Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CompTIA Network+ (N10-008) > CompTIA Network+ (N10-008) Exam Compass Review > Flashcards

CompTIA Network+ (N10-008) Exam Compass Review Flashcards

1
Q

An IPv6 protocol used by routers to advertise their presence on a network is called:

A

Network Discovery Protocol

An IPv6 protocol used by routers to advertise their presence on a network is called Router Advertisement (RA).

Router Advertisement is part of the Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP), which is essential in IPv6 networks for hosts to discover routers, obtain their IPv6 addresses, and learn other network configuration parameters. Routers periodically send Router Advertisement messages to announce their availability and provide network configuration information to IPv6 hosts on the same link. These messages help hosts configure their IPv6 addresses and default gateway settings dynamically.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following allows a network node to autoconfigure an IPv6 address in the absence of a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol for IPv6 (DHCPv6) server?

A

The method that allows a network node to autoconfigure an IPv6 address in the absence of a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol for IPv6 (DHCPv6) server is called Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

An IP address that doesn’t correspond to any actual physical network interface is called a virtual IP address (VIP/VIPA).

True or false?

A

An IP address that does not correspond to any actual physical network interface but is used for purposes like load balancing, network redundancy, or network abstraction is indeed called a virtual IP address (VIP) or sometimes referred to as a virtual IP address (VIPA). These addresses are often associated with virtual machines, containers, or services running on a server or cluster of servers. They help manage network traffic, provide failover mechanisms, or simplify network configuration in complex environments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

IMAP4 (Internet Message Access Protocol version 4) is used for:

A

Retrieving email messages from a mail server while keeping them stored on the server.

Accessing emails from multiple devices

Managing email folders on the server

In summary, IMAP4 is designed for accessing and managing email in a more flexible and synchronized manner across multiple devices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

POP3 is used for?

A

POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3) is used for retrieving email from a mail server. It allows email clients to download messages from the server to a local computer, and typically, the messages are deleted from the server once downloaded. This makes POP3 suitable for users who prefer to access their email from a single device and want to store their messages locally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the characteristics of SMB/CIFS?

A

SMB (Server Message Block) and CIFS (Common Internet File System) are network protocols used for sharing files, printers, serial ports, and communications abstractions such as named pipes and mail slots between computers. Here are some key characteristics:

File Sharing
Network Transparency
Authentication and Access Control
Resource Sharing
Locking Mechanisms
Support for Multiple Protocols
Wide Compatibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Telnet Characteristics?

A

Transmits data in an unencrypted form
Provides username & password authentication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

IMAP4 Characteristics

A

Offers improved functionality in comparison to POP3
Serves the same function as POP3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the characteristic features of TFTP?

A

Provides no security features
A very basic form of file sharing protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The SMTP protocol is used for?

A

Sending email messages between mail servers
Sending email messages from a client device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following answers refer(s) to the POP3S encrypted communication?

TCP port 993
Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
TCP port 995
Transport Layer Security (TLS)
TCP port 110

A

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
TCP port 995
Transport Layer Security (TLS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the characteristic features of the secure version of IMAP?

A

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
TCP port 993
Transport Layer Security (TLS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following port numbers is used by the Microsoft Structured Query Language (SQL) Server?

A

1433 - Structured Query Language (SQL) Server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following answers refers to a Microsoft-proprietary remote-access protocol providing a user with graphical interface for connecting to another computer over a network?

A

RDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following answers refers to a protocol used for managing real-time sessions that include voice, video, application sharing, or instant messaging services?

A

SIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) runs on UDP or TCP?

A

UDP 67/68

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

An SNMP management station receives SNMP notifications from Agents on UDP port:

A

162

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

An SNMP Agent receives requests on UDP port:

A

161

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Syslog Port?

A

UDP 514

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A network administrator wants to secure the existing access to a directory service with SSL/TLS encryption. Which of the following TCP ports needs to be opened to implement this change?

A

636

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following answers refers to a protocol used by routers, hosts, and network devices to generate error messages and troubleshoot problems with delivery of IP packets?

A

ICMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following answers refers to a tunneling protocol?

A

GRE

22
Q

Which part of the IPsec protocol suite provides authentication and integrity?

A

AH - Authentication Header

23
Q

Which part of IPsec provides authentication, integrity, and confidentiality?

A

ESP - The part of IPsec that provides authentication, integrity, and confidentiality is ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload).

24
Q

Which of the IPsec modes provides entire packet encryption?

A

Transport Mode

25
Q

Networked clients not residing on the same subnet as the DHCP server can still obtain an IP address from the server through a DHCP relay agent (a.k.a. IP helper).

A

Yes, networked clients not residing on the same subnet as the DHCP server can still obtain an IP address from the server through the use of a DHCP relay agent, also known as an IP helper.

25
Q

A DNS record that stores administrative information about a domain or zone is known as:

A

A DNS record that stores administrative information about a domain or zone is known as an SOA (Start of Authority) record. The SOA record contains important information about the domain, such as the primary name server, the responsible party’s email address, the domain serial number, and timers relating to refreshing the zone.

26
Q

What is a SDN?

A

The technology designed to simplify network infrastructure management is SDN (Software-Defined Networking). SDN separates the control plane from the data plane in network devices, allowing for more flexible and efficient network management and configuration through centralized software-based controllers.

27
Q

What is the difference between Forward and Reverse DNS look up?

A

In a forward DNS lookup, a user or application provides a domain name, and the DNS system returns the corresponding IP address.

In a reverse DNS lookup, the user or application provides an IP address, and the DNS system returns the corresponding domain name.

28
Q

What is an iterative query in DNS function?

A

In an iterative query, the DNS server responds with the best answer it can provide, which may be a referral to another DNS server that is closer to the correct answer. The client then queries the referred DNS server, and this process continues until the client receives a final answer.

29
Q

What is an Recursive query in DNS function?

A

In contrast, in a recursive query, the DNS server takes on the full responsibility of resolving the query, potentially making multiple iterative queries on behalf of the client and then returning the final answer to the client.

30
Q

Which DNS record specifies a host and port information that allow to find specific services on a network?

A

Which DNS record specifies a host and port information that allow to find specific services on a network?

31
Q

Which of the following statements describing the function of a DNS PTR record are true?

A

PTR record resolves an IP address to a hostname for reverse lookups.

The functionality provided by a PTR record is the opposite of A and AAAA DNS records.

32
Q

An infrastructure device designed for connecting wireless/wired client devices to a network is commonly referred to as:

A

Access Point

33
Q

Which of the answers listed below apply to DSL modems? (Select 3 answers)

Dedicated bandwidth
Cabling that carries TV signals
Shared bandwidth
Twisted-pair copper cabling
Telephone lines
Coaxial cabling

A

Twisted-pair copper cabling
Telephone lines
Dedicated bandwidth

34
Q

Network connections implemented with the use of a cable modem take advantage of: (Select 3 answers)

Cabling that carries TV signals
Telephone lines
Coaxial cabling
Shared bandwidth
Twisted-pair copper cabling
Dedicated bandwidth

A

Cabling that carries TV signals
Coaxial cabling
Shared bandwidth

35
Q

Which of the following answers describe the features of a network bridge?

Makes forwarding decisions in hardware (ASIC)
Newer and more effective type of network device in comparison to network switch

Typically capable of connecting more network segments than switch (more physical ports)

Makes forwarding decisions in software

Typically capable of connecting fewer network segments than switch (fewer physical ports)

Older and less effective type of network device in comparison to network switch

A

Makes forwarding decisions in software

Typically capable of connecting fewer network segments than switch (fewer physical ports)

Older and less effective type of network device in comparison to network switch

36
Q

What are the characteristic traits of a network switch? (Select all that apply)

Makes forwarding decisions in hardware (ASIC)
Typically capable of connecting more network segments than bridge (more physical ports)

Older and less effective type of network device in comparison to network bridge

Makes forwarding decisions in software

Sometimes referred to as multiport bridge

Newer and more effective type of network device in comparison to network bridge

Typically capable of connecting fewer network segments than bridge (fewer physical ports)

A

Makes forwarding decisions in hardware (ASIC)

Typically capable of connecting more network segments than bridge (more physical ports)

Sometimes referred to as multiport bridge

Newer and more effective type of network device in comparison to network bridge

37
Q

Which of the terms listed below refers to a cloud computing feature that allows consumers to control the volume and type of utilized computing resources?

A

On-demand self-service

38
Q

Which cloud service model would provide the best solution for a web developer intending to create a web app?

A

PaaS

39
Q

A cloud computing service model offering remote access to applications based on monthly or annual subscription fee is called:

A

SaaS

40
Q

Which of the following answers refers to a link-state routing protocol?

A

OSPF

41
Q

Examples of distance-vector routing protocols include:

A

RIP / EIGRP

42
Q
A
43
Q

In routing, the term “Administrative distance” refers to a value used in routers to rank routes from most preferred (high AD value) to least preferred (low AD value).

True or False

A

In routing, the term “Administrative distance” (AD) refers to a value used in routers to rank routes from least preferred (high AD value) to most preferred (low AD value).

Administrative distance is a metric used by routers to determine the trustworthiness of a routing information source. When a router learns about multiple routes to the same destination from different routing protocols or sources (such as static routes, OSPF, RIP, BGP, etc.), it compares their administrative distances. The route with the lowest administrative distance is considered the most preferred because it is deemed more trustworthy or more directly connected to the destination. If multiple routes have the same administrative distance, the router then compares their metrics (such as hop count, bandwidth, etc.) to select the best route.

So, a lower administrative distance indicates a more preferred route, while a higher administrative distance indicates a less preferred route.

44
Q

An Ethernet switch forwards LAN traffic from connected devices based on the information stored in?

A

MAC Address Table

45
Q

Which of the following allows for verifying the absence of traffic on a shared transmission medium in 802.3 networks?

A

CSMA/CD

46
Q

A solution that allows to control access to a shared transmission medium in 802.11 networks is known as:

A

CSMA/CA

47
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to a channel bandwidth used in 802.11b networks?

A

22Mhz

48
Q

The IEEE 802.11ac standard specifies a maximum channel bandwidth of up to:

A

Up to 20/40/80/160 Mhz

49
Q

Which of the following answers refers to the IEEE 802.11ax maximum channel bandwidth?

A

Max 160Mhz

50
Q

Which of the following answers refers to a common antenna type used as a standard equipment on most Access Points (APs) for indoor Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) deployments?

A

Omni Directional

51
Q

DNS poisoning vs ARP Poisoning

A

DNS Poisoning and MAC Poisoning are two distinct types of attacks targeting different layers of network communication:

  1. DNS Poisoning (DNS Spoofing):
    • Target: Domain Name System (DNS)
    • Objective: To corrupt or manipulate DNS resolution process to redirect traffic from legitimate websites to malicious ones.
    • Method: Attacker alters DNS records in the cache of a DNS resolver or on a DNS server to point domain names to incorrect IP addresses.
    • Impact: Users are redirected to fraudulent websites or servers controlled by the attacker, leading to potential theft of credentials or installation of malware.
    • Prevention: Use of DNSSEC (DNS Security Extensions), ensuring DNS responses are authenticated and verified.
  2. MAC Poisoning (ARP Poisoning or ARP Spoofing):
    • Target: Media Access Control (MAC) addresses within the Ethernet or local network segment.
    • Objective: To intercept or modify traffic between network devices within the same LAN (Local Area Network).
    • Method: Attacker sends falsified Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) messages to associate their MAC address with the IP address of another network device, diverting traffic intended for that device.
    • Impact: Allows for Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attacks, where the attacker can intercept, modify, or eavesdrop on network traffic between victims.
    • Prevention: Use of ARP spoofing detection tools, such as static ARP entries, ARP inspection, and secure ARP protocols.

In summary, DNS Poisoning targets DNS resolution to redirect traffic, while MAC Poisoning (ARP Poisoning) manipulates ARP messages to intercept or modify traffic within a local network segment. Both types of attacks require different prevention measures to mitigate their risks effectively.

52
Q

The term “Runt frame” refers to an Ethernet frame that is smaller than the minimum of:

A

64 bytes

CompTIA Network+ (N10-008) (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions