execute the task identified in the SOP.

Question 83

While working as an IT technician, you receive multiple complaints of network outages occurring. After investigating, you conclude that there are incomplete files resulting in mismatching data values. What type of interface error has occurred here?

A) A CRC error
B) An encapsulation error
C) A giant error
D) A runt error

Answer 83

A cyclic redundancy check (CRC) error occur when a damaged or incomplete file causes the checksum value to not match the CRC value. These errors often occur when compressed files or archives are extracted but can also occur when reading and writing to local and external hard disks or other external media. The purpose of CRC is that it will check files and other data sites to ensure that there have been no changes to any raw data.

Question 84

What is a Giant error?

Answer 84

Giants occur when a packet is too large to traverse a network. A runt is the exact opposite, and indicates a packet that is too small to send. Network protocols often require that packets be within a certain size range to be properly transmitted. Interface statistics can provide useful information to help determine a packet’s size and whether its size requirement is causing an error.

Question 85

What is a Encapsulation error?

Answer 85

Encapsulation is process of hiding the values or stats of data packets to prevent unauthorized parties from being able to view or modify the hidden data. Errors can occur during this process resulting in data packets not being sent or packets being dropped. One of the most common causes for this issue is that the destination address is incorrect. Validating these destination addresses can be useful to ensure that packets are being sent to the proper locations safely and securely.

Question 86

What technique uses speed and congestion to determine best path for a router?

Answer 86

Link state – This is a technique where each router is configured to share the knowledge with every other router within the network. This protocol enables routers to evaluate network paths to determine speed and congestion to find the best paths available.

Question 87

What is the purpose of send/receive traffic?

Answer 87

Send/receiving traffic – These statistics are useful when analyzing your network’s routing devices and can be obtained using many network performance monitoring tools. These statistics can help determine traffic speeds, congestion, and other similar information.

Question 88

Why is it essential to monitor interface status?

Answer 88

Interface status – When using various interfaces and sub-interfaces within your network, you must routinely monitor their status. Depending on the type of interface within your network, a variety of different commands should be used to determine their statuses. Whenever experiencing network slowdowns or crashes, you should always review the status of your various interfaces.

Question 89

Device configuration reviews are useful for?

Answer 89

Device configuration reviews – Routinely monitoring your various network device configurations are critical safety practices. Devices can fall out of configuration creating security vulnerabilities that attackers can target or cause network crashes. These reviews can help make device management easier to handle and should be performed on a routine basis.

Question 90

You have recently been hired as a network administrator. Soon after starting at the new company, you realize that not all appropriate network documentations has been created. Specifically, you need to set for the network rules, including the who, what, and when of the rules. Which configuration management documentation should you create?

A) procedures
B) policies
C) baselines
D) regulations

Answer 90

Policies set forth the network rules, including the who, what, and when of the rules. Policies tell what the rules are, who is covered by the rule, and when the rule applies.

Baselines are primarily used to identify performance issues. They are actually performance statistics used for comparative purposes. By establishing a performance baseline, you can ensure that performance issues are identified much more easily in the future.

Procedures set forth the steps that must be taken to enforce the policies. Procedures tell how to achieve the desired results.

Regulations are governmental guidelines that are written by federal or state agencies based on the laws passed by federal or state government. Regulations are established by entities outside the network owner.

Question 91

Which of the following would be the best recovery solution in the event that a network segment is unavailable?

A) Battery backup/UPS
B) Dual power supplies
C) Power generators
D) Redundant circuits

Answer 91

Redundant circuits would be the best recovery solution in the event that a network segment becomes unavailable. The redundant circuit can provide a backup route if a NIC, cable, router, or switch fails. You can create a redundant circuit buy installing an additional NIC in a computer and connecting the second NIC to a different port on another switch.

Question 92

What are the dual power supplies handy for?

Answer 92

Dual power supplies provide redundancy in the event of a failure of one of the power supply units internally within a computer. The failure of the power supply on a mission-critical server can be catastrophic. Equipping such a server with a dual power supply will provide redundancy and increase uptime.

Question 93

What are the battery backups used for?

Answer 93

Battery backups or uninterruptable power supplies (UPSs) provide temporary power to a limited number of systems. UPSs are designed to provide enough power to allow an orderly shutdown of a system in the event of a power failure. Another infrastructure device that helps mitigate the risks of downtime or power outages is a power distribution unit (PDU). PDUs arePDUs are devices that areare fitted with multiple outputs that distribute electrical power to racks of computers or similar networking equipment. PDUs provide a simpler solution to power metering by controlling power outlet flows and managingmanaging important external sensors.

Question 94

You have recently discovered that your company is not maintaining system logs as per the adopted company procedures. You need to decide if the company procedures should be modified, or if the system logs should be maintained as per the procedures. Which statement is an accurate reason for following the company procedures?

A) Logging provides access control by authenticating user credentials.

B) Logging helps an administrator to detect security breaches and vulnerable points in a network.

C) Logging prevents security violations, but only deals with passive monitoring.

D) Logging provides audit trails, but increases the risk for security violations.

Answer 94

Logging helps the administrator to detect vulnerable points in a network, specify changes that can enhance the system’s security, log suspicious activity from a specific user or a system, and identify a security breach.

Logging does NOT increase the risk for security violations.

Logging is not only a passive monitoring system, but also an active process of assimilating information about various aspects of the network, such as infrastructure performance and security.

Logging as a part of the access control system provides accountability services, but does not provide authentication and authorization services to legitimate users.

Logging is the process of collecting information that is used for monitoring and auditing purposes. Logging establishes user accountability by providing audit trails and system logs related to system resource usage and activities. In the event of an intrusion, logging proves helpful in detecting the potential source of an attack. Therefore, logs must be secured properly. Logs should be periodically archived and reviewed for any suspicious activity. The period of log retention depends on the security requirements of the organization. Logs can also be used for security evaluation of a company during the course of information security audits.

An infrastructure can be monitored by performing activities, such as log analysis and intrusion detection by using the IDS. An organization can also periodically deploy countermeasure testing to ensure that the infrastructure devices comply with the security policy and meet the security needs of the organization. Countermeasure testing is not a monitoring technique, but it ensures that an organization meets its security objectives.

Question 95

Which suppression methods are recommended for a fire in a facility that involves paper, laminates, and wooden furniture? (Choose 2)

A) Water
B) Soda acid
C) Dry powder
D) Halon

Answer 95

Water or soda acid should be used to suppress a fire that has wood products, laminates, and paper as its elements. The suppression method should be based on the type of fire in the facility. The suppression substance should interfere with the elements of the fire. For example, soda acid removed the fuel, while water reduces the temperature. Water or soda acid are used to extinguish class A fires. Electrical wiring and distribution boxes are the most probable cause of fires in data centers. Class C fire suppression agents, such as halon or carbon dioxide, are used when the fire involves electrical equipment and wires. They can also be used to suppress Class B fires that include liquids, such as petroleum products and coolants. Never use water on a Class B fire.

Question 96

Why do we not use Halon to eliminate fire in a facility?

Answer 96

The production of halon gas was banned in 1987. Halon causes damage to the ozone layer and is harmful to humans. Halocarbon agents or inert gas agents can be replacements for halon in gas-discharge fire extinguishing systems. Carbon dioxide, which is used to extinguish class B and class C fires, eliminates oxygen. It is harmful to humans and should be used in unattended facilities.

Question 97

What is dry powder used for?

Answer 97

Dry powder is a suppression method for a fire that has magnesium, sodium, or potassium as its elements. Dry powder extinguishes class D fires and is the only suppression method for combustible metals. It is important to select the appropriate fire suppression system. Some systems will remove oxygen from a room. Therefore, they are harmful to humans.

Question 98

Why do we use the HVAC?

Answer 98

For the Network+ exam, you also need to understand the importance of heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) systems. Because computer and network equipment generates a lot of heat, you need to ensure that you implement an HVAC solution that can keep rooms and equipment properly cooled. Equipment rooms and data centers need their own HVAC system that is separate from the rest of the building. You also need to understand emergency procedures. The building layout should be documented with all safety/emergency exits noted. A fire escape plan should be written, with appropriate personnel training occurring at least annually. Entrances/exits should be configured appropriately as fail open in the event of a fire. Fail close should only be used when a physical security breach has occurred. An emergency alert system should be implemented to ensure that personnel are appropriately alerted when an emergency occurs.