1.0 Networking Fundamentals Flashcards
Your company’s networking team wants to deploy 10-Gigabit Ethernet (10GbE or 10 Gbps Ethernet) over fiber optic
cables for its core or backbone network segments. Which of the following types of transceivers are they most likely
to plug directly into their switches, routers, and server network adapters?
A) QSFP
B) GBIC
C) CFP
D) SFP+
E) SFP
They are most likely to plug an SFP+ transceiver into their switches, routers, and server network adapters. As data
rates increase to 10 Gbps and beyond, networks make increasing use of fiber optic cables to convey the signals
necessary to encode and transport the huge volumes of information involved. Likewise, fiber optic cable is a must
for long-haul communications and for distances over 1 km for cable runs.
What is a Fiber Optic Transceiver?
A fiber optic transceiver acts to convert digital data into pulses of light for transmission, and to convert those pulses
of light into digital data upon reception. A variety of fiber optic transceiver types can support 10GbE, but only one of
them is currently widely deployed and used for that purpose in equipment from vendors that include Cisco, Aruba
(HPE), Juniper, Dell and so forth. This is the plus version of the small form-factor pluggable (SFP+) fiber optic
transceiver.
What is SFP?
Small form-factor pluggable (SFP) is a compact, hot-pluggable transceiver module used in both telecommunications
and data communications (networking) applications. The SFP works like an upgraded version of the GBIC
transceiver, but is more compact. It works with SONET, GbE, Fibre Channel, and other communications standards.
It does not, however, work with 10GbE
What is QSPF+
QSFP stands for quad (4-channel) small form-factor pluggable. Like SFP, it is a compact, hot-pluggable transceiver
used primarily for data communications. A variant of this standard, QSFP+, has evolved as a standard for 10 Gbps
data rates per the SFF-8436 standard, but the plain-vanilla QSFP standard is not used for such applications.
What is GBIC?
GBIC stands for Gigabit interface converter. Like SFP, which is viewed as a kind of successor to GBIC, GBIC is hotpluggable, and is primarily used with GbE and Fibre Channel, though it also supports Fast Ethernet (100 Mbps),
and variety of other signaling technologies. GBIC does not support 10 GbE.
What is CFP?
C form-factor pluggable (CFP) is derived from the Latin number for 100 (Centum, which shares a common root with century). In fact, CFP was primarily developed for 100 GbE applications. It can support 40 and 100 Gbps. applications, including both Ethernet varieties. It is overkill for a 10 Gbps connection, more expensive to use, and would require a converter to plug into a 10 GbE port. For all of those reasons, CFP is incorrect.
You are the network administrator for your company. As part of your job, you must understand how data is transmitted through the different OSI layers. Move the OSI layers from the left column to the right column, and place them in the correct order, starting with Layer 1 at the top.
APPLICATION
TRANSPORT
SESSION
PRESENTATION
DATA LINK
PHYSICAL
NETWORK
Layer 1 − Physical
Layer 2 − Data Link
Layer 3 − Network
Layer 4 − Transport
Layer 5 − Session
Layer 6 − Presentation
Layer 7 − Application
What does the Layer 1 - Physical layer consist of?
Technologies, Standards, Examples: Copper, Fiber Optics, IEEE 1394, BASE Standards. (connection media)
Electrical and mechanical characteristics
Ensures the physical communication between the devices and converts an electrical pulse to binary. It defines the specific standard to which the physical components must comply to. The most commonly used protocols include the following, IEEE.802.11, IEEE.802.3 and several others.
What does the Layer 2 - Data Link layer consist of?
Technologies, Standards, Examples: Logical Link Control (LLC) / Media Access Control (MAC) - Etherenet, ATM, MPLS, PPP, STP
Flow control acknowledgements, error detections – Also determines access to the media.
The Data link layer provides communication between directly connected devices. It also provides error handling for the OSI model’s physical layer. It consists of two sub-layers, Media Access Control (MAC) and the Logical Link Control (LLC) layers. Most switches operate on the Data link layer or Layer 2 for communication, but there are exceptions where switches can also work on Layer 3 and are referred to as a Layer 3 switch where routing capabilities are required.
What does Layer 3 - Network Consist of?
Technologies, Standards, Examples: IP, ICMP, NAT, OSPF
Routing, Logical addressing
Routers function on the Network layer. This layer is responsible for forwarding packets to specific routes on the network. This layer analyses the packets received and determines if it has reached its destination and then passes it to the Transport layer. If it is not the final destination, it will pass it to the Data link layer until it reaches its final destination. The Network layer is also responsible for updating routing tables.
What does layer 4 - Transport Consist of?
Technologies and Standards, Examples:
The Transport layer’s function is to deliver data across network connections. The most commonly used protocols are TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) and UDP (User Datagram Protocol). Different protocols will have different functionalities when transporting data across the network. For example, error checking is done using the TCP protocol.
What Does layer 5 - Session Consist of?
Technologies and Standards, Examples: NetBIOS, RPC, SMB, Sockets
Establishes, maintains and terminates session communications
The OSI model’s Session layer manages the flow and sequence of different network connections. This ensures the possibility for dynamic concurrent connections.
What does Layer 6 - Presentation consist of?
Technologies and Standards, Examples: SSL, SSH, Compression, encryption and decryption and encoding.
The simplest part of the OSI model is the Presentation layer, as it handles the processing and converting of the data, for example, encryption and decryption, to facilitate the support for the Application layer.
What does Layer 7 - Application consist of?
Technologies and Standards, Examples: DHCP, DNS, FTP, SMPTP, HTTP, POP3
The final layer in the OSI model, the Application layer, provides network services to the application. These services include protocols that integrate into the application; for example, the HTTP protocol is used to deliver data to a web browser to display a user’s web page.
While designing your network architecture, you decide to configure multiple VLANs to a router within your network.
You are aware that having multiple VLANs on a single router will not be feasible to manage. What should you do to
help mitigate this problem?
A) Implement the Stateless Address Auto Configuration (SLAAC) technique.
B) Implement a dual-stack setup.
C) Implement sub-interfaces on your routers.
D) Implement Spanning Tree Protocol (STP
You should implement sub-interfaces on your routers to mitigate the management issue with multiple VLANs on a
single router. Sub-interfaces are used to help manage multiple VLANs within a router and facilitate
intercommunication with each other. A sub-interface can be configured virtually on a router or switch so that each
device connected to a VLAN appears under the same IP address, causing the IP address to act as a default
gateway. Routers can be configured to have multiple sub-interfaces, enabling greater network scalability and
flexibility without increased costs.
What is dual stacking?
Dual stacking is when a device can run both IPv4 and IPv6 in parallel to each other. While this is a useful
networking technology
Implementing the Stateless Address Auto Configuration (SLAAC) technique. What does it do?
The SLAAC technique is an IPv6 technique that is done automatically. It enables each host on a network to auto-configure a unique IPv6 address without any device keeping track of the node to which it was assigned.
What is STP?
STP is a protocol that is designed to prevent network loops from occurring. (Spanning Tree Protocol)
You will have a very small wiring closet for your routers. While the company will use fiber-optic cabling, you would
like to use the smallest form connector to conserve space. The connector you plan to use should be roughly half the
size of the other connectors. Which fiber-optic connector should you use?
A) ST
B) LC
C) BNC
D) SC
A Lucent Connector (LC) fiber-optic connector is roughly half the size of other fiber-optic connectors. Its smaller form allows for more space in the wiring closet.
What is SC connector?
The SC connector is a square, plug-in connector used with fiber-optic cable. It is a popular choice in 100Base-FX
implementations. SC stands for square connector. The SC connector uses a push to snap on and a push to snap off
technology. It is larger than an LC connector.
What are the two types of SC connector?
There are two types of SC connectors: ultra physical contact (UPC) and angled physical contact (APC). APC
connectors feature an 8-degree angle, while UPC connectors have no angle. UPC adapters are blue, while APC
adapters are green
What is an ST connector?
The ST connector is a round, bayonet type of connector used with fiber-optic cable, which uses a twist on-twist off
technology. The ST stands for straight tip, which refers to the white tip at the end of the connector. It is larger than
an LC connector.
What is an BNC connector?
A BNC connector is used to connect a 10Base-2 (ThinNet) cable to a computer or network device. It is also used to
terminate DS3 connections in a telecommunications facility. It is not used by fiber-optic cable.
What is an MTRJ connector?
Another connector that is used with fiber-optic cabling is the Mechanical Transfer Registered Jack (MTRJ)
connector. It more closely resembles the RJ-45 connector used in UTP and STP cabling.
What is an RJ-45 connector?
RJ-45 connectors are used to connect unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) and shielded twisted-pair (STP) cable to hubs,
network interface cards (NICs), and various other twisted-pair networking devices. RJ-45 connectors are shaped
like RJ-11 connectors, only larger. They use an 8-pin connector that house eight (four pair) wires. Registered Jack
(RJ) connectors use a small tab to lock the connector in place
what is an RJ-11 connector?
An RJ-11 connector is typically used to connect two pairs of UTP wiring to a voice-grade telephone system. They
are smaller than RJ-45 connectors.
What is an RJ-48C connector?
An RJ-48C connector at first glance will look exactly like an RJ-45 connector. However, on close examination, a
technician will notice that the wires are in a different order. It is mostly commonly used for T1 data lines for longer
distances and when exposed to the environment. To protect the integrity of the signal, RJ48 wirings use STP
cabling.
You utilize different components, protocols, and technologies on your company’s network. You need to determine the layer of the OSI model on which these function. Match the components on the left with the layer from the OSI model on the right within which they operate.
Network Cable
FDDI
IPSec
TCP
RPC
MIME
DHCP
The components should be matched with the OSI layers in the following manner:
Physical layer − Network cable
Data Link layer − FDDI
Network layer − IPSec
Transport layer − TCP
Session layer − RPC
Presentation layer − MIME
Application layer - DHCP
Which three options are considered to be characteristics of a client-server network? (Choose 3)
Lengthy access time for a service
More stable and secure connections
Less expensive network hardware
Every node in the network can request and provide services
A decentralized network
Client-server networks are characterized by more secure and stable connections, less expensive networking hardware, and lengthy access times when utilizing a service.
The main two types of networks you will need to understand for the Network+ exam are?
peer-to-peer and clientserver networks. Peer-to-peer networks are decentralized networks in which node can request and provide services.
Client-server networks employ a single central server to which clients will request access so they can connect to the web and use applications, files, and other shared resources. In this network, a client will request a service from the central server, and the server will grant clients access if clients are authorized. These networks are more stable, cheaper, and secure; however, they do take significantly more time to access various services than in a peer-to-peer network.
Peer-to-peer networks have no centralized server. Rather, these networks allow devices to send and receive data directly with each other so that any node can act as a client or a server. These nodes are referred to as peers. Peerto-peer networks are known for being fast, reliable, and easy to set up, but are often seen as more unstable, less secure, and expensive. To access resources on a peer, the owner of the resource must grant that access and configure a username/password combination. For this reason, users may need to keep up with multiple
username/password combinations, one for each different peer.
Why are north-south traffic flows often seen as a targets for malicious attackers?
North-south traffic flows transmit data over the public internet.
North-south traffic flows are not targeted by attacks.
North-south communications are only used to send highly sensitive data.
North-south traffic cannot be secured, and therefore is an easily
exploited vulnerability in any network.
Traffic flows refer to data origin and destination within any network. North-south communications refers to traffic
flows that go in and out of a datacenter over the public internet. Due to this public-facing element, attackers will
target these flows with malicious incoming traffic requests to attempt to gain network access. However, these traffic
flows can be secured with firewalls and application gateways to monitor the traffic coming into and out of the
network.
What is East - West traffice flow?
The opposite of north-south traffic flow is east-west traffic. East-west traffic flow refers to the data that is sent within
or between data centers. These flows occur when network infrastructure devices are communicating with each other
through virtual networks, subnets, and so on. To secure east-west traffic, organizations should follow the policies of
zero trust, as well as only utilize necessary communications paths.
Your company has decided to implement IPSec for all remote connections. Which three statements are true of Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)? (Choose 3)
A) IPSec uses encapsulation security payload (ESP) and authenticationheader (AH) as security protocols for encapsulation.
B) IPSec can work in either in tunnel mode or transport mode.
C) The IPSec framework is used in a virtual private network (VPN) implementation to secure transmissions.
D) IPSec ensures availability of information as a part of the CIA triad.
E) The IPsec framework uses L2TP as the encryption protocol
Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is an Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) protocol and a security standard commonly implemented to create virtual private networks (VPNs). IPSec can operate in tunnel mode or transport mode. In transport mode, only the payload, that is, the message part of a packet is encrypted by encapsulating security payload (ESP). In IPSec tunnel mode, the entire packet including the packet header and the routing information is encrypted. IPSec tunnel mode provides a higher level of security. Either of the two modes can be used to secure gateway-to-gateway (site-to-site), host-to-gateway (host-to-site), or host-to-host communication. If used in gateway-to-host communication, the gateway must act as the host.
IPSec allows packets to be securely exchanged over the Internet Protocol (IP) at the OSI Network layer rather than
at the Application layer. While the IETF developed the standard, Cisco has contributed to its emergence. Cisco
routers have support for IPSec built into the product. IPSec uses ESP and authentication header (AH) as security
protocols. AH provides the authentication mechanism, and ESP provides encryption, confidentiality, and message
integrity. IPSec sets up a secure channel that uses a strong encryption and authentication method between two
network devices, such as routers, virtual private network (VPN) concentrators, and firewalls.
You are deploying fiber optic links and connections on a local area network. You need to ensure proper and efficient
data communications. Which of the following transceiver or fiber optics characteristics are essential? (Choose 3)
simplex cables
half duplex
full duplex
multimode
single-mode
duplex cables
The following transceiver or fiber optics characteristics are essential:
Multimode − Multimode cable makes use of thicker, graded light-conducting fibers that are cheaper to make and
terminate, and that use cheaper and less precise light emitting and receiving elements in their transceivers.
They are more limited in the distances such cables can span (but can still cover hundreds of meters) and are
well-suited for LAN applications.
Full duplex − Full-duplex communications means that both parties may transmit and receive simultaneously
over a communications link. Because LAN applications require simultaneous, two-way communications, full
duplex is needed.
Duplex cables − Duplex cables incorporate two fibers, so that one may be used to send data for receipt by
another party, while that other party may use the other fiber to send data for receipt by the first party. Thus, this
supports simultaneous, two-way communications and is well-suited for LAN applications.
What are the functions of single mode fiber optics?
Single-mode cable makes use of very thin, very pure light-conducting fibers that are more expensive to make and
much more expensive to terminate than multimode cables. For that added expense and complexity, they provide the
ability to run cables for 10 – 100 km per segment without difficulty. This makes them unlikely to be used for LAN
applications, where cost is a major factor.
what are half-duplex functions?
Half-duplex communications means that while one party is transmitting, the other party to a connection can only
receive until that transmission ends. Then the line may be idle, or either party can commence further transmission
(but only one at a time). LAN applications require simultaneous, two-way communications
Simplex cables functions?
Simplex cables are best used for one-way transmission of data from a sender to a receiver. Because this precludes
simultaneous transmission and reception by two parties, simplex cables do not work well for LAN applications.
You need to deploy a fiber distribution panel for datacenter, remote office, or local area networking use. Which of the
following features are NOT important for such uses? (Choose 2)
Cable storage
Cable termination
Cable splices
Support for SFP+
Bulkhead adapters and receptacles
Support for GBIC connectors
A fiber distrbibution panel does not need support for SFP+ and for GBIC connectors. These two options represent
connectors used at endpoints, such as routers, switches, and network interfaces, not connectors or functions
present in FDPs themselves.
GBIC connectors are used for end-point termination at a device interface of some kind. They are neither typically
used nor necessary on a fiber distribution panel.
A fiber distribution panel (FDP), also known as a fiber optic distribution panel, offers the following for data centers,
remote office, or local area networking use?
Cable termination − FDPs usually provide a common point for terminating fiber optic cables so that they may be
connected to fiber optic terminal equipment, such as switches, routers, and network interfaces of all kinds.
Bulkhead adapters and receptacles − In an FDP, distribution pigtails with their single connectors (the other end
will be spliced to another fiber optic cable coming either from off or on the current premises) are routed through
cable distribution trays or cable management trays and will be terminated in bulkhead adapters and attendant
receptacles.
Cable splices − FDPs provide facilities for mounting and protecting fiber optic cable splices, including clamps
and mounts to secure spliced cables. They may also include one or more splice trays, where spliced cross- or
pass-through fiber optic connections may be stored. Splice trays also usually house the splice chips used to
create necessary fiber optic cable splices on location.
Cable storage − FDPs usually include cable reels for storing pigtails and patch cables, and may include other
cable storage space and options as well. Often, splice tray(s) and extra cable storage is provided at the bottom
of an FDP chassis.
What are the benefits of establishing an on-premises data center?
Establishing an on-premises datacenter is ideal for single-office organizations. This solution provides great availability, as all the datacenter’s hardware is located within the office complex, which also makes management and security easier to implement. However, on-premises solutions can often lack redundancy, and network administrators should take steps to implement redundant devices and links throughout the network.
What are the benefits of a colocation data center?
Colocation refers to hosting an organization’s hardware within a datacenter owned by a third party. In this system,
the client still owns the server but the third party provides the power, bandwidth, and physical space. While the client
is still tasked with managing their devices and the software they use, the third party manages physical access to the
premises and security measures. This model provides a very high degree of freedom and flexibility as the clients
can choose exactly how the servers will be configured without having to oversee the location, power needs, or
bandwidth requirements.
As part of monitoring network traffic, you need to determine the payload that is produced by using IPSec in tunnel
mode with the AH protocol. Which of the following best describes this payload?
an unencapsulated packet that is encrypted
an unencapsulated packet that is digitally signed
an encapsulated packet that is encrypted
an encapsulated packet that is digitally signed
Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) in tunnel mode with the Authentication Header (AH) protocol produces an
encapsulated packet that is digitally signed. AH digitally signs a packet for authentication purposes. Tunnel mode
encapsulates a packet within another packet. Encapsulating Security Protocol (ESP) encrypts IPSec packets.
Transport mode sends IPSec packets between two computers without encapsulating packets. AH and ESP work in
transport mode and tunnel mode.
Which TCP port is the well-known port assigned to SSL?
119
443
80
20
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) port 443 is the well-known port assigned to Secure Sockets Layer (SSL). SSL uses public key cryptography at the Session layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model to secure transactions, such as financial transactions, on the Internet. The Session layer is responsible for establishing andmaintaining a connection between two computers on a network, which is referred to as a session.
SSL can select from several public key cryptography technologies, including Digital Encryption Standard (DES),
triple-DES, and Rivest-Shamir-Adelman (RSA). Port 443 sessions often use transport-layer encryption. In public key
cryptography, a computer such as a server has a private key that is kept secret and a public key that is shared with
the public. When a Web client contacts a Web server for an SSL session, the Web server sends the Web client its
certificate, which contains the server’s public key. The Web browser can contact a certificate authority to determine
whether the certificate and the public key are authentic. After the Web client authenticates the server’s certificate,
the client encrypts a message and sends it back to the server. The server then authenticates the client by decrypting
the message. After the authentication process is complete, the client and the server negotiate an encryption
algorithm, such as RSA or DES, to be used during the session. After the encryption algorithm is negotiated,
messages on the session can be encrypted. SSL was deprecated for TLS.
Define the ports of:
20
80
119
TCP port 20 is assigned to File Transfer Protocol (FTP). FTP can be used to transfer files between FTP clients andFTP servers on a TCP/IP network such as the Internet.
TCP port 80 is assigned to Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP). HTTP is used to transfer Web pages from Webservers to Web browsers on a TCP/IP network. Port 80 Web sessions often use application-level encryption.
TCP port 119 is assigned to the Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP). NNTP is used to transfer network news
messages on TCP/IP networks Protocols can use either User Datagram (UDP) or TCP to communicate. UDP is connectionless, while TCP is connection-oriented.
Define the port number of these default ports:
FTP –
SSH, SFTP –
TELNET –
SMTP –
DNS –
DHCP –
TFTP –
HTTP –
POP3 –
NTP –
FTP – 20, 21
SSH, SFTP – 22
TELNET – 23
SMTP – 25
DNS – 53
DHCP – 67, 68
TFTP – 69
HTTP – 80
POP3 – 110
NTP – 123
Define the port number of these default ports:
NetBIOS –
IMAP –
SNMP –
LDAP –
HTTPS –
SMB –
Syslog –
SMTP TLS –
LDAPS –
IMAP over SSL –
POP3 over SSL –
NetBIOS – 137–139
IMAP – 143
SNMP – 161/162
LDAP – 389
HTTPS – 443
SMB – 445
Syslog – 514
SMTP TLS – 587
LDAPS – 636
IMAP over SSL – 993
POP3 over SSL –995
Define the port number of these default ports:
Structured Query Language (SQL) Server –
SQLnet –
H.323 –
MGCP –
MySQL –
RDP –
RTP –
SIP –
Structured Query Language (SQL) Server – 1433
SQLnet –1521
H.323 – 1720
MGCP – 2427/2727
MySQL –3306
RDP – 3389
RTP – 5004/5005
SIP – 5060/5061
You decide to implement a DHCP server on your network. What is the purpose of a DHCP scope?
A) It is an IP address that cannot be assigned.
B) It is an IP address that is set aside for a certain device.
C) It is the temporary assignment of an IP address.
D) It is the range of IP addresses that a DHCP server can temporarily assign.
The DHCP scope is the range of IP addresses that a DHCP server can temporarily assign to its clients. DHCPscopes are also referred to as pools.
What is the function of DHCP reservation?
A DHCP reservation is an IP address that is set aside for a certain device. The lease is granted to the device’s MAC
address. If the device’s MAC address changes, the DHCP reservation will no longer work.
What is the function of DHCP exclusion?
A DHCP exclusion is an IP address or group of addresses from within a scope that CANNOT be assigned. This is
often used for addresses within the scope that must be statically assigned to devices, such as routers and servers,
that need a static address to ensure that they can always be accessed using the same host name and IP address.
What is the application DHCP server do?
A DHCP server dynamically assigns the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway to client computers. IP
addresses may be assigned statically rather than dynamically; however, assigning static IP addresses requires
greater administrative effort. When IP addresses are statically assigned, it is crucial to maintain a manual record of
which client was assigned which IP address. If the addressing scheme were to change, it might necessitate the
manual reconfiguration of each computer.
What is the difference of Dynamic and Static DHCP?
For the Network+ exam, you will also need to understand the difference between dynamic and static DHCP assignment. Dynamic assignment refers to IP address that can be changed at a moment’s notice. These dynamic address are assigned via a DHCP server to individual devices within a network, such as computers, smartphones, or similar devices. Static assignment is where a device is assigned a static IP address that does not change. These addresses are used generally by servers or other equipment within a network’s architecture. Static IP addresses are usually assigned to the device’s MAC address, which is the hard-coded address assigned by the manufacturer of
the network card.
A customer has asked you to deploy a solution based on port numbers that allows multiple computers to share a single IP address. Which addressing technology should you deploy?
APIPA
DHCP
NAT
PAT
Port Address Translation (PAT) provides port address translation. This is based on the port numbers. When using
PAT, you are able to share a single public IP address among multiple computers on the same network.
What is the NAT function?
Network Address Translation (NAT) is a standard that translates private IP addresses into public IP addresses. It allows multiple private address devices to share a single public address.
What does DHCP do?
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a dynamic IP addressing scheme whereby DHCP servers assign IP
addresses based on the DHCP client requests.
What is the element of RFC 1918?
Another important element that you will need to understand for the Network+ exam is RFC 1918. RFC 1918 was used to create the standards for assigning IP address within a private network to various pieces of networking equipment. It facilitated the expansion of usable IP addresses under IPv4 to prevent the exhaustion of public addresses available.
Which open standard creates a redundancy group to share an IP address?
CARP
LACP
HSRP
NAT
Common Address Redundancy Protocol (CARP) is an open standard that creates a redundancy group to share an
IP address.
Definition of HSRP?
Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP) is a Cisco standard similar to CARP.
Definition of LACP?
Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) is a standard that assigns multiple physical links to a logical interface.
Which of the following uses cells that are equally sized at 53 bytes each?
DMVPN
PPPoE
ATM
SIP trunk
Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) is a network transmission model used in voice, video, and data communications that uses equally sized cells that are all 53 bytes long. The equal length of the data packets supports very high data rates. ATM is deployed in Optical Carrier (OC) backbone network segments.
What is a PPPoE?
Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE) encapsulates Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) frames over Ethernet. It
is typically used in DSL to allow subscribers on Ethernet networks to connect over DSL modems.
What is DMVPN?
Dynamic Multiport Virtual Private Network (DMVPN) allows an organization to exchange data over a secure network of VPNs, without having to route the data through the organization’s primary VPN router. In essence, a DMVPN creates a mesh VPN topology.
SIP Trunking?
Session Initialization Protocol (SIP) trunking is used in Voice over IP telephony. The SIP trunk connects the incoming gateway with the customer’s Private Branch Exchange (PBX).
You administer a LAN. You want to encrypt TCP/IP communications on the LAN. The protocol that you use for encryption should be able to encrypt entire data packets, and the protocol should be able to operate in both tunnel mode and transport mode. Which protocol should you use to encrypt data on the network?
IPSec
Kerberos
IPX
L2TP
You should use Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) to encrypt the data packets on the network that you administer. IPSec can encrypt data packets transported on a TCP/IP network by using either tunnel mode or transport mode. In transport mode, IPSec encrypts only the part of an IP data packet used by the Transport layer. In tunnel mode, IPSec encrypts entire IP packets. IPSec uses several technologies to encrypt data, including the following: DiffieHellman key exchange, Data Encryption Standard (DES), bulk encryption, and digital certificates.
What are the simple functions of Kerberos?
Kerberos is an authentication protocol that is used to determine whether users should be allowed to gain access to a network or network resources. Windows operating systems support Kerberos and the NT LAN Manager (NTLM) authentication protocols; NTLM is also known as Windows NT Challenge/Response. Kerberos is used for authentication between Windows computers. The NTLM authentication protocol is used for authentication between a down-level computer, such as an older Windows that only includes NTLM.
Your company’s enterprise network includes multiple subnets, each of them using a different addressing class. You need to identify IP addresses by matching the first two octets of the IP address with its corresponding class and type. Which address class below is not matched to the first two octets of a correct IP address?
Class A private − 10.6.xx.xx
Class C private – 169.254.x.x.
Class A public − 77.24.x.x
Class B public − 143.91.xx.xx
A Class C private address has 192.168.x.x as the first two octets.
169.254.x.x represents the first two octets of an APIPA address
The others are correct
Other classes of IP addresses can be matched to their first two octest:
Class B Private − 172.20.x.x
Class C Public − 204.29.xx.xx
Class A addresses are in the 0.0.0.0 through 126.255.255.255 range.
Class B addresses are in the 128.0.0.0 through 191.255.255.255 range.
Class C addresses are in the 192.0.0.0 through 223.255.255.255 range.
What are the reserved ranges of:
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class A − 10.0.0.0 through 10.255.255.255
Class B − 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255
Class C − 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255
Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) addresses are in the 169.254.0.0 through 169.254.255.255 range
You need to create an encrypted remote terminal connection with a UNIX computer. Which protocol should you
use?
FTP
SSH
Telnet
SCP
Secure Shell (SSH) is used to create an encrypted remote terminal connection with a UNIX computer. File Transfer
Protocol (FTP) is used to transfer files on a TCP/IP network. FTP transmits data in clear text. Secure Copy (SCP) enables users to transfer files over a secure connection. Telnet is a protocol that enables a user to establish terminal connections with UNIX computers. Telnet transmits data in clear text. To fully harden your network, you should use the following secure protocols:
SSH − secure alternative to Telnet.
SNMPv3 − secure alternative to SNMPv1 and v2.
TLS/SSL − used with different protocols, including FTP and HTTP, to secure transactions.
SFTP − secure alternative to FTP. It uses TLS/SSL.
HTTPS − secure alternative to HTTP, It uses TLS/SSL.
IPsec − used on virtual private networks (VPNs) to encrypt traffic.
What are the three anti-malware software options available?
Host-based − Host-based anti-malware software is installed at the local host, although its updates may be managed from a central location. Host-based anti-malware protects only the device on which it is installed.
Cloud/server-based − Cloud- or server-based anti-malware protects all components located on the cloud or server.
Network-based − Network-based anti-malware protects the entire network. In some case, a small client component will need to be installed on the network hosts to ensure that the network-based software can communicate with all hosts on the network.
Your company is considering converting to the use of IPv6 addresses. What are the three types of Internet Protocol
version 6 (IPv6) addresses? (Choose 3)
Anycast
Broadcast
Multicast
Dual-cast
Unicast
Unicast, multicast, and anycast are types of IPv6 addresses
Unicast address: This type of address is used to define a single destination interface. A packet sent to a unicast address is delivered to the specific interface.
Multicast address: This type of address is used to define a group of hosts. When a packet is sent to a multicast address, it is delivered to all the hosts identified by that address. Multicast addresses begin with the prefix FF00::/8. The second octet identifies the range over which the multicast address is propagated.
FF01:0:0:0:0:0:0:1: Indicates all-nodes address for interface-local scope.
FF02:0:0:0:0:0:0:2: Indicates all-routers address for link-local.
Anycast address: This type of address is used to identify a set of devices. These addresses are also assigned to more than one interface belonging to different nodes. A packet sent to an anycast address is delivered to just one of the interfaces, based on which one is closest. For example, if an anycast address is assigned to a set of routers, one in India and another in the U.S., the users in the U.S. will be routed to U.S. routers and the users in India will be routed to the router in India.
Which wireless communications mode enables wireless devices to communicate directly with each other?
infrastructure
transport
ad hoc
tunnel
Ad hoc is a wireless communications mode that enables wireless devices to communicate directly with each other. The wireless networking technology is sometimes referred to as Wi-Fi.
In infrastructure mode, wireless devices must communicate through wireless access points. Transport and tunnel modes are provided by Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) to securely transmit Internet Protocol (IP) packets.
You are analyzing communication over your network. You have captured all the packets sent to and from a server on your network. You need to filter the packet capture to only IMAP4 protocol communications. Which port does this
protocol use?
TCP port 25
UDP port 110
TCP port 110
UDP port 25
UDP port 143
TCP port 143
internet Message Access Protocol version 4 (IMAP4) is an Internet protocol for e-mail retrieval that uses TCP port
143. IMAP4 works at the Application layer of the OSI model.
What are the port numbers of POP3 and SMTP and their functions?
Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3) is an e-mail message retrieval protocol that uses TCP port 110. Simple MailTransfer Protocol (SMTP) is an e-mail message protocol that uses TCP port 25. POP3 and SMTP work at theApplication layer of the OSI model.
These protocols are connection-oriented protocols, and therefore require the use of TCP. UDP is a connectionless
protocol. The TCP header implements flags, while the UDP header does not. These flags are used to indicate information about the packet transfer, such as connection state or other similar info. The Internet Protocol (IP) is the communications protocol for relaying data across networks. Its routing function enables internet working and essentially establishes the Internet.
You have recently added a new Windows 8 computer to your IPv6 network. Because your network is small, you currently use static IP addressing. You record the IPv6 address of the new Windows 8 computer. What is the shortest possible notation of it IPv6 address as shown below?
2001:0DB8:0000:0001:0000:0000:0000:F00D
The shortest possible notation of the IPv6 address 2001:0DB8:0000:0001:0000:0000:0000:F00D is
2001:DB8:0:1::F00D. The address is shortened according to the following rules:
Remove leading zeros.
Remove the consecutive fields of zeros with double colon (::).
The double colon (::) can be used only once.
General Info about IPv6 address.
::10.2.4.1 is an example of an IPv4-compatible IPv6 address, where the first 12 bytes (96 bits) of the address
are set to 0.
:: is the IPv6 “unspecified address.” It is a unicast address not assigned to any interface, and is used by DHCPdependent host prior to allocating a real IPv6 address.
2001:0:42:3:ff::1 is a valid IP address, with the :: representing two segments (4 bytes) of compressed zeros
2001:42:4:0:0:1:34:0 is a valid IP address, with only the leading zeros of each segment truncated.
What does an IPv6 unicast address range is?
IPv6 globally routable unicast addresses start with the first 4 characters in the range of 2000 to 3999.
What does an IPv6 link local address consist of?
FE80
What does an IPv6 Multicast address start off with?
FF
Can IPv6 auto discover current network and select host ID?
IPv6 can use auto-configuration to discover the current network and select a host ID that is unique on that network. IPv6 can also use a special version of DHCP for IPv6. The protocol that is used to discover the network address and learn the Layer 2 address of neighbors on the same network is Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP).
What does an EUI-64 mean on IPv6?
IPv6 addresses use the Extended Unique Identifier (EUI-64) format. This format causes a router to automatically
populate the low-order 64 bits of an IPv6 address based on an interface’s MAC address.
Which WAN technology offers the highest potential bandwidth?
OC-3
Frame Relay
T3
E3
FDDI
OC stands for optical carrier. OCx levels are a set of transmission rates as specified by Synchronous Optical
Network (SONET) for implementations over fiber-optic cable. The base rate is OC-1, which has a maximum of 51.84 Mbps. OC-3 has a bandwidth potential of 155.52 Mbps. The following are transmission rates of other common WAN technologies:
BRI ISDN − up to 128 Kbps
PRI ISDN − up to 1.544 Mbps (over T1)
T1 − up to 1.544 Mbps
Frame Relay − up to 1.544 Mbps
E1 − up to 2.048 Mbp
T2 - up to 6.312 Mbps
E3 − up to 34.368 Mbps
T3 − up to 44.736 Mbps
OC-1 − up to 51.84 Mbps
FDDI − up to 100 Mbps
OC-3 − up to 155.52 Mbps
T4 - up to 274.176 Mbps
ATM − up to 622 Mbps
OC-12 − up to 622.08 Mbps
OC-24 − up to 1244.16 Mbps
OC-192 − up to 9953.28 Mbps
What are the WAN Technologies?
OCX − includes speeds up to 51.84 Mbps for OC-1, 155.52 Mbps for OC-3, and 622.08 Mbps for OC-12. This network uses fiber optic cabling. All OCX networks are packet-switched networks.
ATM − allows speeds up to 622 Mbps. This network uses UTP or STP. ATM is a packet-switched network.
Frame relay − allows speed up to 1.544 Mbps. This network uses UTP/STP, coaxial, or fiber-optic cabling. All frame relay networks are packet-switched networks.
You are working to convert a 10Base-T network to a 1000Base-T network. This conversion includes replacing all cabling, network devices, and network interface cards (NICs). Next year, a planned renovation will move various departments to different areas within the same building. That renovation should involve minimal network hardware changes.
When you start the conversion, you have a hard time determining where each wall plate terminates at the patch panels. You decide to follow better design procedures to make future upgrades or troubleshooting easier and also to ensure that next year’s move goes more smoothly. Your solutions should minimally impact the current network structure.
Which best practices should you implement during the conversion? (Choose 2)
Implement port labeling
Implement device naming conventions.
Create a logical network diagram.
Implement an SLA.
Create a physical network diagram.
Implement patch panel labeling
You should implement port labeling and patch panel labeling. This will ensure that you are able to locate individual cables at both ends of their connection. For example, the wall port where the computer is connected to the network might be labeled as Port24. Where the cable then plugs into the patch panel or other network device, you should also label that port with the same number. This will ensure that you can easily locate both ends of the connection.
Match the description on the left with the DNS resource record on the right?
A - Maps an IP address to a host name
AAAA - Maps a mail server name to a domain
CNAME - Maps a host name to an IPv6 address
MX - Maps a host name to an IPv4 address
PTR - Maps an additional host name to an existing host record
A − Maps a host name to an IPv4 address
AAAA − Maps a host name to an IPv6 address
CNAME − Maps an additional host name to an existing host record
MX − Maps a mail server name to a domain
PTR − Maps an IP address to a host name
Your network contains a DHCP server. While performing routine maintenance, you discover that the DHCP server has the following types of options configured: server options, scope options, reserved client options, and class options. Which of these types of options takes precedence?
server options
reserved client options
scope options
class options
The reserved client options take precedence over all the other options.
The order in which options are applied is as follows:
1. Server options
2. Scope options
3. Class options
4. Reserved client options
Scope options always override server options if there is a conflict. Class options always override scope and server options. To use class options, DHCP clients must be configured with a specific DHCP Class ID. Reserved client options always override client, scope, and server options.
Which of these networks encompasses several buildings that are usually located within a several block radius?
metropolitan area network (MAN)
controller area network (CAN)
storage area network (SAN)
personal area network (PAN)
campus area network (CAN)
A campus area network (CAN) is a type of network that encompasses a large campus that is usually located within a several block radius. This type of CAN connects several LANs into a single CAN. Then multiple CANs can be connected using a MAN or WAN.
What does a controller area network used for?
A controller area network (CAN) is used in industrial applications, originally in automotive systems. It replaces bulky wiring systems, reducing weight and cost. A CAN builds a network between controllers, allowing them to share information. A railway application, for example, might be a sensor that detects whether or not a door is closed, and locks the brakes until the sensor indicates the door is closed.
What does SAN functions do?
A storage area network (SAN) creates a network among a pool of storage devices. It may be thought of as a RAID array that uses network connections as opposed to data cables. The SAN pool appears as a single drive letter to the client. A key feature of SAN is multipathing. In a SAN, the physical path between a server and a storage device can fail, and if there is only one pathway available, this failure can cause a network crash. However, SAN multipathing avoids this issue by establishing multiple routes between the hardware so it can route data through multiple paths in the case of a failure.
What does PAN functions do?
A personal area network (PAN) is a network of devices that are in close proximity to a person, no more than a couple of meters away. Devices that can be part of PANs include wireless headphones, wearable technology, and printers
What does MAN functions do?
A metropolitan area network (MAN) connects several LANS together in an area roughly the size of a city. An example of a MAN might be a large hospital with several satellite offices in various neighborhoods around the city.
You need to configure IPSec to digitally sign and encapsulate each packet within another packet. Which of the following should you implement?
ESP protocol in tunnel mode
ESP protocol in transport mode
AH protocol in tunnel mode
AH protocol in transport mode
Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) can be used in tunnel mode with the Authentication Header (AH) protocol to digitally sign and encapsulate each packet sent from the network within another packet. A tunnel is a network communications construct that transports encapsulated packets. AH does not really protect the packet information. Therefore, a simple packet sniffer can still read the packet contents.
IPSec can be used in transport mode with AH to digitally sign and encrypt packets sent between two hosts. AH
provides an authentication security mechanism. Transport mode does not encapsulate packets within other packets.
Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) can be used with IPSec to encrypt IPSec packets. ESP is not used to
digitally sign packet headers. ESP works in tunnel mode and transport mode. ESP protects the packet information
using encryption.
You are installing the wiring for a small office. You want to connect the fifty computers in the office to the switch. The Cat6 cables that you plan to use have RJ-45 connectors on both ends.
Which component should you use?
demarcation extension
110 block
66 block
patch panel
You should use a patch panel to connect the fifty computers in the office to the switch using Cat6 cables with RJ-45 connectors on both ends. Patch panels, also referred to as patch bays, help with cable management.
You should not use a 66 block or 110 block because these devices require that the cable be directly terminated into the device. If the cables are terminated with a jack, such as an RJ-45 connector, a patch panel should be used.
You should not use a demarcation extension. A demarcation extension, often called a demarc extension, is used to extend a leased line from its original demarcation point, often called a demarc. For example, suppose your network was located in a suite on the 48th floor of a building and that the Internet Service Provider (ISP) technician connected your leased T1 line demarcation to a central wiring closet located near the elevator shaft. If you needed
to connect your suite to that demarcation point, a demarcation extension should be used.
Another component is wiring distribution is a smart jack. A smart jack terminates a PRI/T1 at your location. The provider designates everything connected to the inside of the smart jack as the local loop. The local loop equipment typically is the customer’s responsibility.
You are explaining the TIA/EIA 568A and 568B wiring specifications to a new employee. Which wiring pins contain the same colors across both specifications? (Choose 4)
Pin 5
Pin 1
Pin 7
Pin 8
Pin 3
Pin 4
Pin 2
Pin 6
In both the (TIA) / (EIA) 568A and 568B specifications, Pins 4, 5, 7, and 8 contain the same colors. Pin 4 contains the Blue wire; Pin 5 contains the Blue/White wire; Pin 7 contains the Brown/White wire; and Pin 8 contains the Brown wire. All the other wires in the specifications are different.
The 568A specification is shown below:
Pin 1 − Green/White
Pin 2 − Green
Pin 3 − Orange/White
Pin 4 − Blue
Pin 5 − Blue/White
Pin 6 − Orange
Pin 7 − Brown/White
Pin 8 − Brown
The 568B specification is shown below:
Pin 1 − Orange/White
Pin 2 − Orange
Pin 3 − Green/White
Pin 4 − Blue
Pin 5 − Blue/White
Pin 6 − Green
Pin 7 − Brown/White
Pin 8 − Brown
Which of these devices or functions works at Layer 7?
NGFW
VoIP gateway
VoIP PBX
Content filter
A Next Generation Firewall (NGFW) works at Layer 7, the Application layer. It includes traditional firewall functionality with an Application layer firewall. It enforces security policies at the port, protocol, and application levels. A traditional firewall that allows HTTP traffic on port 80 may also permit an SQL injection attack embedded in
a properly formed HTTP request. An Application-layer firewall would perform a more intensive examination of the traffic instead of just allowing traffic on a given port. In this example, even though HTTP traffic on port 80 is allowed on a traditional firewall, the Application layer firewall would look for an SQL injection attack and block the data.
Which connection type allows for connections of up to 44.736 Mbps?
T3
E1
T1
E3
A T3 connection allows for connections of up to 44.736 Mbps. The T-Carrier system offers several different levels of connections. Each level has a different number of channels, which are separate paths through which signals flow. Having more channels increases the bandwidth. However, T1 and T3 are the two most commonly used T-lines.
For testing purposes, you should understand the standards for the following carrier lines:
T1 − 1.544 Mbps, 650 feet maximum cable length, UTP/STP/coaxial cable
T3 − 44.736 Mbps, 450 feet maximum cable length, coaxial cable
E1 − 2.048 Mbps, 650 feet maximum cable length, UTP/STP/coaxial cable
E3 − 34.368 Mbps, 450 feet maximum cable length, coaxial cable
All of these carrier lines are circuit-switched networks.
You have several computers in your network that are located behind a firewall. The computers are unable to obtain a dynamic IP address from the DHCP server. You suspect that the firewall is configured to block the DHCP traffic. Which port must be open on the firewall to allow the traffic?
TCP port 67
TCP port 53
UDP port 53
UDP port 67
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) transmits dynamic IP address assignment information over UDP port 67. DHCP is considered a connectionless protocol. IP addresses are assigned based on a series of messages between the client and the DHCP server. DHCP also uses port 68.
Which Port does DNS use and communicate over?
Domain Name System (DNS) is a host name resolution protocol that communicates over TCP and UDP port 53.
Which of the following can be manipulated to reduce network traffic?
increased lease time
NTP
MAC reservations
lower TTL
Lease time can be manipulated to reduce network traffic. Lease time is the amount of time a device maintains the IP address assigned by the DHCP server. The default lease time for Windows is 8 days, but lease times may be adjusted. As an example, if the network configuration seldom changes and you have a large number of IP
addresses, you might consider increasing the lease time. The justification for doing so is that every lease must be renewed, and those renewals increase network traffic. Increasing the duration of the lease reduces the amount of network traffic required for lease renewal.
Why would you use a MAC reservation?
MAC reservations allow you to permanently assign an IP address to the MAC address of a specific device. Web servers, mail servers, copiers, printers, wireless access points, and projectors are all examples of devices that can benefit from having a permanently assigned IP address. For each such device, a reservation (exclusion) would be made so that the IP address is removed from (reserved) the pool of available IP addresses. Once a reservation is made, that device always uses that same address. But configuring MA reservations will not affect network traffic as much as increasing the lease time.
What is the purpose of TTL?
Time To Live (TTL) specifies the length of time that a DNS name server must cache the name. By default, the TTL is 60 minutes, but it may be modified in the DNS Management Console. Longer TTLs are best for more permanent records, such as MX records, DKIM/SPF records, and TXT records. A lower TTL would mean additional network traffic.
What is the purpose of NTP?
Network Time Protocol (NTP) is used to synchronize the clocks of computers on the network. Synchronization of time is important in areas such as event logs, billing services, e-commerce, banking, and HIPAA Security Rules. Implementing NTP would actually increase network traffic.
What is the three major Elements of NTP?
For the Network+ exam, you will need to understand the various components associated with NTP. Within NTP, there are three major elements: stratum, clientsstratum, clients, and serversservers. NTP stratumsstratums refer to layers within the protocol that distribute accurate time across the networked devices. NTP clients are the devices that use the NTP server to periodically request timing information. The NTP server communicates with is what each of these clients communicate with and holds the centralized time to ensure that alleach networked devices remaindevice remains in sync with each other.
Some of the most common issues with NTP are not receiving NTP packets, not being able to process NTP packets, NTP packets causing the loss of synchronization, and the NTP clock period being manually set. NTP’s debugging commands can help identify the issues.
Which wireless topology only requires one access point to be physically connected to the wired network, while still offering maximum flexibility and redundancy?
Mesh
Infrastructure
Ad hoc
Bluetooth
A mesh topology in wireless networks only requires one access point to be physically connected to the wired network. In traditional wireless networks, each access point must be physically connected to the wired network. With a mesh topology, the other access points are interconnected wirelessly, allowing for flexibility and redundancy.
Your company periodically exchanges confidential information with a third party via a single server at each company. Management has recently become concerned that communications between the two servers have been intercepted and read. You have been asked to ensure that messages between the two authenticated computers are
encrypted to prevent attackers from reading the messages. Which protocol should you use?
DNS
UDP
TLS
TFTP
Transport Layer Security (TLS) encrypts the messages transmitted between two authenticated computers, preventing third parties from reading the messages. TLS is the protocol being used when Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is implemented. TLS works at the Transport layer of the OSI model.
What are the functions of TFTP?
Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a connectionless version of the File Transfer Protocol (FTP). TFTP transfers files between a client and a server. TFTP servers can be configured to help facilitate file transfers to and from network devices. TFTP works at the Application layer of the OSI model.
What is the use of UDP?
User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is part of the TCP/IP protocol suite. UDP provides connectionless communication. UDP works at Transport layer of the OSI model. It uses datagrams for communication.
Your company wants to upgrade its twisted pair (TP) cable network to handle up to 10 GB data rates from switches to network nodes over lengths of up to 90 meters. Which TP category type must the company deploy to meet its requirements?
Cat5e
Cat6
Cat3
Cat6a
Cat4
The company must deploy Cat6a to meet its requirements. Cat6a, which stands for Category 6 Augmented twisted-pair cable, makes use of better conductors and shielding to support the nominal 100 meter (90 meter cable run) distances for data rates up to 10 Gbps.
What are the considerations when you are using a Cat6 cable?
Cat6 cables can support data rates of up to 10 Gbps, but only over nominal cable runs of up to 55 meters. Cat6 cannot accommodate the 10 Gbps data rate over distances of up to 90 physical /100 nominal meters.
As the category numbers for twisted pair cable categories increase, so does their bandwidth handling capabilities and maximum data rates (aka data transmission speeds). Thus, it is reasonble to guess that only the highest numbered categories – namely Cat6 and Cat7 – might be able to provide 10 GB data rates in a new deployment. In fact, Cat6, Cat6a, and Cat7 all can handle 10 GB data rates, but only Cat6a and Cat7 can deliver them over wire runs of up to 100 meters.
What are the considerations when you are using a Cat5e cable?
Cat5e stands for Category 5 Extended. Cat 5e reflects this modified version of Cat5 cable’s ability to accommodate date rate of up to 1 Gbps. By contrast, standard Cat5 supports data rates only up to 100 Mbps. Cat5e, while still very popular, cannot accommodate the 10 Gbps data rate.
What are the considerations when you are using a Cat3 cable?
Cat3 cables can deliver data rates up to 10 Mbps over nominal cables runs of up to 100 meters.
What are the considerations when you are using a Cat4 cable?
Cat4 cables consist of four pairs of twisted copper wire and is rated for 16 Mbps.
Is Cat7 backwards compatible with standard RJ-45?
Cat7 is not offered as an option here, because its ability to deliver 10 Gbps over the required cable run lengths is contingent upon using all conductors in the Cat7 GigaGate45 (GG45) connectors it uses. These connectors are not backwards compatible with standard RJ-45 connectors. However, the GG45 conductor works fine at 1 Gbps rates in standard RJ-45 connectors.
As a network administrator, you decide to replace a hub on your network with an active hub. At which OSI layer does the new device function?
Physical
Transport
Session
Network
Active hubs or multiport repeaters amplify or regenerate signals to all other ports on the hub. Because active hubs regenerate signals, they are often used to extend the length of segments beyond their maximum specified lengths. They, as with all hubs, are considered Physical layer devices (Layer 1) because they act on the data at the bit level. If a computer is unable to reach the Internet, the technician should begin troubleshooting at the Physical layer.
The Physical layer is also associated with the flow of electrical current and physical connections between devices. The first step of troubleshooting a non-responsive device at the Physical layer is to make sure the device is plugged in and the interconnections are fully seated in their jacks.
You are asked to acquire address space for a new network that must accommodate at least 12 subnets, each with
at least 2,048 nodes. A total of 25,576 IP addresses are needed, but the available address space should leave some room for growth in each subnet, and for the number of subnets to double (or more). The network must also support IPsec to the endpoints for security reasons. Which of the following options provides the best fit while minimizing costs?
IPv6 network with a /48 global routing prefix
IPv6 network with a /56 global routing prefix
Public IPv4 Class B network, purchased on the open market
Private IPv4 Class A network (10.0.0.0)
IPv6 network with a /64 global routing prefix
The IPv6 network with a /56 global routing prefix should impose little or no cost to obtain. It also provides 256 subnets, each with millions of nodes, and supports IPsec end-to-end. Thus, it provides the best fit while minimizing costs because it meets the starting requirements with ample room for growth. In fact, in a situation where IPsec is
needed end-to-end, only IPv6 makes sense.
IPv6 network addresses are generally available for no cost or low cost, but one with a /64 global routing prefix
provides exactly one subnet (a single network, in other words). Thus it does not meet the stated requirements
An IPv6 network with a /48 global routing prefix supports up to 65,000 subnets, each with millions of nodes. It is a
popular choice for single subscriber sites, but offers many more subnets than are needed. Thus, it does NOT meet
the stated requirements.
If one could purchase a public IPv4 class B network address on the open market, it would cost at least $300,000, if not double that amount or more (see References). A single class B address can only be subdivided into 14 subnets, if each one needs 2,048 nodes. Thus for both reasons of cost and capacity, a public IPv4 Class B network address is not suitable.
Does Private IP addresses provide IPSec?
Private IP addresses do NOT support IPsec connections end-to-end. They require Network Address Translation (NAT) or some equivalent, and will not work with IPsec. Thus, a Private IPv4 Class A address is not suitable.
Match the protocol from the left with the default port it uses on the right. Move the correct items from the left column to the column on the right to match the protocol with the correct default port.
Port 20 −
Port 23 −
Port 25 −
Port 53 −
Port 80 −
Port 20 − FTP
Port 23 − Telnet
Port 25 − SMTP
Port 53 − DNS
Port 80 − HTTP
Your company’s network has recently switched to using only IPv6 addresses. You need to understand the types of addresses used on the network. Match the IPv6 addresses on the left with the IPv6 address type to which each belongs. Each address will only match to a single address type, and each address type will only have a single
address.
− fe80::/10
− fc00::/7
− ::1/128
APIPA − fe80::/10
Private − fc00::/7
Loopback − ::1/128
You have a subnet that contains a computer with the IP address 172.16.5.2/23. You need to send a message to every computer on the network where that computer resides. Which subnet is that IP address a member of, and what is the broadcast address for that subnet?
subnet: 172.16.5.0, broadcast: 172.16.5.255
subnet: 172.16.2.0, broadcast: 172.16.5.255
subnet: 172.16.0.0, broadcast: 172.16.7.255
subnet: 172.16.4.0, broadcast: 172.16.5.255
The IP address 172.16.5.2 /23 is a member of subnet 172.16.4.0 and has the broadcast address of 172.16.5.255. The valid host range is between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.5.254.
Binary form of IP address 172.16.5.2 = 10101100.00010000.00000101.00000010
Binary conversion for /23 netmask = 11111111.11111111.11111110.00000000
Decimal conversion for /23 netmask = 255.255.254.0
Calculations: Wildcard (Binary) = 00000000.00000000.00000001.11111111
Wildcard (Decimal) = 0.0.1.255
Perform the AND operation between the IP address and the netmask to obtain the subnet ID:
Address = 10101100.00010000.00000101.00000010
Netmask = 11111111.11111111.11111110.00000000
Network = 10101100.00010000.00000100.00000000
To obtain the broadcast address, replace the last 9 host bits (32 − 23 = 9 bits) of the network address, which yields the following:
Binary form of broadcast address = 10101100.00010000.00000101.11111111
Decimal form of broadcast address = 172.16.5.255
Which type of Internet connection is NOT limited by proximity to an ISP, and consequently has the highest latency?
Copper
Wireless
Fiber-optic
Satellite
Satellite Internet connections are available anywhere you can place a satellite dish, and are not limited by how close the subscriber is to an ISP. Satellite speeds are slower compared to other delivery media, and satellite transmissions are affected by latency due to the distance the signals must travel.
What are the limitations of Copper Wire?
Copper wire can be found as a transmission medium in unshielded twisted pair (UTP), shielded twisted pair (STP), or coaxial cable. While coaxial cables can have segment lengths up 1 km, UTP and STP are limited to 100 meters. Copper remains the primary transmission medium for last-mile connections in the US.
What are the limitations of a Fiber Optic cable: SMF or MMF?
Fiber-optic cable is available as a transmission media in two main types: single-mode fiber (SMF) and multi-mode fiber (MMF). MMF segments can be up to 600 meters, while SMF segments (10GBase-ER) can be 40KM. Longer distances for SMF are underdevelopment at this writing.
What are the limitations of wireless broadband?
Wireless broadband requires you to be within a certain range of a provider’s point of presence, such as a cell tower or antenna. Until recently, wireless broadband was classified as 4G, or 4th Generation, but 5G has become the new global wireless standard. 5G can connect users to virtually anything, such as machines, objects, or other devices, with speeds up to 10 Gbps. 4G speeds, currently 16-17 Mbps, are ten times faster than 3G. 5G speeds vary depending on whether the carrier is employing low-band, mid-band, or upper band frequencies. Wireless broadband has speed limitations, but it does not suffer from the latency issues one experiences with satellite. Some cellular carriers plan to deprecate their 3G networks.
Which well-known port is used to forward e-mail on the Internet between e-mail servers?
25
110
23
161
Ports allow more than one service or application to communicate at the same time between computers. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) uses port 25 to communicate e-mail transfers. Administrators can assign additional ports for communication on an intranet and through the Internet.
There are a total of 65,536 ports each for TCP and UDP. Of these, only 1,024 ports are considered well known and, therefore reserved for a particular service.
What Port does SNMP use?
Port 161 is used by Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) for network diagnostics.
You are using DSL to connect to the Internet. You recently set up firewall software to protect your computer’s resources from external users. After setting up the firewall software, you can no longer access Web sites by name.
What is the problem?
You do not have a static IP address.
Your firewall software is blocking port 53.
Your firewall software is blocking port 25.
Your DHCP scope is exhausted.
You have a DHCP server on the network.
Port 53 is the port associated with the Domain Name Service (DNS). If this port is blocked by firewall software, you will not be able to access computers on the Internet by their fully qualified domain names (FQDNs), such as www.comptia.org or www.cybervista.net
With DSL service, you do not have to have a static IP address. It is not required for accessing Web sites by name.
What happens when your DHCP scope is exhausted?
DHCP scope exhaustion causes new clients to be denied an IP address to lease on a subnet because there are no longer any addresses available in the scope. This is also known as a lease refusal. DHCP scopes are defined by an exact number of devices that are expected, and no more past that.
A server on your network contains several virtual servers. However, the server contains a single NIC. Which statement MOST likely describes the communication from this server?
It transmits data using IPv6.
It transmits data using IPv4.
It transmits data from multiple MAC addresses.
It transmits data from multiple IP addresses.
When a server contains several virtual servers with a single network interface card (NIC), it is most likely to transmit data from multiple IP addresses. It could also transmit data from a single IP address, but with each virtual server using a different port number.
This server does not transmit data from multiple MAC addresses. Because a MAC address is the physical address for the NIC, this server only uses a single MAC address.
Virtual servers can be implemented using either IPv4 or v6. The number of NICs used in a virtual server has no effect on which IP version should be used.
You are setting up a 10-Mbps SOHO network at a residence. What is the lowest category or level of UTP cable that you should use as transmission medium for a small LAN communicating in the 10-Mbps range?
Category 1
Category 4
Category 2
Category 3
Category 5
Although you could use Category 3 or Category 5 cable for the LAN, Category 3 is the lowest category cable that
you could use for the LAN.
Category 1 and Category 2 cable have maximum transmission rates of only 4 Mbps, so they would not be suitable
for a 10-Mbps network.
What are the Category 1 UTP limitations?
Category 1 wiring consists of two pairs of twisted copper wire. It is rated for voice grade, not data communication. It
is the oldest UTP wiring and is used for communication on the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN).
What are the Category 2 UTP limitations?
Category 2 wiring consists of four pairs of twisted copper wire and is suitable for data communications of up to 4 Mbps.
What are the Category 3 UTP limitations?
Category 3 wiring consists of four pairs of twisted copper wire with three twists per foot. It is suitable for 10-Mbps data communication, and has been used widely in 10-Mbps Ethernet networks.
What are the Category 4 UTP limitations?
Category 4 wiring consists of four pairs of twisted copper wire, and is rated for 16 Mbps. It was designed with 16- Mbps Token Ring networks in mind.
What are the Category 5 UTP limitations?
Category 5 wiring consists of four twisted pairs of copper wire terminated by RJ-45 connectors. It can be used for ATM, Token Ring, 1000Base-T, 100Base-T, and 10Base-T networking. Cat5e cable, or Category 5 Enhanced, is the most commonly used cable for new UTP implementations. This enhanced specification will support data rates up to 1 Gbps and bandwidths of up to 350 MHz.
What are the Category 6 UTP limitations?
Category 6 wiring consists of four twisted pairs of copper wire terminated by RJ-45 connectors. It can supports speeds of up to 1 Gbps or 1,000 Mbps. Category 6a wiring supports speeds of up to 10 Gbps or 10,000 Mbps.
What are the Category 7 UTP limitations?
Category 7 wiring consists of four twisted pairs of copper wire terminated by RJ-45 connectors. It supports speeds of up to 10 Gbps or 10,000 Mbps.
What are the Category 8 UTP limitations?
Category 8 wiring consists of twisted-pair cabling that can support bandwidths up to 2 GHz (Gigahertz) and speeds up to 40 Gbps over an optimum span of 30 meters
A host or address (A) record maps a hostname to an IPv4 address.
What is the purpose of a pointer (PTR) DNS record?
It maps a hostname to an IPv6 address.
It contains information regarding a particular DNS zone’s start of authority.
It maps a hostname to an IPv4 address.
It maps a domain name to an e-mail server.
It maps an IP address to a hostname.
It contains an alias for an existing A record.
A pointer (PTR) record maps an IP address to a hostname.
What is the AAAA record main function?
An AAAA record maps a hostname to an IPv6
address.
What does the MX record main function?
A mail exchange (MX) record maps a domain name to an e-mail server.
What is the CNAME record main function?
A canonical name (CNAME) record contains an alias for an existing A record.
What does the SOA record contain?
A start of authority (SOA) record contains information regarding a
particular DNS zone’s start of authority.
A Domain Name System (DNS) server is the authority for a DNS zone, which contains DNS records. DNS servers allow users to request access to devices using either the devices’ hostname or IP address. A DNS server stores fully qualified domain name (FQDN) to IP address mappings. This server allows clients to use the easier-to remember FQDNs to access remote devices.
What does a dynamic DNS server do?
Dynamic DNS is an implementation of DNS that allows real-time updates to DNS records. With Dynamic DNS (DDNS), devices can automatically update their DNS records or allow a DHCP server to implement the updates on behalf of the DNS client
As a network administrator, you understand that there are many types of addresses used in networks, including Data Link layer addresses and network addresses. You need to explain to a new network technician the difference between these two types of addresses.
What is the most significant difference?
The Data Link layer address of a device is configured by the network
administrator, whereas the network address is set by the IEEE.
Data Link layer addresses are MAC addresses for unique identification, whereas network addresses are a Network layer component.
Data Link layer addresses use fewer bytes of memory than network
addresses.
Data Link layer addresses refer to logical devices, whereas network addresses refer to physical devices.
The most significant difference between Data Link layer addresses and network addresses is that network addresses are a Network layer component (Layer 3), and Data Link addresses are MAC addresses (Layer 2) used for unique identification. Network addresses refer to logical networks, whereas Data Link addresses define an actual physical address assigned to a network interface card (NIC).
Data Link layer addresses define the physical device, and network addresses define the logical device.
Data Link layer addresses (MAC addresses) are 48 bits, and a TCP/IP network address is 32 bits (IPv4) or 128 bits (IPv6). This is not a significant difference.
The network address is configured by the network administrator. The first six hexadecimal digits of the Data Link (MAC) address are specified by the IEEE according to the NIC’s vendor ID; this is known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI).
Which unsecure protocol do Web browsers use to access documents on the World Wide Web?
HTTP
FTP
IP
ARP
Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is the set of rules for exchanging files, such as text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files, on the World Wide Web. HTTP is an application protocol that works at the Application layer of the OSI model. The HTTP files can contain references to other files that will elicit additional transfer requests when they are selected.
A Web browser is an HTTP client that sends requests to server machines. The browser builds an HTTP request and sends it to the Internet Protocol address indicated by the URL. The HTTP daemon in the destination server machine receives the request and, after any necessary processing, it returns the requested file. HTTP is considered to be unsecure. If you need to protect an HTTP session, consider using HTTPS. HTTPS is a secure form of HTTP that uses Secure Socket Layer (SSL) to encrypt the HTTP messages.
What is the functions of the FTP?
Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is the set of rules for exchanging files, such as text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files, on the World Wide Web. HTTP is an application protocol that works at the Application layer of the OSI model. The HTTP files can contain references to other files that will elicit additional transfer requests when they are selected.
What is the functions of ARP?
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a protocol for mapping an Internet Protocol (IP) address to a physical machine address that is recognized on the local network. ARP works at the Network layer of the OSI model. It is not responsible for Web browser communication.
What is the functions of IP?
Internet Protocol (IP) receives segments from the higher-level protocols and adds source and destination information to each segment. A segment with the source and destination information attached is called a “datagram.” Datagrams are then transmitted across the network to the receiving hosts. IP works at the Network
layer of the OSI model. It is not responsible for Web browser communication.
What protocols that are unsecured?
The following protocols are considered unsecure protocols:
TELNET
HTTP
SLIP
FTP
TFTP
SNMPv1 and SNMPv2
If you use any of these protocols, you should use a version that includes SSL or some other cryptography. For example, secure shell (SSH) is a secure alternative to Telnet.
Why is it important to disable unnecessary running devices?
Unnecessary running services − Disable all unnecessary services on every device. Hackers will search for all used services and attempt to employ known vulnerabilities for those services.
Why are closing all unwanted ports important?
Open ports − Close all ports that are not used. Hackers can also use these open ports to break into your
network.
Why is it to always patch up systems with new upadates?
Unpatched/legacy systems − Older systems provide an easy target to hackers, especially those with unsupported operating systems or applications. For example, Windows XP is no longer supported by Microsoft.
Service packs and updates are no longer issued for this operating system. You should get rid of legacy systems that run software that is no longer supported by the vendor or else you should find a way to isolate them from the rest of the network.
What are the vulnerablities of unencrypted channels?
Unencrypted channels − Unencrypted channels are paths along which data can be intercepted. While it would
adversely affect the performance of the network to encrypt every single channel, you should encrypt every
single channel through which confidential or private data is sent.
Why is it important to eliminate all clear text protocols?
Clear text credentials − Some protocols send credentials over the network in clear text. This allows an attacker to intercept the communications to obtain the credential information. You should eliminate the use of any protocols that use clear text credentials by replacing them with more secure protocols.
Why are the considerations when you use Radio Frequency and there vulnerabilities?
TEMPEST/RF emanation − Tempest studied the susceptibility of some devices to emit electromagnetic radiation (EMR) in a manner that can be used to reconstruct intelligible data. Radiofrequency information can be captured in a similar manner. You should use shielding to protect against these vulnerabilities.
Match the protocol from the left with the default port it uses on the right. Move the correct items from the left column
to the column on the right to match the protocol with the correct default port.
Port 21 –
Port 110 –
Port 143 –
Port 443 –
Port 3389 –
Port 21 – FTP
Port 110 – POP3
Port 143 – IMAP
Port 443 – HTTPS
Port 3389 – RDP
While designing an IPv6 addressing scheme for your network, you decide to use EUI for the host portion of each node’s address. You need to derive a 64-bit EUI address for the hosts on your network as part of the overall IPv6 address for each node. What should you do?
Use the host’s MAC address with FFFE inserted in the middle, and invert the seventh most significant bit in the MAC address.
Use the host’s MAC address, and repeat the first two bytes of that address at the end.
Use the host’s MAC address with FFFE inserted in the middle.
Use the host’s MAC address preceded by 16 zero bits at the beginning.
Use the host’s MAC address with all 1s (FFFF) inserted in the middle.
To derive a 64-bit Extended Unique Identifier (EUI) address, also referred to as EUI64, you need to use the host’s MAC address with FFFE inserted in the middle and the seventh most significant bit inverted in the MAC address.
EUI-64 is defined in RFC2373. It allows a host to assign itself a unique 64-bit IPv6 interface identifier. This uniquely identifies individual IPv6 hosts on a network and eliminates the need for manual address configuration or use of
DHCP.
The proper formula for creating an EUI-64 host address involves
splitting the MAC address in half, inserting the hexadecimal value FFFE in the middle, and inverting the 7th most significant bit of the MAC address.
If you began with a network address of 2012:ABCD::/64 and a MAC address 1111:2222:3333, you would split the MAC address into 1111:22 and 22:3333 and put FFFE in the middle, which makes the initial value
1111:22FF:FE22:3333.
Next, you must invert the seventh most significant bit in the MAC address. The seventh bit occurs in the left-most two numbers of the MAC address 0x11. In binary, this translates to 00010001 (the seventh bit is bolded for easy visual identification). Inverting that bit produces the value 00010011, which equals 0x13. Thus, the combined string 1111:22FF:FE22:3333 would be changed to 1311:22FF:FE22:3333 to produce the EUI-64 host ID.
Finally, you would precede that value with the network ID, producing 2012:ABCD::1311:22FF:FE22:3333. This is the
complete network address for this example node.
A company procedure calls for using the IPv4 and IPv6 loopback addresses as part of the troubleshooting process. Which of the following explanations best represents the purpose of this tool?
To provide an IP address for testing the local IP stack without a physical network connection
To provide an IP address for testing the local IP stack through the network interface
To provide an IP address that is always available even in the absence of a network
To provide an IP address to determine minimum round-trip performance for packets
To provide an IP address to check interface drivers and hardware
The loopback address is defined for both IPv4, where it applies to any address of the form 127.x.x.x, and to IPv6, where it takes the form ::1 (all zeroes with a 1 in the final bit position). The purpose of the loopback address is to provide a mechanism for testing the functionality of IP stack software, independent of hardware. That is, despite its formal designation as “the loopback interface,” the loopback address has no hardware associated with it nor is it physically connected to any network. Using the loopback address simulates sending and receiving packets up and down the IP stack without accessing anything external outside of that software.
The purpose of the loopback address is NOT to provide an IP address that is always available. This is because the IP stack might be faulty, corrupt, or malfunctioning.
The purpose of the loopback address is NOT to provide an IP address for testing the location IP stack through the
network interface because loopback does not interact with any physical hardware. Loopback works completely
independent of any hardware or network connection.
You have been asked to implement a protocol that will manage the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) to IP
address mappings. Which protocol should you implement?
SSH
DHCP
DNS
WINS
Domain Name System (DNS) is the protocol that will manage the FQDN to IP address mappings. DNS works at the
Application layer of the OSI model. The DNS database will include the following record types:
Host (A) record for IPv4
Host (AAAA) record for IPv6
Pointer (PTR) record
Canonical name (CNAME) record
Mail exchanger (MX) record
Name server (NS) record
Which layer of the OSI model does the SSH protocol operate?
Secure Shell (SSH) is a protocol that allows data to be securely exchanged between two devices. SSH works at the Presentation layer of the OSI model.
Which of these is NOT associated with data conversion between the ISP and the customer premises equipment?
Demarcation point
CSU/DSU
ATM
Smart jack
Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) is NOT associated with data conversion between the ISP and the customer premises equipment. It is a network transmission model used in voice, video, and data communications. ATM uses equally sized cells that are all 53 bytes long. The equal length of the data packets supports very high data rates.
ATM is deployed in Optical Carrier (OC) backbone network segments.
All of the other options are associated with data conversion between the ISP and the customer’s on-premises equipment.
What is the definition of Demarcation?
A demarcation point is where the division is made between the service responsibilities of the ISP and the service responsibilities of the customer. It is often located at the CSU/DSU or smart jack. When a network problem occurs, the demarcation point will determine which party is responsible for fixing it, such as the customer or the ISP.
What does the CSU/DSU do?
A Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit (CSU/DSU) is a device that connects a router to a digital circuit, such as a
T1 line. The CSU/DSU converts the signal from a wide area network into frames for a local area network.
What does the Smart jack function do?
A smart jack typically provides the conversion between a telecommunications T1 line and the customer’s network.
Smart jacks can also provide an alarm if the communications link is broken, diagnostic services such as loopback,
or even act as a repeater.
Both smart jacks and demarcation points are examples of service-related entry points, which will be a topic that is
covered on the Network+ exam.
Which DNS record type includes SPF and DKIM records?
SRV
PTR
TXT
MX
The text (TXT) records contain human-readable text, and are designed to help with fraudulent phishing emails. The
Sender Policy Framework (SPF) record within the TXT record helps filter out emails that are spoofed to appear as if they are coming from your domain. SPF looks at the IP address of the last SMTP server and verifies that the IP address and SMTP server match. Domain Keys Identified Mail (DKIM) validates that an email sent from a domain was authorized by the owner of the domain
Management has decided to implement a small private network for guests. The network will consist of Windows 7 computers that will only be able to access the other computers on the private network. You recommend that the small private network use APIPA addresses. Which is the following is a valid APIPA address?
The 169.254.2.120 address is a valid Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) address. By default, Windows XP
and Windows 7 client computers are configured to use an APIPA address if the DHCP server does down. The addresses in the APIPA range are 169.254.0.0 through 169.254.255.255. These addresses are not routable and are therefore only usable on the local subnet.
The other addresses are all part of the three private IP address ranges, as shown below:
10.0.0.0 through 10.255.255.255
172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255
192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255
You are looking at implementing several different 10GBase networks. You need to implement the one that offers the
longest cable run because of the distances you must cover for your company’s network. Which 10GBase
specification should you select?
10GBase-ER
10GBase-SR
10GBase-LR
10GBase-LX4
The 10GBase-ER designation allows a maximum cable run of up to 40 kilometers (25 miles ).using single-mode
fiber optic cable.
The 10GBase-LR designation allows a maximum cable run of up to 25 kilometers (16 miles) using single-mode fiber optic cable.
The 10GBase-SR designation allows a maximum cable run of up to 25 meters (85 feet), 82 meters (270 feet), or 300 meters (980 feet), depending on which multi-mode cable is used.
The 10GBase-LX4 designation allows a maximum cable run of either 240 meters (790 feet) or 300 meters (980 feet) using either single-mode or multi mode fiber optic cable..
You notice that several ping requests have been issued on your network in the past couple of hours. Which protocol responds to these requests?
When you ping a host, Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) will respond to the request. ICMP works at the Network layer (Layer 3) of the OSI model. If the ping is successful, the
information returned will have this format:
Reply from 207.157.10.6: bytes=32 time<10ms TTL=128
Reply from 207.157.10.6: bytes=32 time<10ms TTL=128
Reply from 207.157.10.6: bytes=32 time<10ms TTL=128
Reply from 207.157.10.6: bytes=32 time<10ms TTL=128
“Reply” means that the host is reachable, and is responding to requests.
If the ping is unsuccessful, the information returned will have this format:
Pinging 192.168.1.5 with 32 bytes of data:
Request timed out.
Request timed out.
Request timed out.
Request timed out.
Ping statistics for 192.168.1.5:
Packets: Sent = 4, Received = 0, Lost = 4 (100% loss),
Approximate round trip times in milliseconds:
Minimum = 0ms, Maximum = 0ms, Average = 0ms
What is RARP?
Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) allows a host on a local area network to request its IP address from a gateway server’s Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) table or cache. RARP works at the Network layer of the OSI
model.
Bit Rate vs Baud Rate?
Bit rates vs baud rate − Bit rate is the amount of bits being transferred within a unit time, where baud rate is the
amount of symbols being transferred. A symbol may contain one or more bits.
Your company has decided to implement a wireless network. The wireless network users must be able to connect to
resources on your internal network, including file, print, and DHCP services. All wireless clients will run the Windows
operating system.
What should you implement? (Choose 2)
Ad hoc mode
APIPA
A wireless access point
Infrastructure mode
Static IP addresses
Infrastructure mode allows wireless computers to connect to a LAN, WAN, or the Internet. This means that infrastructure mode wireless computers can access all computers on the LAN, WAN, and Internet. Infrastructure mode is much more expensive to implement than ad hoc mode because you must configure wireless access points. While infrastructure mode is harder to set up and configure, it is much easier to manage than ad hoc mode.
Ad hoc mode allows wireless computers to be configured much more quickly than infrastructure mode. Ad hoc mode wireless computers all participate in the same network. This means that the ad hoc wireless computers can access each other, but cannot access network resources on a LAN, WAN, or Internet. Ad hoc mode is much cheaper than infrastructure mode to implement. In addition, it is easy to set up and configure and can provide better performance than infrastructure mode. However, it is difficult to manage an ad hoc mode wireless network.
Your company has a corporate-wide Windows Server network using the TCP/IP protocol. Several users are complaining that their computers are getting IP address conflicts.
Which action should you perform?
Increase the TCP window size.
Manually configure IP addresses on each computer.
Implement a DHCP server.
Change the MAC address for each network interface card.
A Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server dynamically assigns IP addresses to DHCP clients. This
ensures that each client receives a valid and unique IP address, preventing IP address conflicts.
Your company’s IT department needs to provide field sales representatives with the ability to upload and download
files from company servers while they are away from the office. They will be communicating over public Internet connections at coffee shops, hotels, truck stops, and other public facilities. All inbound connections to the company network already require use of a secure VPN based on the OpenVPN protocol. You want to allow secure file transfer with minimal firewall management overhead. Which protocol should you use?
SMBv1
SFTP
TFTP
FTPS
Passive Mode FTP
You should use Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP). First, because SFTP uses only a single port number for communications, it is easy to secure and monitor at the firewall. Second, unlike FTPS, SFTP is not a reworked version of FTP. Rather, it is a completely different protocol based on Secure Shell (SSH) that encrypts both authentication data and data files being transferred. Third, SFTP even works with SSH private/public key pairs for an optional added layer of authentication and enhanced security.
You manage a network for your organization. The network contains one DNS server and three routers. You are setting up a new DHCP server. You configure separate scopes for each subnet on your network. The routers are configured to forward DHCP requests. You need to ensure that DHCP clients receive the appropriate settings using the least administrative effort. What else should you do? (Choose 2)
Configure the DNS server as a server option.
Configure each router as a scope option for its appropriate scope.
Configure each router as a server option.
Configure the DNS server as a scope option for each scope.
You should configure the DNS server as a server option. This will ensure that all DHCP clients receive the DNS server settings.
You should also configure each router as a scope option for its appropriate scope. Each scope will have a different router or default gateway. For this reason, router or default gateway information must be configured at the scope level. If you configure this option at the server level, all the clients would receive the same router configuration, which would not work because you have three different subnets.
You must decide whether to purchase 110 blocks or 66 blocks for the wiring in a new building. Which statement is
NOT an advantage of a 110 block over a 66 block?
A 110 block supports higher frequencies.
A 110 block supports both telephone and data networks.
A 110 block does not use a punch-down tool.
A 110 block requires less space.
A 110 block uses a punch-down tool, just like a 66 block. The punch-down tool forces the wires into the slots on the
block.
A 110 block does support higher frequencies than a 66 block. A 110 block requires less space than a 66 block. A 110 block supports both telephone and data networks, while a 66 block is only used on telephone networks.
What is a Krone and Brix Punchdown block?
For the Network+ Exam, you will need to also understand the Krone and Bix punchdown blocks. A Krone punchdown block is an insulation-displacement connector that is used as an alternative to the 110 blocks within Europe. Krone blocks are often used with audio interconnections and broadcast systems. The Bix punchdown is part of a telephone cross-connect system that consists of various punch-down blocks, cable distribution
accessories, and tools to terminate wires.
You have several switches and routers on your company’s network. The switches are not experiencing any problems. However, one of the routers is not correctly routing packets based on IP addresses. At which layer of the OSI model does the problem device operate?
Network
Transport
Data Link
Session
Physical
Routers operate at the Network layer (Layer 3) of the OSI networking model. They use source and destination addresses, which are located at the Network layer, to route packets.
On the other hand, switches use MAC addresses, which are located at the Data Link layer (Layer 2), to forward frames. An example of an issue that occurs at the Network layer is when computers are connected to the same switch but receive error messages and cannot communicate.
The Session layer (Layer 5) starts, maintains, and stops sessions between applications on different network devices.
The Physical layer (Layer 1) provides the functions to establish and maintain the physical link between network devices.
The Transport layer (Layer 4) of the OSI model segments and reassembles data into a data stream and provides
reliable and unreliable end-to-end data transmission.
You administer a 100Base-TX Ethernet network that is configured to use the TCP/IP network communications protocol. You have installed a firewall between the network and the Internet. Currently ports 80, 20, and 21 are open on the firewall.
You want to allow only SMTP and POP3 communications between the network and the Internet.
Which configurations should you make on the firewall?
Close port 80 only.
Close ports 21 and 80, and open port 110.
Close ports 20 and 21, and open port 25.
Close ports 20, 21, and 80, and open ports 25 and 110.
Currently, ports 80, 20, and 21 are open in the firewall. Port 80 is the port that is used to transfer Hypertext Transfer
Protocol (HTTP) messages. HTTP is the protocol that is used to transport Web pages on the Internet. Ports 20 and 21 are used by File Transfer Protocol (FTP), a protocol that can transfer data files on the Internet. An FTP server listens for requests on port 21 and establishes connections with FTP clients on port 20. In this scenario, you should close ports 20, 21, and 80 to prevent HTTP and FTP traffic. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to transfer e-mail messages between e-mail servers on the Internet. SMTP uses port 25. Post Office Protocol 3 (POP3) is used by e-mail clients to retrieve messages from e-mail servers. POP3 uses port 110. In this scenario, you should open ports 25 and 110.
An administrator would like to integrate DNS and DHCP so that each is aware of changes in the other. Which of the following would be the best method for him to do this?
IPAM
DHCP relay
MAC reservations
ARP table
IP Address Management (IPAM) allows integration of DNS and DHCP so that each is aware of the changes in the
other. IPAM allows for the discovery of servers associated with an IP address infrastructure responsibilities on the
network and the ability to manage those servers from a central point.
Some things that IPAM can allow a network
administrator to manage include:
IP address availability − how many unassigned IP addresses exists
Subnet identification, subnet size, and which subnet is associated with which segment
Static/dynamic status for each subnet address
Default routers that the various network devices use
IP address host name
IP address and associated hardware
You are implementing a SOHO network for a small business. The business owner has asked that you implement a 1
Gigabit per second (Gbps) network. Which Ethernet standard specifies a data transfer rate of 1 Gbps?
10Base-2
1000Base-T
100Base-FX
10Base-T
The 1000Base-T Gigabit Ethernet standard specifies a maximum data transfer rate of 1 Gbps. Category 5 unshielded twisted-pair (Cat5 UTP) cable and RJ-45 connectors are typically used on 1000Base-T Ethernet networks.
What is the 10Base-2 standards?
The 10Base-2 Ethernet standard specifies a data transfer rate of 10 megabits per second (Mbps), RG-58 coaxial cable, and BNC connectors.
What is the 10Base-T standards?
The 10Base-T Ethernet standard specifies a data transfer rate of 10 Mbps. Cat3 UTP cable or better is required on
10Base-T Ethernet networks, and RJ-45 connectors are used to connect devices to a 10Base-T Ethernet network
What is the 100Base-T standards?
100Base-T is the 100-Mbps version of 10Base-T and requires Cat5 or higher UTP cabling. 10GBase-T is the 10-Gbps version of this specification and requires Cat6a or higher UTP cabling.
What is the 100Base-FX standard?
The 100Base-FX Fast Ethernet standard specifies a data transfer rate of 100 Mbps, fiber-optic cable, and fiber-optic
cable connectors, such as ST or SC connectors.
You are responsible for ensuring that unnecessary protocols are not running on your network. You need to determine which protocols operate at the Transport layer of the OSI model. Which of the following protocols should you list? (Choose 2)
HTTP
IP
IPX
UDP
TCP
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) both operate at the Transport layer of the
Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. Because the Transport layer is the fourth layer in the OSI model, it is
sometimes referred to as Layer 4.
You administer your company’s 100Base-TX Ethernet network. TCP/IP is the networking protocol used on the network. You want the routers on the network to send you notices when they have exceeded specified performance thresholds. Which protocol should you use to enable the routers to send the notices?
SMTP
Telnet
SNMP
ARP
You should use Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) to enable the routers to notify you when they exceed specified performance thresholds. SNMP is a protocol in the TCP/IP suite that enables the collection of data about various devices connected to a TCP/IP network, including bridges, hubs, and routers. It is worth noting that SNMP is not inherently secure, so steps should be taken to improve its security posture by configuring the protocol to read-only and by utilizing tools, such as Iptables, to limit from where SNMP can source requests.
Each SNMP-compatible device has a Management Information Base (MIB) database that defines the type of information that can be collected about the device. You can also configure SNMP traps to analyze network performance and network problems. A trap is a message that an SNMP-compatible device sends when the device
has exceeded a performance threshold. You can configure SNMP to send traps to the network management software you are using, to your e-mail address, or to another destination.
SNMP works at the Application layer of the OSI model. SNMP monitors are the pieces of software that actually monitor managed devices. This software must be applied at the device level.
What are the elements of OID,
Another element that you will need to understand for the Network+ exam are SNMP object identifiers (OIDs). OIDs are a string of decimal numbers that are used it uniquely identify an object, such as an attribute or an object class. SNMP will use a management information base to tie various OIDs to different objects or files to help monitor and manage information that is being sent between different network devices. OIDs are most helpful when used in a
large-scale network management system that has hundreds of different devices communicating with each other.
You have decided to implement ISAKMP. What is provided by this technology?
a Microsoft protocol that establishes sessions with other computers
a protocol that encapsulates PPP within Ethernet frames
a protocol that works with IPSec to establish a secure session
a Citrix protocol used in application server environments
Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol (ISAKMP) is a protocol that works with IPSec to
establish a secure session. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a Microsoft protocol that establishes sessions with
other computers.
You are examining the packets captured on your network. You notice some communication between your Cisco router and someone from outside your network. The packets indicate that the communication is occurring over TCP port 23. Which protocol is being used?
FTP
TFTP
Telnet
SSH
Telnet is the protocol that communicates over TCP port 23. Telnet is a protocol that allows users to access remote computers and devices. Cisco routers can be configured to allow remote administration though this protocol.
File Transfer Protocol (FTP) communicates over TCP ports 20 and 21 to transfer files. Secure Shell (SSH) communicates over TCP port 22 to allow secure data transfer. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) communicates over UDP port 69 to transfer files.
You need to provide terminal emulation and remote login capability for one of the servers on your network. Which Process/Application layer protocol should you use?
FTP
TFTP
Telnet
Tracert
SMTP
Telnet is a user command and an underlying TCP/IP protocol for accessing remote hosts. The HTTP and FTP
protocols allow you to request specific files from remote hosts without having to log on as a user of that host computer. The Telnet protocol, however, allows you to log on as a regular user with the associated privileges that you have been granted to the specific application and data on that host. In other words, you appear to be locally attached to the remote system.
You are working on the 196.11.200.71/18 client in a network. What is the base network ID for this network?
196.0.0.0
196.11.192.0
196.11.200.71
196.11.200.0
196.11.0.0
The IP address 196.11.200.71/18 is an example of a “slash x” network, also known as Classless Interdomain Routing (CIDR) notation. CIDR is a way of applying a subnet mask to an IP address in order to optimize address space while ignoring the traditional IP class categories. With classful addressing, 196.11.200.71 is a class C address, which means that 24 bits of the address are used for the network portion of the address and eight bits are used for the host portion. With CIDR, the /18 notation at the end of the IP address means that 18 bits are used for the network portion of the address, and the host portion uses the 14 remaining bits. This process is often referred to as subnetting.
With 18 bits used, the standard subnet mask is 11111111.11111111.11000000.00000000 or 255.255.192.0.
In turn, this means that the network portion of this address, or the base network ID, is 196.11.192.0. The purpose of CIDR is to divide IP addresses into smaller, more efficient blocks of space.
You suspect that there is a problem with addressing that allows data to be sent throughout your network. Which addressing method is used at the OSI Network layer to allow this?
Link-state addressing
Physical device addressing
Distance vector addressing
Logical network addressing
Although the OSI Data Link layer (Layer 2) uses MAC, or physical device, addressing, the Network layer (Layer 3) uses logical network addressing. This logical address is defined by the protocol’s addressing scheme. For example, an IPv4 TCP/IP address is composed of 32 bits, divided into four sets of decimal numbers divided by periods. An IPX address is a combination of an 8-digit hexadecimal number, which is assigned by the network administrator, and a 12-digit MAC address, separated by a colon.
Service addressing is the other addressing method used by the OSI Network layer. It is used to identify a specific upper-layer process or protocol. A service address is also known as a port or socket
What should a business with a main office downtown use to communicate with various offices in nearby suburban
locations?
CSU/DSU
MAN
DSL
Cable broadband
A Metropolitan Ethernet, or Metropolitan Area Network (MAN), or Metro Ethernet, is a network encompassing a localized geographic area, such as a city and its suburbs. Government entities, businesses, and hospitals (for example) can use a Metropolitan Ethernet to interconnect a main office with satellite offices in the suburbs.
Which three options are advantages that a spine-and-leaf network architecture has over the traditional three-tiered network architecture? (Choose 3)
Unlimited hosts
Lower latency
Increased capacity
Easier cable management
Higher scalability
The spine-and-leaf structure enables organizations to utilize a network that is more scalable, has lower latency, and has increased capacity. In addition to these benefits, the spine-and-leaf architecture also enables the use of equal cost multipath (ECPM) instead of spanning tree protocol (STP) to prevent pathways from being oversubscribed while still preventing network loops.
As networks began to push away from north-south traffic flows to east-west flows, network architecture adopted thespine-and-leaf design. This design uses two layers instead of three, where the leaf layer consists of access switchesthat aggregate traffic from servers and connect them to the spine switches. These spine switches interconnect all leaf switches in a full-mesh topology, enabling rapid communication between servers. Spine-and-leaf designs also
utilize top-of-rack (TOR) switching, where the network equipment is all located on the same or adjacent rack and are connected via an in-rack network switch. This method allows organizations to implement fiber switches that connect easily with every other device in the rack, greatly increasing network speeds and reliability.
The major drawbacks to the spine-and-leaf design are that it increases the number of cables used, making it difficult to manage, and it only allows you to configure a set number of hosts based on the available switch connections.
What is the standards of Three tiered Architecture?
The three-tiered architecture design was traditionally the staple for network architecture, as it was known for effectively moving traffic flows from north to south. In a three-tiered network, the core layer, or backbone, is the layer that coordinates everything and connects all the distribution layers together. The distribution, or aggregation, layer connects users to the core layer. It also serves as the major spine, as it will connect access switches. The access, or edge, layer is closest to the users, and will physically connect them to a network. The access layer is where organizations can implement network-access policies to determine who is allowed to access the network and what information can and cannot be sent/received
Which device or feature provides a bridge between the physical environment and the virtual environment?
Virtual router
Hypervisor
Virtual firewall
Virtual NIC
A virtual network interface card (NIC) operates within the virtual environment. In common practice, it is bridged to the physical NIC on the host system so the virtual machine can communicate with another network segment or the Internet.
What is the difference between Type 1 and 2 Hypervisor?
A hypervisor (or virtual machine monitor) provides supervisory and management functions on a machine (host) on
which one or more virtual machines are deployed. Hypervisors are categorized as Type 1, which installed on the “bare metal,” or Type 2, which are installed on top of the operating system as an application. Examples of Type 1 include KVM for Linux and Microsoft’s Hyper-V Server 2012. Examples of Type 2 hypervisors include VMware
Workstation and OracleBox.
Management has asked you to investigate upgrading your company’s network from IPv4 to IPv6. What are valid reasons you should give for performing this upgrade? (Choose 2)
IPv6 provides approximately 10 times more host addresses than IPv4.
Routing traffic is increasingly difficult due to the rapid growth of the
Internet.
IPv4 addresses are being depleted at an increasing rate.
IPv4 is too slow for Internet traffic.
The IPv4 addressing system is running out of IP addresses. The current system uses a 32-bit address and, therefore, provides for 4,294,967,296 addresses. However, these addresses are being depleted at a rapid rate.
Many methods, such as proxies and Network Address Translation (NAT), reduce the rate of depletion, but a new system must be put into place. Routing tables are also increasingly hard to maintain because they must contain an ever-increasing amount of information.
IPv6 uses a 128-bit hexadecimal system and will provide for
3,400,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000 addresses
You administer a TCP/IP network that is not subnetted. One of the network hosts has the following IP address: 130.250.0.10
What is the network ID of the network you administer?
128.0.0.0
130.250.0.0
130.250.255.255
255.255.255.255
The network ID of the network you administer is 130.250.0.0. According to the scenario, your network is not subnetted and is configured with Class B IP addresses. In a Class B IP address, the first 16 bits of the IP address correspond to the network address, and the last 16 bits of the address correspond to the host address.
In dotted-decimal notation, a decimal number represents each 8-bit portion, or octet, of an IP address. Therefore, the network address for the network you administer is the first two octets followed by two octets of zeroes, or 130.250.0.0.
The address 128.0.0.0 is the first valid network ID in the range of Class B IP addresses that are not subnetted. The address 130.250.255.255 is the broadcast address for the network with the network ID 130.250.0.0. The IP address 255.255.255.255 is a broadcast address on a TCP/IP network.
You administer your company’s network, which is connected to the Internet. A firewall is configured between the company network and the Internet. You want to prevent users on the Internet from using HTTP to connect to computers on the company network.
Which well-known TCP port should you block to prevent Internet users from entering the company’s network on that port?
21
80
119
23
You should configure the firewall to block access to Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) port 80 in order to prevent Internet users from using HTTP to enter the company’s network on that port. Because TCP port 80 is the well-known port number that is assigned to Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP), configuring the firewall to block
transmissions through port 80 will prevent HTTP communications from entering the network.
You need to connect a computer to a 100Base-TX Fast Ethernet network. Which of the two following elements are required? (Choose 2)
fiber-optic cable
RG-59 cable
RJ-45 connectors
RJ-11 connectors
BNC T connectors
Cat5 UTP cable
Among the available choices, you should use Category 5 unshielded twisted-pair (Cat5 UTP) cable and RJ-45 connectors to connect a computer to a 100Base-TX Ethernet network. On a 100Base-TX network, you can use two pairs of either Cat5 UTP or Type 1 shielded twisted-pair (STP) cable. RJ-45 connectors are typically used to
connect computers to a 100Base-TX network.
Although an RJ-45 connector is similar in appearance to a standard RJ-11 telephone connector, an RJ-45 connector is wider than an RJ-11 connector. Additionally, an RJ-45 connector supports eight wires, whereas an RJ-11 connector supports up to six wires. An RJ-11 connector is used to connect an analog modem to a regular phone
line.
You need to assign a virtual IP address to an Internet server. What are valid reasons for doing so? (Choose 3)
To permit a single network interface to service multiple incoming service requests
To permit multiple servers to share the same address
To provide a generic address for immediate access
To eliminate host dependencies on specific, individual network interfaces
To permit the same address to access multiple domain names
Usually abbreviated VIPA, a virtual IP address is a single IP address that may be shared among multiple domain names or servers. By assigning a virtual IP address to a host, it no longer needs to depend on specific individual network interfaces. Incoming packets target the host’s VIPA, but all are routed through to actual, specific network
interfaces. VIPA thus helps to provide load balancing for incoming traffic, where switches or routers behind the scenes can distribute them evenly among a pool of available network interfaces.
A primary advantage of VIPA is to eliminate host dependencies on specific, individual network interfaces.
What should you implement to isolate two of the devices that are located on a storage area network (SAN) fabric containing eight devices?
SAN snapshots
virtual SAN
HBA allocation
VLAN
You should implement a virtual storage area network (vSAN) to isolate two of the devices that are located on a SAN fabric containing eight devices. A vSAN is a collection of ports from a set of connected Fibre Channel switches that form a virtual fabric. You can partition ports within a single switch into multiple VSANs, despite sharing hardware resources.
Do not confuse a vSAN with virtual storage. In recent years, virtual storage solutions like Microsoft’s SkyDrive and Amazon’s CloudDrive have been developed to provide online storage and sharing of data.
What is the iSCSI function and it’s purpose?
iSCSI − allows you to send SCSI commands over an IP-based network. It also can be used to connect a networked attached storage (NAS) device to an Ethernet network. To improve the performance of data transfers over iSCSI switches, you should set the maximum transmission unit (MTU) to 9000 on the each of the participants in the vSAN.
A _ _ _ _ _ Frame is greater than the standard MTU of 1,500
Jumbo Frame − an Ethernet frame with a payload greater than the standard MTU of 1,500 bytes. It supports at
least 1 Gbps and can be as large as 9,000 bytes.
What are the standards of Fibre Channel?
Fibre Channel − transmits data between computer devices at data rates of up to 4 Gbps (with 10 Gbps coming in the future). While it can use fiber optic or coaxial cabling, it provides the best distance (approximately 10 km) using fiber optic cabling.
What can a NAS system provide?
Network attached storage (NAS) − provides both storage and a file system. This is often contrasted with SAN (Storage Area Network), which provides only block-based storage and leaves file system concerns with the client. It uses file-based protocols such as UNIX’s NFS, Microsoft’s Server Message Block/Common Internet File System (SMB/CIFS), Apple’s AFP, or Novell Netware’s NCP. This would be the most cost efficient solution for a SQL server that needs several terabytes of disk space available to do an uncompressed backup of a database.
You are working with a company that has a Fast Ethernet 100Base-TX network. You will be adding several new network segments to the current network. Which standards apply to this company’s network? (Choose 3)
Media interface connectors (MIC) or Subscriber connectors (SC)
100 Mbps data-transmission rate
Maximum segment length of 412 meters (1,352 feet) half-duplex
Four pairs of Category 3, 4, or 5 UTP cabling
Maximum segment length of 100 meters (328 feet)
Two pairs of Category 5 UTP cablin
100Base-TX, known as Fast Ethernet, uses two pairs of Category 5 UTP cable. Standard RJ-45 connectors are used. 100Base-TX transmits data at 100 Mbps using the baseband signaling type. Its maximum segment distance is 100 meters (328 feet).
You are working on several wiring projects. You have multiple connectors but must ensure that you have enough of each type to support the projects. Match the connectors on the left to the cable types on the right. Move the correct items from the left column to the column on the right to match the connector with the correct cable type.
BNC −
SC −
RJ-45 −
BNC − coaxial cable
SC − fiber-optic cable
RJ-45 − twisted-pair cable
Coaxial cable can also use an F-connector. Fiber-optic cable can also use an ST or LC connector. Twisted-pair cable can also use an RJ-11 connector. For twisted pair cable, an RJ-11 connector is used in telephone deployments and an RJ-45 connector is used in network deployments.
You are configuring a new small office home office (SOHO) at a small insurance office. After documenting the network requirements, you decide to use Network Address Translation (NAT) so that only one public address will be needed. You want to use the IANA-designated private IP address range that provides host IP addresses with a
maximum of 16 bits.
What is a valid host IP address in this range?
192.168.0.1
172.30.250.10
10.251.250.100
11.0.1.0
Of the IP addresses listed, 192.168.0.1 is a valid host address within the range of IANA-designated private IP addresses that provide a maximum of 16 bits per host address. The IP address 11.0.1.0 is a public, or external, IP address.
The Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) is a working group that creates standards for the Internet. The IETF is divided into a number of smaller committees, including the Internet Assigned Numbers Association (IANA), which decides how the IP address space is used. The IANA has reserved three address spaces for private or internal IP
addressing. Internal IP addresses are never assigned by the IANA for use on the public Internet. The private IP address ranges are as follows: 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, and 192.168.0.0/16. Note that the number after the slash (/) character is referred to as the network address prefix, which indicates the number of bits in the network address.
What is a mesh topology?
A mesh topology connects every device to every other device using a series of point-to-point connections. This makes the mesh topology very expensive, but it creates several possible signal paths, providing a high level of fault tolerance. This is important if you cannot afford to have any portion of your network down at any time. There are two
types of mesh network: partial mesh and full mesh. Partial meshes are usually implemented in large corporations in a central subnetwork, like a data center. Full meshes are very expensive to implement.
What is a bus topology?
A bus topology uses a single cable, also known as a backbone, segment, or trunk, to connect all networked devices. Therefore, a bus topology uses less cabling than other topologies. However, it also means that the entire network will stop responding should a cable failure occur.
What is a Star topology?
A star topology, also known as a hub-and-spoke topology, connects all of the nodes, or computers, to a central device such as a hub. The hub has a connection port for each node. This arrangement minimizes the risk of failure of the entire network. For example, if one node on the network fails, only that node will be impacted by the failure. All other nodes on the network will continue to operate. However, the central connection point can be a single point
of failure for the network.
What is a ring topology?
A ring topology connects every computer to two other computers, forming a physical “ring.” In a ring topology,
signals generally travel in one direction around the ring as they are passed from one computer to another. If a cable
failure occurs, there is a break in the ring, which causes the entire network to stop responding.
A wireless topology typically places computers near or around transceivers known as access points. A Wireless Access Point (WAP) functions much like the hub does in a wired network, acting as a central connection point for network devices on one network segment. However, there is no a physical cable connection to the WAP.
A wireless topology typically places computers near or around transceivers known as access points. A Wireless Access Point (WAP) functions much like the hub does in a wired network, acting as a central connection point for network devices on one network segment. However, there is no a physical cable connection to the WAP.
What is a hybrid Topology?
A hybrid network uses a combination of two or more network types. For example, an organization may have an isolated small network that uses a ring topology that connects to the organization’s other bus networks
Management at your company has recently become very concerned with interference or signal capture via the network cabling. You must advise them on which type of network media is the least susceptible to interference or signal capture. Which type provides this?
unshielded twisted-pair
fiber-optic
shielded twisted-pair
coaxial
Fiber-optic cable carries its signals in the form of modulated pulses of light. Because fiber-optic uses light pulses rather than electric signals, it is virtually impossible to intercept the signal without interrupting it and, thus, being detected. It is the most expensive type of networking cable. It is also not susceptible to interference.
Fiber-optic cable can span distances of up to 2 kilometers, or 2,000 meters (6,562 feet), and transmit data at a rate in excess of 100 Mbps. Fiber-optic connectors use ceramic ferrules for connection, and different fiber optic connectors use different ferrule size and length and polish styles.
Fiber-optic has three patch cable assemblies that refer to the polish style of fiber optic ferrules - What are they?
Physical Contact (PC) type provides 40dB return loss or higher.
Ultra Physical Contact (UPC) provides 50dB or higher.
Angled Physical Contact (APC) provides 60dB or higher.
The higher the return loss, the better the performance. Single-mode fiber-optic cables use all three types
connectors, while multi-mode only uses PC and UPC connectors.
Your IPv6 host uses IPv6 Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC). How does it install a default IPv6 route?
Router advertisement
Broadcasting
Tunneling
Dual stack
IPv6 hosts use router advertisement to install a default IPv6 route when the hosts use IPv6 Stateless Address Autoconfiguration. When a device that uses both IPv4 and IPv6 joins a network, it sends a router solicitation (RS) message using ICMP to contact the local IPv6-capable router on the network. The local router is tuned into the all router’s multicast group address, which is ff02::2, and will receive the RS message. The router immediately answers with a routing advertisement (RA) message using ICMP to the all nodes on the network. This uses the all nodes multicast group address, which is ff02::1. The router also sends the RA messages periodically (to keep the nodes informed of any changes to the addressing information for the LAN.
For the Network+ exam, you will need to understand how to harden RA messaging. IT professionals can implement an RA advertisement guard with the RA messaging system. This guard prevents malicious attackers from spoofing RA messages, and inspects the messages to make sure that they are complaint with the organization’s RA-guard
policy. The guard will drop any packets that do not met the compliance policy.
Which of the following indicates the largest number of bytes allowed in a frame?
MTU
PDU
CSMA/CA
CSMA/CD
Maximum transmission units (MTUs) indicate the largest number of bytes allowed in a frame. If the MTU size is reduced, network performance is affected. Also, if the MTU is too large, a packet may be rejected by the device receiving the packet.
What is the difference between CSMA/CD to CSMA/CA?
Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) is a feature of Ethernet switches that slows down the traffic on wired networks when bottlenecks occur. It uses rules to determine how network devices should respond when two devices attempt to use a data channel simultaneously and a collision occurs.
Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) is a feature that creates a collision-free communication channel between the transmitting device and the receiver.
You must propose a cabling scheme for your company’s new location. Several departments are located on the same floor with a maximum distance of 61 meters (200 feet) between departments. You want a relatively easy, lowcost installation with simple connections.
Which type of cabling would you propose?
Twisted-pair
ThickNet
ThinNet
Fiber-optic
Twisted-pair cabling is the least expensive cabling media. Because unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) is commonly used in telephone systems, it is mass-produced, making it inexpensive and widely available. In addition, twisted-pair cabling is very easy to work with, meaning that very little training is required for its installation.
Your company wants to use the private Class B network designation of 172.17.0.0/20. You have been asked to divide it up into six subnets. Two subnets should have 512 nodes and four more subnets have 256 nodes alreadyestablished. While a total of 2,048 IP addresses are needed, the design should leave some room for growth in each
subnet.
What is the correct way to subnet this network?
Allocate two networks with /24 masks, and the remaining four with /25 masks.
Allocate two networks with /20 masks, and the remaining four with /22 masks.
Allocate two networks with /21 masks, and the remaining four with /22 masks.
Allocate two networks with /22 masks, and the remaining four with /23 masks.
Allocate two networks with /23 masks, and the remaining four with /24 masks.
You should allocate two networks with a /22 mask and allocate the remaining four with a /23 mask. Subnetting is the process of dividing an IPv4 network into multiple subnetworks using different subnet masks. A single Class B network has room to accommodate 4,094 usable addresses, discounting the broadcast address and the network address. Each subnet requires an additional broadcast and network address, so six subnets drops the total number of usable addresses to 4,084. In this scenario, requiring two subnets at 512 nodes plus four more at 256 nodes means that a total of 2,048 addresses are needed immediately. Thus, leaving room for growth requires allocating all available addresses on the class B network.
In binary terms, an increase of one over the number 2,048 means doubling it to get to 4,096, and the closest a single Class B network can come is therefore to plan for complete allocation of the usable address space. Here is how that address space lays out:
Major network: 172.17.0.0/20
Available IP addresses in major network: 4094
Number of IP addresses needed: 204
Available IP addresses in allocated subnets: 4084
About 100% of available major network address space is used
About 50% of subnetted network address space is used
What is the purpose of CIDR?
Use of variable length subnet masks (VLSMs), or classless subnetting, to partition IPv4 addresses into various sized
subnets is also known as Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR). CIDR has helped to make more efficient use of
IPv4 address space in the past decade, as IPv4 addresses have become “exhausted” (fully allocated and
distributed for actual use).
You need to support an online meeting application that primarily transports streaming video packets. Occasional dropped packets are less important than minimizing latency. Which of the following transport layer protocols should you deploy?
DTLS
TLS
DHCP
SSL
IPSec
Because dropping occasional packets is less important than reducing latency end-to-end, Datagram Transport Layer Security (DTLS) is the best option. DTLS is essentially a reimplementation of TLS, which uses orderpreserving TCP at the Transport layer. DTLS uses the UDP protocol at the Transport layer instead of TCP. Though UDP is stateless and more lightweight than TCP, DTLS includes its own sequence numbering and assembly capabilities to make up for those lacks in the underlying transport. Because it imposes less overhead, it works better for streaming media transport than the heavier-duty guaranteed delivery mechanisms in TCP, and by extension
TLS.
Which of the following is a security implication if your company uses a public cloud deployment?
Surges in demand require that company resources will need to be adjusted accordingly.
The local ISP and power grid can impact the availability of resources stored on the cloud.
Other tenants can gain physical access to the resources that store your company’s data.
Security issues are the sole responsibility of the company’s personnel.
When using a public cloud deployment, other tenants can gain physical access to the resources that store your
company’s data.
Cloud security implications depend on the type of cloud that is being utilized. Public clouds are often seen as the riskiest form of clouds as they are open for the public to connect to, meaning there is a greater exposure to a malicious attacker. A private cloud only allows specific and authorized users to gain access, making it far harder to
breach as well as easier to manage.
What are the considerations of implementing and using a cloud service, what do you need to be aware of several key elements?
Whenever considering implementing and using cloud services, organizations need to be aware of several key elements:
multitenancy, elasticity, scalability, and security implications. Multitenancy is when several different cloud users access the same computing resource, as is common when several different companies store data within the same server. Ensuring that providers have servers that can handle these large workloads is critical to cloud availability. Cloud elasticity refers to the degree in which a system can adapt to workload changes by automatically provisioning and de-provisioning resources. Cloud scalability refers to a cloud system being able to allocate more resources automatically to handle greater workloads as more users and organizations request to utilize various
cloud services and applications.
Which technology is widely used in home automation, such as smart lights, locks, and thermostats?
Ant+
Z-Wave
NFC
Bluetooth
Z-Wave is a wireless technology that is widely used in home automation, such as smart lights, locks, and thermostats. It creates a wireless mesh network with a primary controller. Each device communicates with its nearest neighbor, much like routers communicate with each other.
All of the other options facilitate the Internet of Things (IoT). However, Z-Wave is most commonly used in home automation devices.
Which technology allows using label switching for routing frames?
point-to-multipoint
packet-switching
circuit-switching
MPLS
Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) is a WAN technology that allows using label switching for routing frames. It uses label-switching routers and label-edge routers to forward traffic
You have recently implemented DNS on a small company network. However, you discover that the internal DNS server is having trouble communicating with external DNS servers. Which well-known UDP port does this protocol use?
53
110
161
80
Ports allow more than one service or application to communicate at the same time between computers. The Domain Name System (DNS) service uses port 53 to communicate information between name servers. DNS uses both TCP port 53 and UDP port 53. Administrators can assign additional ports for communication on an intranet and through the Internet. There are a total of 65,536 ports from which to choose. Of these, only 1,024 ports are considered well known and, therefore, reserved for a particular service.
Computer A needs the IP address of Computer B, but Computer A only knows Computer B’s FQDN. Which of the following is MOST likely to contain this information?
Internal DNS
External DNS
Forward zone
Reverse zone
The forward lookup zone is most likely to contain the IP address of Computer B. When comparing forward vs reverse zones, the forward lookup zone provides the association between devices on a domain and their corresponding IP address. As an example, it would contain a record that says mypc.mydomain.com has IP address 192.168.5.1. If another machine on the network needed the IP address for mypc.mydomain.com, it would query the forward lookup zone on the DNS server, find the record for mypc.mydomain.com, and retrieve the IP address.
What are the functions of Recursive and Iterative DNS lookup?
Two other types of lookups that you need to understand are recursive and iterative DNS lookups. Recursive DNS
lookups occur when one DNS server communicates with other DNS servers to search for a specific IP address and return it to the client. In contrast, an iterative DNS lookup is where the client communicates directly with each DNS server involved in the lookup.
For the Network+ exam, you will also have to understand the importance of zone transfers within a DNS server. Zone transfers is a procedure that lets two DNS servers exchanges their zone information. The purpose of this process is to create redundancy within a network in the event of a crash. For more important zones within a network, it is often advised to have more than two DNS servers to ensure redundancy is guaranteed.
What is the difference between internal and external DNS?
When comparing internal vs external DNS, the internal DNS would reside within the enterprise’s networks and provide “local” name resolution. An external DNS server would be one that not only provides resolution for your domain, but others as well. While the query may go to the DNS server, the information is actually contains in the lookup zones located on the servers.
You are designing a SOHO network for your company. You want to use the Ethernet standard that supports a data transmission rate of 1 Gbps over copper cable.
Which Ethernet standard should you use on the network?
10Base-T
100Base-FX
1000BaseSX
1000BaseCX
The 1000BaseCX Ethernet standard supports a data transmission rate of 1 Gigabit per second (Gbps) over 150- ohm balanced copper cable. The 1000BaseCX Ethernet standard supports a maximum cable segment length of only 25 meters (m). The 1000BaseCX Ethernet standard was designed to support connections between network
nodes that are in close proximity, such as nodes in a network’s wiring closet. The 1000BaseCX standard specifies 8- pin High Speed Serial Data Connectors (HSSDCs) or 9-pin D-subminiature connectors. HSSDC connectors are preferred over the 9-pin D-subminiature connectors because they provide a better electrical connection than the D connectors. Note that 1000BaseCX Ethernet equipment may be difficult to obtain, because it never became popular.
What are the functions of a Ethernet over HDMI?
Ethernet over HDMI − This standard allows you to use a High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) connection for Ethernet communication. It supports 4.92Gbps or higher transmission depending on which HDMI version you use. Most implementations have a maximum cable length of 15 feet.
What are the functions of a Ethernet over power Line?
Ethernet over power line − Power-line networking uses the electrical wiring in your house to create a network. The speeds of this connection are rather slow at 50 Kbps to 14 Mbps, depending on which specification you implement.
Which of these would a hospital group use to connect its various neighborhood offices to the main facility when all are located within the same city or region?
MAN
LAN
WLAN
WAN
A metropolitan area network (MAN) would be used by the hospital to connect its various neighborhood offices to the main facility when all are located within the same city or region. MANs connect several LANS together in an area roughly the size of a city.
You use a computer on a TCP/IP network to transfer data through well-known TCP port 80.
Which protocol is most likely being used to transfer data?
SMTP
FTP
POP3
HTTP
Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is assigned to the well-known Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) port 80, so you are most likely using HTTP to transfer data. HTTP is used to transfer data between Web browsers and Web servers on a TCP/IP network. HTTP is a stateless protocol, which means that neither the server nor the client collect or maintain information about one another. HTTP works at the Application layer (Layer 7) of the OSI model.
You have installed a new MAU on your Token Ring network because the old one is no longer supported by the product vendor. At what layer of the OSI model does this device operate?
the Transport layer
the Network layer
the Data Link layer
the Physical layer
Of the listed Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layers, a Multistation Access Unit (MAU) operates at the Physical layer (Layer 1). An MAU is a network connection concentrator used on Token Ring networks. An MAU is similar to a hub, which is a network connection concentrator used on star-wired Ethernet networks.
The Physical layer of the OSI model defines how data bits are translated into energy pulses that are sent over network cabling media. The Physical layer also defines network topologies, such as the ring, bus, and mesh topologies. Hubs, transceivers, and repeaters, network interface cards (NICs), and wireless cards work at the Physical Layer. If you must enable or turn on a NIC or wireless card, the problem is occurring at the Physical layer.
Management has stipulated that you must use unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) category consists of four twisted pairs of copper wire that is certified for transmission rates of up to 100 Mbps for the new guest network you are setting up. Which cabling category should you use?
Category 4
Category 2
Category 3
Category 1
Category 5
Category 5 UTP cabling is the most widely used category of UTP cable. Category 5 wiring consists of four twisted pairs of copper wire terminated by RJ-45 connectors. Category 5 cabling can support frequencies of up to 100 MHz and speeds of up to 100 Mbps. It can be used for ATM, Token Ring, 1000Base-T, 100Base-T, and 10Base-T networking.
Currently, your company uses IPv4 across its enterprise. Your company is considering using IPv6 instead of IPv4.
Which improvements does IPv6 provide over IPv4? (Choose 2)
The IP address size is increased from 64 bits to 128 bits with simpler auto-configuration of addresses.
Some header fields have been dropped or made optional.
The IP header options allow more efficient forwarding and less rigid length limits.
The IP address size increased from 128 bits to 156 bits with simpler autoconfiguration of addresses.
Header fields have been made mandatory to reduce processing requirements.
A new type of address is used to deliver a packet to a specific address
IPv6 (version 6), or IPng (next generation), offers the following improvements over IPv4:
The IP address size increases from 32 bits to 128 bits.
Some of the header fields have been dropped.
Version 6 has less rigid length limits and the ability to introduce new options.
Packets will indicate particular traffic type.
Support will be provided for data integrity and confidentiality.
The IPv6 header is 40 fixed bytes and has eight fields of information.
During a recent network redesign meeting, one team member suggested that you implement a device that operates at both the Data Link layer and the Network layer of the OSI model.
Which device operates at both of these layers?
a repeater
a brouter
a bridge
a router
a hub
A brouter operates at both the Data Link layer (Layer 2) and the Network layer (Layer 3) of the Open Systems
Interconnection (OSI) model. A brouter can act as a bridge or a router. When acting as a bridge, a brouter operates
at the Data Link layer of the OSI model. When acting as a router, a brouter operates at the Network layer of the OSI
model.
You have been asked to implement a Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) on your company’s network. Which protocol should you use?
SSH
TLS
ARP
SIP
Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) is the protocol used on a VoIP network. It is an Application layer protocol. VoIP allows you to transmit audio and video messages over a TCP/IP network. Real-time Transport Protocol (RTP) is another protocol used in VoIP. Both SIP and RTP work at the Application layer of the OSI model. Internet Protocol (IP) is used to transmit data over a data network.
You need to implement a data center for your company. In this data center, you plan to implement inter-rack connections that are limited to 25 meters (82 feet). Which Ethernet standard should you implement?
100Base-T4
1000Base-CX
100Base-FX
1000Base-TX
1000Base-CX is designed for wiring closets. It has a transmission rate of 1,000 Mbps and a maximum segment length of 25 meters (82 feet).
A network technician contacts you regarding what he believes is suspicious behavior on the network. He has noticed communication over TCP port 123 between his computer and a server on the Internet. Which protocol is causing this communication?
FTP
SMTP
NTP
SSH
Network Time Protocol (NTP) communicates over TCP port 123. It is responsible for synchronizing the clock settings on a computer. Proper clock synchronization is vital for many directory service applications. Communication over TCP port 123 is not a reason to be alarmed. NTP works at the Application layers of the OSI model.
Which technology or device would be best suited for implementing short-ranged fiber-optics transmissions?
QSFP
SFP+
DWDM
CWDM
Coarse wavelength division multiplexing (CWDM) is a WDM system that would be best suited for short-range fiberoptic transmission because it uses fewer than eight active wavelengths per fiber. This technology is designed for short-range communications, causing it to employ wide-range frequencies with wavelengths that are far apart. CWDM is a compact and cost-effective option when spectral efficiency is not a requirement.
What are the functions of DWDM?
Dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM) enables long-range communications. It can fit up to ninety-six
wavelengths into the C-band spectrum of a fiber cable, utilizing a tighter wavelength spacing to fit more channels
onto a single fiber. While this system extends transmission range, it is more costly to implement and more timeconsuming to operate than CWDM.
What does CWDM and DWDM have in common?
Both DWDM and CWDM were developed from wavelength division multiplexing (WDM). WDM is a technique in fiber
optic transmissions to send data using multiple wavelengths of light over the same medium. With WDM, two or more
colors of light can travel on one fiber strand to send several signals in an optical waveguide at different wavelengths
or frequencies.
Your company has decided to implement either a 1000Base-LX or 1000-Base-SX network. Which type of cable should you use?
UTP
fiber optic
coaxial
STP
The 1000Base-SX and 1000Base-LX standards use fiber optic cable. They are Gigabit Ethernet technologies.
1000Base-SX uses multi-mode fiber optic cable. 1000Base-LX uses single-mode or multi-mode fiber optic cable.
1000Base-SX and 1000Base-LX do not use unshielded twisted pair (UTP), shielded twisted pair (STP), or coaxial
cable.
1000Base-CX uses shielded twisted pair (STP) cable for short-haul cable runs.
Which of the following technologies implements packet tagging in a LAN?
QoS
Traffic shaping
CoS
Diffserv
Class of Service (CoS) implements packet tagging in a local area network (LAN). It tags the different types of traffic, such as video streaming or VoIP. The tag is a value between 0 and 8, with 0 being the highest priority.
Your company owns a single physical server. You need to ensure that Web services are hosted in a Linux environment while Active Directory services are hosted in a Windows environment. In addition, you need to ensure that these services are hosted on different broadcast domains. What should you do?
Implement virtual desktops and switches.
Implement virtual servers and switches.
Implement virtual desktops and servers.
Implement virtual servers and PBXs.
You should implement virtual servers and switches. Implementing virtual servers would allow you to host a Linux
environment for Web services and a Windows environment for Active Directory services on the same physical
server. Implementing virtual switches will allow you to host the services on different broadcast domains.
Your company’s WAN connects networks in New York, Atlanta, Dallas, and Boston. Each city is directly connected
to every other city.
Which physical topology is used for your WAN?
Star
Ring
Bus
Mesh
In a mesh topology, every device has a dedicated connection to every other device using a series of point-to-point
connections. In the case of a WAN, a mesh topology connects each individual network to each other network in an
intranetwork. This type of topology is very expensive because of its redundant links, but it provides a high level of
fault tolerance. Therefore, it is typically seen in a WAN environment where fault tolerance is a major concern.
You have been asked to create several TIA/EIA 568A wiring cables for your network. Which color wire should be
placed in Pin 1?
Green
Green/White
Orange
Orange/White
Pin 1 in the 568A cable specification should contain the Green/White wire. The 568A specification is shown below:
Pin 1 − Green/White
Pin 2 − Green
Pin 3 − Orange/White
Pin 4 − Blue
Pin 5 − Blue/White
Pin 6 − Orange
Pin 7 − Brown/White
Pin 8 − Brown
You have been asked to create several TIA/EIA 568B wiring cables for your network. Which color wire should be
placed in Pin 6?
Green
Green/White
Orange
Orange/White
Brown/White
Pin 1 − Orange/White
Pin 2 − Orange
Pin 3 − Green/White
Pin 4 − Blue
Pin 5 − Blue/White
Pin 6 − Green
Pin 7 − Brown/White
Pin 8 − Brown
Which DSL technology provides the highest data rate?
ADSL
VDSL
SDSL
HDSL
Very high data rate Digital Subscriber Line (VDSL) provides the highest data rate, at 51 to 55 megabits per second (Mbps) over cable lengths of up to 1,000 feet or 300 meters.
Your company’s enterprise includes multiple subnets, each of which uses a different addressing class. Match the first two octets of the IPv4 addresses on the left with the IPv4 address type that describes it. Each address will only match to a single address type, and each address type will only match a single address.
Class B − 12.174.x.x
Class C − 162.58.x.x
Class A − 219.214.x.x
Private− 169.254.x.x
APIPA− 172.16.x.x
Multicast − 127.0.x.x
Loopback − 225.47.x.x
Class A − 12.174.x.x
Class B − 162.58.x.x
Class C − 219.214.x.x
APIPA − 169.254.x.x
Private − 172.16.x.x
Loopback − 127.0.x.x
Multicast − 225.47.x.x
Match the cable types on the left with the appropriate maximum distance and speed option on the right. Match the
correct items from the left column to the column on the right to match cable type with the correct maximum distance
and speed.
Single mode Fiber − Up to 100 m and 100 Mbps
ThickNet − Up to 100 m and 1 Gbps
Cat 6 − Up to 500 m and 10 Gbps
ThinNet− Up to 40 km and 10 Gbps
Cat 6a/7 − Up to 500 m and 10 Mbps and uses RG-6 coaxial cabling
Multi Mode Fiber − Up to 185 m and 10 Mbps and uses RG-59 coaxial cabling
Cat 8 − Up to 100 m and 10 Gbps
Cat 5 − Up to 30 m when supporting 25 Gbps and 40 Gbps, and up to 100m when supporting 10Gbps
Cat5 − Up to 100 m and 100 Mbps
Cat6 − Up to 100 m and 1 Gbps
Multi-mode Fiber − Up to 500 m and 10 Gbps
Single-mode Fiber − Up to 40 km and 10 Gbps
ThickNet − Up to 500 m and 10 Mbps and uses RG-6 coaxial cabling
ThinNet − Up to 185 m and 10 Mbps and uses RG-59 coaxial cabling
Cat6a/7 − Up to 100 m and 10 Gbps
Cat 8 − Up to 30 m when supporting 25 Gbps and 40 Gbps, and up to 100m when supporting 10Gbps
You administer a TCP/IP network. You want to enable the hosts on your network to be automatically configured with
IP configurations, such as IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway address. The IP configurations should be
leased to the clients for a limited time.
Which protocol should you use to accomplish this task?
IPP
DHCP
SMTP
HTTP
BOOTP
You should use Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) to automatically configure the hosts on your network
with IP configurations. DHCP was designed to automatically configure frequently moved, fully boot-capable computers, such as laptop computers, with IP configurations. You can use DHCP to configure such IP settings as IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway address. Typically, DHCP information is leased to a client for a limited period. DHCP clients usually release DHCP information when they are shut down. When a DHCP client retrieves IP configurations from a DHCP server, the DHCP client is not necessarily configured with the same IP configurations as on previous occasions.
You need to ensure that the Web server always receives the same IP address from the DHCP server. What should
you do?
Create a DHCP reservation.
Create a DHCP scope.
Create a scope option.
Create a DHCP exclusion.
To ensure that a Web server always receives the same IP address from the DHCP server, you should create a DHCP reservation. A DHCP reservation is created at the DHCP server and is based on the MAC address of the leasing device. When the device connects to the network, it sends a DHCPRequest message that contains its MAC address. The DHCP server will then assign the IP address that is stipulated in the DHCP reservation. If the MAC address in the device changes for any reason, the DHCP reservation must be re-created. DHCP reservations are also referred to as MAC reservations.
Which of these provides the communication framework for data transfer in a storage area network (SAN) while
minimizing costs?
iSCSI
Load balancer
InfiniBand
FCoE
The Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (iSCSI) protocol is used in storage area networks (SANs), local area networks (LANs), wide area networks (WANs), and the Internet. It provides the communication framework, allowing SCSI commands to transmit over an IP network.
Your database administrator needs accurate time-stamping for purchases. Which of the following is would you
implement?
SRV
CoS
Lease time
NTP
Network Time Protocol (NTP) would be implemented to provide accurate time-stamping for purchases. It is used to
synchronize the clocks of computers on the network. Synchronization of time is important in areas such as event
logs, billing services, e-commerce, banking, and HIPAA Security Rules.
You have recently been hired as a network administrator. After starting your new job, you discover that the network
devices are not being monitored on a regular basis. You need to deploy a technology or protocol that will provide this service. Which protocol or technology should you deploy?
SMTP
DNS
DHCP
SNMP
You should deploy Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) to monitor network devices. It uses port 161 to
communicate. Information about a managed device’s resources and activity is defined by a series of objects and is contained by a managed device’s Management Information Base (MIB). SNMP management software can request each of the MIB objects from an SNMP agent, referred to as an SNMP walk. Different SNMP messages can be sent, including:
Get − retrieves information from a managed device.
Set − sets a variable in a managed device or triggers an action on a managed device\
Trap − an unsolicited message sent from a managed device to an SNMP manager, which can notify the SNMP manager about a significant event that occurred on the managed device. SNMP can send traps to the network management software you are using, to your e-mail address, or to another destination.
Why is Syslog helpful when it comes to monitoring network devices?
Syslog messages and SNMP traps trigger notification messages that can be sent via email and SMS. A syslog server receives and stores log messages sent from syslog clients. A syslog client sends logging information to a syslog server. A syslog server ensures that a network administrator can review device error information from a central location.
The DHCP terms and descriptions should be matched in the following manner:
− a single IP address that is being used by a DHCP client
− a parameter that can be used to assign router, DNS server, and other information to DHCP clients
− a range of possible IP addresses that a DHCP server can assign
− an allocation of a single IP address to a MAC address
Lease − a single IP address that is being used by a DHCP client
Option − a parameter that can be used to assign router, DNS server, and other information to DHCP clients
Scope − a range of possible IP addresses that a DHCP server can assign
Reservation − an allocation of a single IP address to a MAC address
The cable used on your network consist of:
Plastic encasement
Outer conductor
insulation
Inner Conductor
Which transmission medium is shown?
Twinaxial
Fiber-optic
UTP
Coaxial
STP
Coaxial cable has an inner conductor surrounded by a shield. The inner conductor is separated from the shield using an insulating material.
Coaxial cable comes in two varieties: ThinNet and ThickNet. ThinNet cable is .64 centimeters (.25 inches) thick and
carries signals up to 185 meters (607 feet). ThickNet is 1.27 centimeters (.5 inches) thick and carries signals up to 500 meters (1,640 feet).
Like a coaxial cable, a twinaxial cable is a copper cable. However, unlike a coaxial cable, a twinaxial cable has two internal conductors. Twinaxial cables are often seen as a cost-efficient method for very short and high-speed communication.
Recently, you have noticed that segments of data are arriving at their destination with errors. You need to examine the appropriate OSI layer for the reliable delivery of segments without error. Which OSI layer is responsible for this?
Network
Transport
Application
Data Link
The Transport layer is responsible for the reliable delivery of segments without error. This means that the Transport
layer is not only responsible for making sure that segments of data are delivered, but also for ensuring that segments of data arrive without error. The Transport layer uses segment sequencing to put any incorrectly ordered segments into the correct sequence.
Name the layers of the OSI model starting with Layer 1?
The layers of the OSI model, along with their layer numbers, are shown below:
Layer 1 – Physical layer
Layer 2 – Data Link layer
Layer 3 – Network layer
Layer 4 – Transport layer
Layer 5 – Session layer
Layer 6 – Presentation layer
Layer 7 – Application layer
You have been hired as a network administrator. The company wants to implement a 10 Gigabit Ethernet designation for use with a SONET network. Which of the following should you implement?
10GBase-SW
10GBase-LX4
10GBase-LR
10GBase-SR
The 10GBase-SW designation is for use with Synchronous Optical Networking (SONET) networks. Other SONET
network designations include 10GBase-EW, 10GBase-LW, and 10GBase-ZW. The W designation in the 10GBase
specification includes SONET usage.
Your company consists of 75 employees. Your company has entered into a partnership with another company that is located across the country. For meetings while working out the partnership agreeemt, your company’s 6 top-level executives must be able to connect to the partner’s network quickly and reliably. Support for voice, data, andimaging transmissions and a dedicated 24-hour link are required. Your solution must be as inexpensive as possible while providing enough bandwidth for your company’s top-level executives.
What should you implement?
POTS
T1
ATM
ISDN
FDDI
T1 lines can provide fast, digital connections of up to 1.544 Mbps, transmitting voice, data, and video. A T1 line also
provides a dedicated connection, which means that it provides a 24-hour link. A T1 line is more expensive than a
dial-up connection using Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS) or an Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
connection, but this company needs enough bandwidth to accommodate its 6 top-level executives, which justifies
the additional cost. If the full bandwidth of the T1 proves too costly or unnecessary, fractional T1 is available. With a
fractional T1, you can subscribe to one or more of the 24 available channels at a lower cost than T1.
Your company needs to be able to provide employees access to a suite of applications. However, you do not want the employees to install a local copy of the applications. Which method should you use to deploy the suite of
applications?
IaaS
SaaS
PaaS
virtualization
You should use Software as a Service (SaaS) to deploy the suite of applications. This will ensure on-demand, online access to the suite without the need for local installation. Another example of this type of cloud computing deployment is when a company needs to give employees access to a database but cannot invest in any more servers. WebMail is an example of this cloud computing type.
What is Virtualization?
Virtualization hosts one or more operating systems (OSs) within the memory of a single physical host computer.
This mechanism allows virtually any OS to operate on any hardware and allows multiple OSs to work simultaneously on the same hardware. Virtualization would not be the best choice here because it would limit the number of users who could access the application suite. In addition, the performance of the virtual machine would decline as more users simultaneously access the application suite.
What is PaaS?
PaaS is a platform that provides not only a deployment
platform but also a value added solution stack and an application development platform. It provides customers with
an operating system that is easy to configure. It is on-demand computing for customers.
What is IaaS?
IaaS is a platform that provides computer
and server infrastructure typically provided as a virtualization environment. The platform would provide the ability for
consumers to scale their infrastructure up or down by domain and pay for the resources consumed. This cloud
computing model provides the greatest flexibility but requires a greater setup and maintenance overhead than the
other cloud computing models.
What are the implications between Virtualization and Using Cloud Services?
A part of the Network+ exam, CompTIA cover three main cloud models: SaaS, PaaS, and IaaS. The security control
that is lost when using cloud computing is physical control of the data. The main difference between virtualization
and cloud computing is location and ownership of the physical components. When virtualization is used, a computer
uses its own devices to set up a virtual machine. When cloud computing is used, a company pays for access to
another company’s devices.
What is DaaS?
Another cloud model that is covered in the Network+ exam is the Desktop as a Service model (DaaS). This model is
used to deliver a complete virtual desktop environment to users that includes a fully operational operating system,
applications, and user preferences from a cloud environment. These virtual desktops are often managed by the
cloud provider.
What type of cloud services can you use?
Other cloud technologies that you need to be familiar with include:
Private cloud − a cloud infrastructure operated solely for a single organization that can be managed internally or
by a third party and host internally or externally.
Public cloud − when the cloud is rendered over a network that is open for public use.
Community cloud − shares infrastructure between several organizations from a specific community that can be
managed internally or by a third party and hosted internally or externally.
Hybrid cloud − two or more clouds (private, public, or community) that retain unique names but are bound
together, offering the benefits of multiple deployment models.
Infrastructure as code (IaC) – the process of automating the provisioning network infrastructure to enable an organization to develop, deploy, and scale cloud applications with greater speed and less risk at a reduced cost.
With IaC, developers can automate the testing process to enable them to test applications within a secure areaearly in the development cycle, allowing them to design stronger and more secure applications. IaC also enables developers to utilize orchestration to assign workloads to the most appropriate nodes to ensure better resource utilization and management throughout the application process.
You have been hired as a contractor to implement a small office home office (SOHO) network for a small business.
While gathering the requirements and constraints regarding the network, you decide to implement two subnets on
the network.
What are valid reasons for implementing subnets on an IP network? (Choose 2)
to reduce congestion by decreasing network traffic
to reduce congestion by increasing network media bandwidth
to configure a greater number of hosts
to use more than one server on each segment of an IP LAN
to increase network security
The subnet mask enables TCP/IP to find the destination host’s location on either the local network or a remote
location.
Subnets are used for the following reasons:
to expand the network
to reduce congestion
to reduce CPU use
to isolate network problems
to improve security
to allow combinations of media, because each subnet can support a different medium
When Implementing SOHO networks what are the concepts that need to be assessed and considered?
When implementing SOHO networks, you need to have a clear understanding of the following concepts:
List of requirements − This list will guide you to select the appropriate network media, devices, and services.
The best way to ensure that this list is comprehensive is to interview different personnel for their opinions. Also, you need to assess the facility that will contain the network. The facility itself may cause certain requirements or restrictions to be in place.
Device types/requirements − Once you document the network requirements, these requirements will help you to determine which devices you need on your network. If you need to divide your network into areas of traffic isolation, you may want to implement a switch. Otherwise, you may simply need a router. Keep in mind that you should document availability and speed needs so that you can ensure that the network you implement can support them.
Environment limitations − Record any environment limitations. Is the location dusty? Is it dry or humid? What about the HVAC considerations? Also, you should check for electrical outlets and any electromagnetic or radio interference that exists. When determining where to install a server, you should first consider environmental limitations because servers will have definite cooling needs.
Equipment limitations − Does any of the current or planned equipment have connection limitations, performance limitations, or any other limiting factor? For example, routers only support a certain number of connections. It may be better to purchase a router with more connections just to ensure that the network is capable of growth, even if this means increasing the budget.
Compatibility requirements − You must ensure that any devices, equipment, or media are compatible with the network and its hosts. You should analyze all of the computers and devices currently in use, no matter how insignificant they are.
Wired/wireless considerations − You need to determine if you want to use a wired network, a wireless network,
or both. Perform a site survey to determine if there are other wireless networks in the area, which will affect your choice of wireless frequency and channel. You should also document any objects that will cause electromagnetic and radio frequency interference.
Security considerations − Document any security issues that you expect. Of course, this includes virus and
malware issues, but it goes so much further than that. Will you allow guest access to the network? Will you
allow personnel to use personal mobile devices or flash drives? Can closets that will contain network devices be locked? Is there a secure room to contain the servers?
You are the network administrator for your company. Recently, the company has decided to locate a small branch office in another state. You have decided to allocate a portion of the private IP address range to use at the new
branch office.
You assign the branch office the 192.168.103.0/24 IP address range. When you set up the new network, you need
to configure separate subnets for each department in the branch office. You should allocate the addresses using
CIDR notation such that each department has the minimum number of IP addresses. The departments require the
following numbers of hosts on their subnets:
Administrative − 4
Sales − 54
Marketing − 27
Research − 12
After you select the appropriate CIDR notation for each department, you must identify the unused portion of the
subnet (identified as “Remainder”). Select the appropriate CIDR from the left, and drag it to the network on the right
to which it applies. Then select the appropriate CIDR from the left for the unused portion of the network, and drag it
to the Remainder field on the right. Not all CIDR notation options will be used.
The following allocations should be made for the networks:
Administrative − /29
Sales − /26
Marketing − /27
Research − /28
Remainder − /25
For the Administrative network, the /29 designation will support up to 6 hosts.
For the Sales network, the /26 designation will support up to 62 hosts.
For the Marketing network, the /27 designation will support up to 30 hosts.
For the Research network, the /28 designation will support up to 14 hosts.
A total of 112 IP addresses will be used by the departments. The Remainder group uses a /25 notation, which supports up to 126 hosts.
Your company uses a single global IP address that maps to the company’s local IP addresses. When requests are sent from the internal network to destinations outside the company, those requests are mapped from the IP address of the local host that made the request to the global IP address.
Which term describes this process?
Network Access Point (NAP)
Network Access Server (NAS)
Network File System (NFS)
Network Address Translation (NAT
NAT is a service that translates one or more global IP addresses to local IP addresses. This mapping is done through the NAT router. For example, if a request is sent from the internal network to a destination outside the company, that request will be mapped to the global IP address and then sent outside the company’s network. To the outside world, only the global IP address is known. NAT increases the security of a network because it hides the IP addresses of internal hosts from the Internet or other public network.
You use a computer named Wkst1 on a TCP/IP network, which is installed with an application that uses UDP to send a file from your computer to a computer named Wkst2. Data collisions occur, and several data packets are lost
during transmission.
What will most likely occur as a result of losing the packets during transmission? (Choose 2)
The application will drop the packets.
The protocol will automatically retransmit the packets.
The protocol will drop the packets.
The application will automatically retransmit the packets.
User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is a connectionless protocol; thus, it will drop the packets and it will not automatically
retransmit them. Because an application is not typically responsible for transmitting data packets across a network,
the application in this scenario cannot drop the packets. Instead, an application that uses UDP will usually detect
that UDP has dropped packets, and the application will retransmit any dropped packets.
