2.0 Network Implementation Flashcards
You have decided to implement frame tagging in a port-based switching network. What does this technique ensure?
A) that the VLANs are implemented based on protocol
B) that the VLANs are implemented based on port
C) that the VLANs are implemented based on subnet
D) that a single VLAN can be distributed across multiple switches
Frame tagging in a port-based switching network will ensure that a single VLAN can be distributed across multiple switches.
You are creating a wireless network for your company. You need to implement a wireless protocol that provides maximum security to protect against wireless attack. However, you must provide support for older wireless clients. Which protocol should you choose?
A) WEP
B) WPA
C) WAP
D) WPA2
You should implement Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA). WPA was created to fix core problems with WEP. WPA is designed to work with older wireless clients while implementing the 802.11i standard.
What is WAP?
Wireless Application Protocol (WAP) is the default protocol used by most wireless networks and devices. However, because WAP can access Web pages and scripts, there is great opportunity for malicious code to damage a system. WAP is considered the weakest wireless protocol.
Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) completely implements the 802.11i standard. Therefore, it does not support the use of older wireless cards. Identification and WPA2 are considered the best combination for securing a wireless network. WPA2 is much stronger than WPA. In addition, you can implement WPA2 with Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP), also referred to as TKIP-RC4, or Advanced Encryption Standard (AES), also referred to as AES-CCMP, to provide greater security. WPA2-AES is stronger than WPA2-TKIP.
What is WEP?
Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is the security standard for wireless networks and devices that uses encryption to protect data. However, WEP does have weaknesses and is not as secure as WPA or WPA2. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) should be avoided because even its highest level of encryption has been successfully broken.
What does an Evil Twin do in terms of hacking into wireless network?
Evil twin − occurs when a wireless access point that is not under your control is used to perform a hijacking attack. It is set up to look just like a valid network, including the same Set Service Identifier (SSID) and other settings.
What does an Rogue Access Point do in terms of hacking into wireless network?
Rogue access point (AP) − occurs when a wireless attack that is not under your control is connected to your network. With these devices, they are not set up to look just like your network. This attack preys on users’ failure to ensure that an access point is valid. You can perform a site survey to detect rogue APs.
What does an War Driving do in terms of hacking into wireless network?
War driving − occurs when attackers seek out a Wi-Fi network with a mobile device or laptop while driving a vehicle. You can lower the signal strength to help protect against this attack. You should also turn off the broadcasting of the SSID and use WPA or WPA2 authentication.
What does an War Chalking do in terms of hacking into wireless network?
War chalking − occurs when attackers place Wi-Fi network information on the outside walls of buildings. Keep an eye out for this type of information by periodically inspecting the outside of your facilities.
What does an BlueJacking do in terms of hacking into wireless network?
Bluejacking − the sending of unsolicited messages over Bluetooth to Bluetooth-enabled devices. Turning off Bluetooth when not in use is the best protection against this.
What does an BlueSnarfnig do in terms of hacking into wireless network?
Bluesnarfing − the unauthorized access of information from a wireless device through a Bluetooth connection. Once again, turning off Bluetooth when not in use is the best protection against this.
What does an WPA/WEP/WPS attacks do in terms of hacking into wireless network?
WPA/WEP/WPS attacks − Any attacks against wireless protocols can usually be prevented by using a higher level of encryption or incorporating RADIUS authentication. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) should be avoided. Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) allow users to easily secure a wireless home network but is susceptible to brute force attacks. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) is more secure than WEP and WPS. WPA2 provides better security than WPA.
Which of these devices can perform router functions?
A) Proxy server
B) Multi-layer switch
C) Wireless controller
D) IDS
A multi-layer switch, in addition to working at the Data Link layer (Layer 2), also performs many Layer 3 router functions. When ports on a multi-layer switch are configured as Layer 2 ports, traffic will be routed based on the MAC address. When ports are configured as Layer 3 ports, traffic will be routed based on IP addresses. Multi-layer switches have the ability to route packets between virtual local area networks (VLANs).
What does Wireless controllers provide in AP?
Wireless controllers provide centralized management of wireless access points. Without wireless controllers, each access point must be configured individually.
What is the difference between IDS/IPS ?
An intrusion detection system (IDS) contrasts with an intrusion prevention system (IPS). When comparing IDS/IPS, IDS is essentially a warning system that provides notification of an intrusion, while IPS is more active and can stop an attack while it is taking place. An IDS does not route traffic.
What can a Proxy Server provide in terms of efficiency on the server?
A proxy server can provide caching services to reduce the amount of internet traffic from the gateway.
You need to connect wireless devices to a wired local area network. Which device should you implement?
A) CSU/DSU
B) Wireless NIC
C) Access Point
D) Gateway
An access point is either a software or hardware component that acts as a transceiver for wireless devices, connecting them to a wired local area network (LAN). It serves a similar function as a distribution center sending and receiving signals to and from computers on the network. Stations, or computers, placed too far from the access point will be unable to communicate with the network. A wireless network that employs access points is said to be operating in infrastructure mode. However, wireless networks can also be set up with just a few stations and wireless network cards. This is known as ad-hoc mode. Ad-hoc mode networks can be set up quickly; however, all of the stations must be within a 300-foot radius to communicate. A mesh network may use a combination of wireless access points while allowing some devices to connect using ad-hoc mode. Organizational wireless access points usually provide more connections and a wider range of transmission than small office/home office wireless routers.
What is a gateway?
A gateway is used to connect networks that use different protocols.
What is CSU/DSU funtion?
A Channel Service Unit/Digital Service Unit (CSU/DSU) is a device typically required by leased lines, such as T1 lines, to terminate their media connection to your LAN.
What is NIC used for?
A wireless network interface card (NIC) is designed specifically for wireless networks. It is the piece of hardware that enables wireless communication for a computer.
Why is placement for WAP important?
Keep in mind that wireless access point (WAP) placement is very important. WAP placement varies based on the environment in which the WAP is placed. WAPs should be centrally placed to ensure that the maximum number of devices can use it. Also, you should consider the other devices in the area, such as cordless telephones, that can cause interference. Placement is particularly important if more than one WAP is implemented in the same area. It may be necessary to configure WAPs that are in close proximity to use different channels.
Key features of Wireless controller?
A wireless controller is a centralized device that can be used to manage multiple wireless access points. You need to understand VLAN pooling and Light Weight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP). VLAN pooling assigns IP addresses to wireless clients from a pool of IP subnets and their associated VLANs. The protocols used to communicate between an access point and a wireless control is either the older Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) or the more current Control And Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP).
What do you use to allow wireless devices to connect to a wired network?
A wireless bridge is a wireless access point that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network.
MU-MIMO is a technology that uses?
Multi-user MIMO (MU-MIMO) is a set of advanced multiple in, multiple out (MIMO) technologies where the available antennas are spread over a multitude of independent access points and independent radio terminals. Each has one or multiple antennas. In contrast, single-user MIMO considers a single multi-antenna transmitter communicating with a single multi-antenna receiver. MIMO is used in 802.11n to allow the wireless network to reach higher speeds.
For a branch office network deployment, you have been asked to select network switches for the wiring center in your office building. You need a solution that does not rely on the availability of wall outlets to plug in IP-attached surveillance cameras, IP phones, and wireless access points near the RJ-45 wall jacks where those devices will be attached to the network. Which of the following options within a switch will solve this problem?
A) Configuration files for most common devices
B) QoS Support
C) Web-based UI for setup and configuration
D) Green, energy efficient fanless chassis
E) PoE
Power over Ethernet (PoE), also known as in-line power, allows a network switch to provide power to network-attached devices, including video surveillance cameras, IP phones, and wireless access points (WAPs), through the wall jack that delivers an Ethernet connection. This relieves network designers of the need to ensure adequate power outlets where they wish to stage network devices.
Why would you use QoS on a switch?
Quality of Service (QoS) support means that a switch can prioritize traffic. This allows important or time-sensitive traffic to get through faster and less important or time-insensitive traffic to get through when it can. QoS can be important on networks with real-time or time-sensitive traffic such as VoIP (voice) or streaming media. However, this will not relieve the network designer of concerns about the proximity or availability of a power outlet.
You have decided to implement a firewall between your company’s network and the Internet. What does a firewall software solution typically provide? (Choose 3)
A) IP proxy services
B) L1 cache
C) packet filtering
D) L2 cache
E) HTTP proxy services
Of the listed services, a firewall software solution typically provides packet filtering, Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) proxy services, and Internet Protocol (IP) proxy services. These three services can also be obtained as separate products.
With packet filtering, data packets can either be allowed or denied entry into a network based on certain specified factors, such as the TCP port number or the IP address of the sending host. HTTP proxy services typically include Web page caching, which enables Web pages to be stored on an HTTP proxy server and retrieved from the proxy server rather than from the Internet; thus, HTTP proxy services can improve Web browsing performance. IP proxy services typically include the ability to present a single IP address to the Internet on behalf of all hosts on a private network. IP proxy services enable private IP addresses to be used on the private network, and IP proxy services protect the internal network-addressing scheme from malicious users on the Internet.
Where does the CPU cache there memory?
L1 cache is cache memory that resides on a central processing unit (CPU).
L2 cache is cache memory that resides on a system board near the CPU. Cache memory is a small amount of memory that is very fast and interfaces with the slower RAM on a system board to help increase the rate at which data flows between RAM and the CPU.
What are the type of of Firewalls can you install?
For the Network+ exam, you must understand the following firewall types:
Host-based − This firewall is installed on a specific host and only protects the host on which it is installed. This is the best solution if you need to protect laptops or desktop computers from external threats. An external threat is a threat that originates external to your organization, and these can be manmade or environmental.
Network-based − This firewall is installed on the network and protects all devices that are on the network that it controls.
Application aware/context aware − This firewall is designed to manage application and Web 2.0 traffic. This type allows fine-tuning the rules rather than just configuring allow or deny rules.
Small office/home office firewall − This firewall is easier to configure than most enterprise firewalls and often only involves a software component that you install on a network host.
Unified Threat Management (UTM) − This device bundles multiple security functions into a single physical or logical device. Features included could be IPS, IDS, anti-virus, anti-malware, anti-spam, NAT, and other functions.
You have been hired as a network administrator for a large corporation. This network includes a large number of switches that must be identically configured. In the past, this information has been configured manually. You want to automatically propagate the VLAN information to all switches on the LAN. What should you use? (Choose 2)
A) VTP
B) link aggregation
C) STP
D) 802.1q
To automatically propagate VLAN information to all switches on the LAN, you should use VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP), which is also referred to as 802.1q. VTP configuration will prevent the VLAN information from having to be manually configured on all of the switches. VTP allows two switches to share VLAN information. One of the VLANs is called a native VLAN, also referred to a default VLAN. Frames belonging to the native VLAN are sent unaltered over the trunk with no tags. However, to distinguish other VLANs from one another, the remaining VLANs are tagged.
What types of STP are available?
There are two types of STP: spanning tree (802.1d) and rapid spanning tree (802.1w). 802.1d is an older standard that was designed when a minute or more of lost connectivity was considered acceptable downtime.
In Layer 3 switching, switching now competes with routed solutions where protocols such as Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) and Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) provide an alternate path in less time.
A layer 3 switch is the best option when you need to re-route multicast and unicast communication caused by a disruption of service when a network is failing redundancy at the main distribution frame (MDF).
You have been asked to implement a wireless network in a shared office building in a signal-rich environment. A wireless scan of the environment on your target floor shows you that the 5 GHz frequencies are not widely used in that building. Which of the following 802.11 Wi-Fi networking technologies should you choose in this scenario? (Choose 4)
A) 802.11b
B) 802.11g
C) 802.11n
D) 802.11ax
E) 802.11ac
F) 802.11a
802.11a, 802.11n, 802.11ac, and 802.11ax can use the 5 GHz frequencies for wireless communications. 802.11a and 802.11ac do not work at the 2.4 GHz frequency, while 802.11n and 802.11ax can transmit on either the 2.4 or 5 GHz bands.
The benefit of the higher frequency, especially for newer standards (where a through n fall in chronological order, and ac and ax after that), is higher throughput (especially when using wider channels and additional antennas). The disadvantage of the higher frequency, especially for older standards (802.11a and 802.11n), is reduced transmission/reception range, particularly indoors where walls and other solid or metallic barriers can interfere with or impede communications. Overall, 802.11ac or 802.11ax would be your best choice for a new network.
You have been hired as a network security consultant. The company that hires you has had multiple incidents where their wireless network has been breached by hackers. You find out that they have a RADIUS authentication server that they use for the corporate VPN. You decide to recommend using RADIUS authentication for the wireless network. Which WPA version should you suggest?
A) WPA
B) WPA-Enterprise
C) WPA2
D) WPA-PSK
WPA-Enterprise requires the use of a RADIUS authentication server. WPA-Enterprise is intended for large networks. It is also referred to a WPA-802.1x.None of the other options is correct. WPA2 is more secure than WPA. WPA-Pre-shared Key (WPA-PSK), also known as WPA-Personal, is for use in small home or office networks.
Which of the following network devices would be MOST likely found within an office building setting?
A) Industrial Control Systems (ICS)
B) SCADA systems
C) HVAC systems
D) Smart speakers
HVAC systems can be found in almost all settings due to their universal usage. HVAC systems are designed to handle the heating, ventilation, and air conditioning within a building. HVAC systems can be found in data centers, industrial buildings, residential buildings, and commercial buildings. With HVAC systems, it is important to understand that they can be vulnerable to cyberattacks as many of these systems are automated and not designed with cybersecurity in mind. Routinely monitoring and managing these systems is critical whenever designing a new network.
What does ICS function do?
ICS is a general term that encompasses several types of control systems that are designed in help manage and control industrial processes. These control systems can vary in size from a few modular panel systems to larger interconnected and interactive control systems with thousands of field connections. These systems are most likely to be found in an industrial setting. While they can be deployed in an office building, they are much less likely to be found there. ICS can interface with most HVAC systems, but not all HVAC systems will be deployed as part of an ICS.
What does SCADA function do?
SCADA systems are comprised of computers, networked data communications, and graphical user interfaces for high-level supervision of various network machines and processes. These systems can also cover various sensors and other logic controllers. These systems would most likely be found within a production facility, in a data center, or in an industrial plant and may include HVAC systems. They are much less likely than an HVAC system to be found in an office building.
Host A wants to communicate with Host B as shown in the following network exhibit:
Which three statements are true? (Choose three. Each answer is part of the solution.
A)The switch will forward the frame to the router.
B) Host A will send an ARP request for the router’s MAC address.
C) Host A will send a frame with the destination MAC address of Host B.
D) The switch will forward the frame to Host B.
E)Host A will send a frame with the destination MAC address of the router.
F) Host A will send an ARP request for Host B’s MAC address.
Host A will send out an ARP request for the MAC address of Host B. Host A will then send a data frame to the switch with a destination MAC address of Host B. Finally, the switch will forward the frame to Host B.
Host A and Host B are connected to the same subnet, 192.168.1.32 /27, and are thus within the same VLAN. For this reason, traffic between the two hosts does not need to be sent to their default gateway to be routed. Hosts are able to ARP and build unicast frames for hosts on the same subnet. The switch will receive the frame and forward it to the appropriate host based on a MAC address table lookup. The router is not involved in this scenario.
Host A will not send an ARP request for the router’s MAC address because routing is not required between hosts on the same subnet.
Host A will not send a frame with the destination MAC address of the router because routing is not required between hosts on the same subnet.
The switch will not forward the frame to the router because routing is not required between hosts on the same subnet.
You want to enable port authentication on your network switches. On which setting is port authentication based?
A) IP address
B) port number
C) MAC address
D) protocol
Port authentication on your network switches is based on the switch’s MAC address. If the switch is not specifically configured with a MAC address, the MAC address communication is not allowed through the switch port.
For the Network+ exam, you also need to understand managed versus unmanaged switches. Managed switches give you more control over your traffic and offer advanced features to control that traffic. An unmanaged switch simply allows Ethernet devices to communicate with one another. They are shipped with a fixed configuration and do not allow any changes to this configuration.
Management has asked you to ensure that any traffic through the external firewall is allowed as long as it is the result of a previous connection. Which type of firewall performs this assessment when it first encounters traffic?
A) circuit-level proxy firewall
B) packet-filtering firewall
C) application-level proxy firewall
D) stateful firewall
When traffic is encountered, a stateful firewall first examines a packet to see if it is the result of a previous connection. Information about previous connections is maintained in the state table.
You can configure the IDS to perform stateful packet matching and monitor for suspicious network activity. This is referred to as stateful inspection. An IDS cannot perform authentication and encryption for a VPN and cannot block traffic based on the application or port used.
With a stateful firewall, a packet is allowed if it is a response to a previous connection. If the state table holds no information about the packet, the packet is compared to the access control list (ACL). Depending on the ACL, the packet will be forwarded to the appropriate host or dropped completely.
Stateful firewalls can be used to track connectionless protocols, such as the User Datagram Protocol (UDP), because they examine more than the packet header.
Stateless firewalls watch network traffic and control packets based on source and destination addresses or other static values. They are not aware of traffic patterns. A stateless firewall uses simple rules that either allow or deny the traffic.
Where does the packet filtering firewalls sit in the OSI model?
Packet-filtering firewalls function at the Network layer of the OSI model. This type of firewall filters traffic based on rules defined by the administrator.
Where does the Circuit-Level firewalls sit in the OSI model?
Circuit-level firewalls function at the Session layer of the OSI model.
You are installing a known good NIC in a computer, and a spark jumps from your hand to the NIC. You install the NIC and discover that the NIC no longer operates correctly. What has most likely caused the NIC to malfunction?
A) RFI
B) EMI
C) ESD
D) a power sag
Of the choices listed, an electrostatic discharge (ESD) has most likely caused the network interface card (NIC) to malfunction. ESD occurs when static electricity jumps from an object with a higher electrical charge to an object with a lower electrical charge. You can build up static electricity in your body by walking across a carpet. This static electricity can then be discharged in the form of ESD into the circuits on a microchip, which can destroy such circuits. NICs are expansion cards that contain microchips that ESD can destroy. You should take measures to prevent ESD before you handle the expansion cards in a computer. For example, you can wear an anti-static wrist strap, or you can discharge the static electricity in your body by touching a grounded object such as a computer case before you touch a circuit board. Companies should make employees aware of electrical safety if personnel may be required for perform work that could result in electric shock, such as computer repair. Proper grounding techniques should be covered as part of personnel training.
Which metric is used by the Routing Information Protocol (RIP) Version 2 protocol to determine the network path?
A) convergence
B) hop count
C) bandwidth
D) delay
Both Versions 1 and 2 of RIP use hop count as the primary metric to determine the most desirable network path. A metric is a variable value assigned to routes and is a mechanism used by routers to choose the best path when there are multiple routes to the same destination. Each router traversed by a packet from the source to the destination constitutes one hop. The lower the hop count, the higher the preference given to that path. Using RIP, the hop count is limited to 15 hops. Any router beyond this number of hops is marked as unreachable.
What are Rip v1/RIP v2 and IGRP considered as on the routing protocol?
RIP v1, RIP v2, and IGRP are considered distance vector protocols. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a link-state protocol. EIGRP is a balanced hybrid routing protocol, also referred to as an advanced distance vector protocol.
You have been hired as a new network administrator for your company. In your first week, you discover a device that uses a security policy to filter and examine packets coming into a network to determine whether to forward the packet to its destination. This device is not depicted on the company’s network layout diagram. Which device is this?
A) hub
B) switch
C) firewall
D) router
A firewall examines the packets coming into a network based on a security policy to determine whether to forward the packet to its destination based on a security policy.
What types switch port security techniques can you use to monitor packet traffic in the network?
DHCP snooping − a security feature configured on switches that acts like a firewall between untrusted hosts and trusted DHCP servers.
ARP inspection − a security feature on switches that validates ARP packets in a network. It determines the packet validity by performing an IP-to-MAC address binding inspection stored in a trusted database before forwarding the packet to the appropriate destination. All ARP packets with invalid IP-to-MAC address bindings that fail the inspection will be dropped.
MAC address filtering − a security feature configured on switches that will allow or deny traffic based on the MAC address from which the communication comes.
VLAN assignments − Virtual LANs (VLANs) are assigned to individual switch ports. Devices on the same switch can then be assigned to separate VLANs so that their traffic is isolated.
Network segmentation − By assigning ports to different VLANs you provide network segmentation. Traffic meant for the same VLAN will only cross the ports in that VLAN. Because the traffic is isolated based on VLAN, it provides better security.
A suburban office location for your company is located next door to a regional airport, where a US government regional weather radar system is also housed. You are tasked with setting up a wireless 802.11ac network in that location. You must select a range of 80 MHz channels for that network to use. Furthermore, some of the devices on that network have 802.11n wireless interfaces. Which of the following channels should you use on your network? (Choose 2)
A) Channel 165
B) Channels 100-144
C) Channels 52-64
D) Channels 149-161
E) Channels 36-48
You should use channels 36-48 (80 MHz: 5.170-5.250 GHz) and 149-161 (80 MHz: 5.735-5.815 GHz) for indoor and outdoor Wi-Fi use. All 802.11n and 802.11ac client devices support use on these two bands.
Whenever using Wi-Fi channels, it is important to understand the different regulatory restrictions that may be placed for channels and channel bonding. Depending on your office location, the regulatory domains can change significantly. Therefore, it is important to identify what regulatory bodies you must comply with and ensure that your network is following the appropriate regulatory rulings.
What MHz does channel 52-64 operate in?
Channels 52-64 (80 MHz: 5.250-5.330 GHz) was historically reserved by the FCC for government weather radar systems, and DFS sensing is required for access points and client devices on this band. Only higher-end 802.11ac and older 802.11n client devices support use on this band.
What MHz does channel 100- 144 operate in?
Channels 100-144 (240 MHz: 5.49-5.730 GHz) is also reserved for government weather radar systems, and DFS sensing is required by access points and client devices. Channel 144 was added for Wi-Fi use in 2013, but does not work with older 802.11n client devices.
What MHz does channel 165 operate in?
Channel 165 (20 MHz: 5.825-5.845 MHz) is only 20 MHz wide and does not meet the channel width requirements.
For a new office space, you have been asked to choose a best cost solution for providing wireless network access for up to 60 employees. Your boss has informed you that there will be mix of 802.11n and 802.11ac devices in use. The maximum distance from the WAP to any user is 150 ft (~46M). Which kind of wireless access point should you buy?
A) 802.11ac
B) 802.11g
C) 802.11b
D) 802.11a
E) 802.11n
You should buy a 802.11n wireless access point (WAP). The critical factors at work here are compatibility and maximum distance (indoor range). 802.11ac is backward compatible with 802.11n, so 802.11ac and 802.11n devices may communicate with a WAP of either kind. The maximum indoor range for 802.11n is 70m or 230ft, while that for 802.11ac is 35m or 115 ft. Thus, only 802.11n will work.
What is the indoor range of 802.11a?
802.11a’s indoor range is identical to that for 802.11ac (35 m or 115 ft).
What is the indoor range of 802.11b?
Also its indoor range is identical to that for 802.11ac (35 m or 115 ft).
What is the indoor range of 802.11g?
Its indoor range is also too short at 38 m or 125 ft.
What is the indoor range of 802.11ac?
802.11ac would ordinarily be the best choice for deployment because of its ability to support multiple simultaneous users, wide data channels, and higher data rates. But the distance and cost limitations preclude its use (802.11ac’s indoor range is 35m or 115 ft).
You connect a home computer to a BRI ISDN line. The Bandwidth On Demand Interoperability Group (BONDING) protocol is used to combine the channels.
What is the maximum data transfer rate of the B channels?
A) 1.544 Mbps
B) 44.736 Mbps
C) 56 Kbps
D) 128 Kbps
Each B channel in a Basic Rate Interface (BRI) Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) connection can provide a maximum data transfer rate of 64 kilobits per second (Kbps). A BRI ISDN line provides a total of two bearer (B) channels, which can be combined by the bonding protocol to provide a total maximum data transfer rate of 128 Kbps. A BRI ISDN line also provides a single delta (D) channel, which is used to transfer connection control data. A BRI ISDN D channel operates at a data transfer rate of 16 Kbps. BRI ISDN is sometimes referred to as 2B+D ISDN because BRI ISDN provides two B channels and one D channel.
Your network contains several virtual LANs (VLANs). What is a benefit of using this technology?
A) It allows users on a LAN to communicate with remote networks.
B) It allows networks to be segmented logically without being physically rewired.
C) It allows users from different segments to communicate with each other.
D) It connects small networks together to form a single large network.
A virtual LAN (VLAN) is a networking technology that allows networks to be segmented logically without having to be physically rewired. In a traditional Ethernet network, you can replace all hubs with VLAN switches. This creates virtual network segments whose logical topology is independent of the physical topology of the wiring. Each station is assigned a VLAN identification number (ID), and stations with the same VLAN ID function as though they are all on the same physical network segment, no matter which physical switch they are connected to. Only devices with the same VLAN ID will receive broadcasts sent by a host. The assignment of VLAN IDs is done at the port level on the switches themselves. Moving a host to another department only requires the assignment of a different VLAN ID to the port on the switch to which the host is connected. No rewiring of cables is necessary.
The primary benefit of having a VLAN is that users can be grouped together according to their need for network communication, regardless of their actual physical locations. Membership in a VLAN segment, called a VLAN group, is controlled by the network management software, which allows users to be grouped according to their needs.
Why do we need to consider user/passwords management when it comes to switch management?
User/passwords − Limit the number of administrative users that are allowed to access the switches on your network. Always use complex passwords for those users. If there are any default accounts, such as administrator or guest, you should disable these accounts because attackers will often use these accounts to hack into your switch.
Why is AAA configuration important for switch management?
AAA configuration − AAA stands for Authentication, Authorization and Accounting. Authentication verifies the identity of the user. Authorization handles what the user is allowed to do and what resources he/she can access. Accounting audits the actions of the users. AAA and 802.1X are used for port-based authentication,
Why is console important in managing a switch?
Console − The console is used to manage a switch. You should use Secure Shell (SSH) or connect directly to the switch’s console port of the switch. An unmanaged switch is one that does not support the use of an IP address or a console port connection for management purposes.
Why is Virtual terminals important in managing a switch?
Virtual terminals − Virtual terminals are remote workstations that allow you to access the switch management tools and desktop interface. You should limit who has access to these terminals and place them only in secure locations. In addition, they should require authentication before accessing the management tools. If only one person can log in to the virtual terminal at a time, you should increase the number of virtual terminals available.
Why is OOB management in managing a switch?
In-band/Out-of-band management − When possible, you should use a separate network for management of a managed switch. This is referred to as out-of-band (OOB) management when the management traffic is kept on a separate network than the user traffic. In-band management occurs over the same network as user traffic. OOB management is more secure.
Which feature provides varying levels of network bandwidth based on the traffic type?
A)f ault tolerance
B) QoS
C)l oad balancing
D) traffic shaping
Quality of Service (QoS) provides varying levels of network bandwidth based on the traffic type. Each traffic type has its own queue. Each traffic type queue is given its own priority. Traffic types with a higher priority are preferred over lower priority traffic types.
QoS is used in a variety of networks, including VoIP, to ensure performance standards.
What is traffic shaping?
Traffic shaping is a specialized type of QoS where traffic from each host is monitored. When traffic from the host is too high, packets are then queued. Traffic shaping can also define how much bandwidth can be used by different protocols on the network. A key feature of QoS is control plane policing. This feature will allow users to configure a QoS filter to manage the traffic flow within a network’s control plane. This hardening technique helps to protect the network against reconnaissance and denial of service (DoS) attacks.
What is load balancing?
Load balancing divides requests among several servers or resources. This ensures that no single server or resource is overloaded.
What is fault tolerance?
Fault tolerance is the ability to respond to a single point of failure on a network. Fault tolerance on servers involves hardware RAID, UPS systems, power conditioning, backups, and clustering.
You have been asked to evaluate and choose a wireless access point for your workplace. Your solution will be used in a busy work area with a constant load of 10 or more active users all day long. You decide to implement a MU-MIMO device instead of a MIMO device. Which of the following reasons BEST states why you should do this?
A) MU-MIMO permits multiple devices to send/receive wireless data simultaneously, while MIMO does not.
B) MU-MIMO supports more users than MIMO.
C) MU-MIMO offers higher bandwidth and better throughput than MIMO.
D) There is no advantage to choosing MU-MIMO in this situation.
E)MU-MIMO is faster and more capable than MIMO.
Multiple user, multiple input, multiple output (MU-MIMO) permits multiple devices to send/receive wireless data simultaneously. This decreases the wait time when seeking wireless communications. Regular MIMO is more properly designated as SU-MIMO, where SU stands for single user. It supports multiple inputs and outputs, but can only service a single device at a time.
While MU-MIMO often offers higher bandwidth and better throughput, this would not explain why MU-MIMO makes more sense than MIMO in a busy area where numbers of users are constantly active at the same time.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of MU-MIMO?
MU-MIMO does offer advantages over MIMO.
While MU-MIMO often supports more users than MIMO, this would not explain why MU-MIMO makes more sense than MIMO in a busy area where numbers of users are constantly active at the same time.
Indeed, MU-MIMO is faster and more capable than MIMO. But again, this would not explain why MU-MIMO makes more sense than MIMO in a busy area where numbers of users are constantly active at the same time.
network administrator wants the network to accept an MTU value above 1,500. Which of the following should he configure?
A) Virtual router
B) Jumbo frame
C) UTM appliance
D) FCoE
Jumbo frames should be used by a network administrator so that the network can accept a maximum transmission unit (MTU) greater than 1,500. It can be used on a network that supports at least 1 Gbs, and the MTU size can be up to 9000 bytes. To take advantage of this feature, all nodes must be configured to accept jumbo frames at the same MTU rate. Jumbo frames improve network performance.
What does FCoE used for?
Fiber Channel over Ethernet (FCoE), as the name implies, deploys Fiber Channel frames in Ethernet networks. By encapsulating the frames, Fiber Channel can utilize 10Gb Ethernet.
What is a UTM used for?
A Unified Threat Management (UTM) appliance would be the best device to provide multiple security functions in a central location. UTM appliances incorporate multiple security and performance functions in one device. Some of those services can include load balancing, email security, URL filtration, wireless security and more.
You are setting up your company’s VoIP infrastructure. One remote office location has audio problems when placing or receiving calls. At times, speech quality is poor, or there is a noticeable and distinct echo for call audio. In troubleshooting a possible system configuration issue, which of the following possibilities do you want to eliminate first?
A) Echo cancellation has been misconfigured or has not been applied.
B)Compression mode setting differs between caller and receiver devices.
C) Check to make sure system updates have been applied.
D) H.323 protocol support has not been selected.
E) The call terminates on an analog endpoint.
You should first determine whether the call terminates on an analog endpoint. Dealing with audio quality issues on Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is an occasional necessity. But before digging into the usual troubleshooting routine, it is essential to establish if the problem call or connection terminates on VoIP equipment on both sides. If one end of a call terminates on an analog endpoint, occasional audio problems are inevitable.
Non-VoIP equipment cannot provide routine compression, echo cancellation, and sound quality enhancements. When a call terminates on an analog endpoint, this is really nothing to troubleshoot (aside from replacing the analog endpoint). So that possibility should be eliminated first before troubleshooting commences.
What is H.323 used for?
The H.323 protocol is the most widely used protocol for packet voice communications. Its selection versus other voice protocols, such as SIP, does not significantly affect call quality and echo one way or other.
