U2: T20 - CONDUCT OF BUSINESS REQUIREMENTS I Flashcards
For how long must records be retained for the following types of business? You will have to think back to the information you were given in Topic 14.
a) Pension transfers/opt‐outs and free‐standing additional voluntary contributions (AVCs).
b) Life policies, pension contracts and MiFID business.
c) All other products.
a) Indefinitely.
b) Five years.
c) Threeyears.
Refer back to Topic 14 for further information.
Which of the three categories of investor identified in COBS is provided with the highest level of regulatory protection?
Retail clients are assumed to have least expertise in relation to financial services and consequently require more support from the adviser. Dealings with retail clients are more highly regulated than those with eligible counterparties or professional clients.
If a client intends to purchase an investment product on an ‘execution‐only’ basis, then:
a) no recommendation is provided.
b) no charges will be payable.
c) they can only use an independent adviser.
d) they will have to complete all the paperwork themselves.
a) No recommendation is provided.
A restricted adviser is one who:
a) can only make recommendations based on the products of a single provider.
b) has not passed all of the relevant exams to enable them to give independent advice.
c) does not meet the FCA criteria to be considered ‘independent’.
d) can only give basic advice on stakeholder products.
C) A restricted adviser is one who does not meet the FCA criteria to be considered ‘independent’.
A firm is keen to develop its mortgage business and has acquired a list of potential new customers from a marketing company. It plans to call the listed individuals in the evenings and at weekends.
In what respects would this plan breach COBS rules on financial promotions?
As the individuals are not existing customers, contacting them by telephone would constitute cold calling, which is not permitted in relation to mortgage contracts. Additionally, cold calls may only be made at an ‘appropriate time of day’ – evenings (to 9.00pm) and Saturdays would be permissible but not Sundays.
Which of the following reflects the FCA’s rules on adviser charging?
a) Advisers may minimise the upfront cost of their services to clients by charging in instalments over a number of years.
b) Advisers’ charges must be based on hourly fees.
c) Advisers have discretion to determine their charging structures but they must pay due regard to the best interests of the client.
d) It is accepted that it is not possible to provide an estimate in advance of chargeable hours because of the potential complexity of some transactions.
c) Advisers have discretion to determine their charging structures but they must pay due regard to the best interests of the client.
When an adviser transacts designated investment business for a client, the basis or amount of the charges would normally be disclosed in which document?
a) The key features document.
b) The statutory cancellation notice.
c) The suitability report.
d) The client agreement letter.
d) The client agreement letter.
For existing clients, a services and costs disclosure document (SCDD) (or the equivalent used by a particular firm) must be provided every time an adviser carries out a new transaction for them.
True or false?
False.
Where several transactions are carried out for an existing client, a services and costs disclosure document (SCDD) or equivalent need only be provided if any of the information previously provided is different.
An adviser must issue a key features or key information document and illustration prior to a sale being concluded for all of the following products, except:
a) gilt‐edged securities.
b) life assurance.
c) stakeholder pensions.
d) unit trusts.
A) Gilt‐edged securities. Key features or key information documents must only be provided in relation to packaged products, and gilt‐edged securities are a direct investment rather than a packaged product.
How long is the cooling‐off period for pension policies?
a) 30 days from the date when the contract begins or from the date on which the client receives contractual terms, if this is later.
b) 14 days from the date when the contract begins or from the date on which the client receives contractual terms if this is later.
c) 14 days from the date when the cancellation notice is issued.
d) 30 days from the date when the cancellation notice is issued.
A) 30 days from the date when the contract begins or from the date on which the client receives contractual terms, if this is later.
An adviser would not be required to prepare a suitability report in respect of a recommendation for a:
a) personal pension.
b) life insurance product.
c) mortgage.
d) unit trust.
C) Suitability reports are not required for mortgages, although many lenders do issue them.
Jane has cancelled a unit trust within the cancellation period but received less back than she invested.
Why is this?
a) A withdrawal charge has been applied to her plan.
b) She invested a lump sum into a unit‐linked plan.
c) A surrender charge has been applied to her plan.
d) She invested into a regular premium unit‐linked plan.
B) She invested a lump sum into a unit‐linked plan. The value of the investment fell between the date of her original investment and her cancelling the bond.
A governments, central banks and financial institutions authorised by an EEA state – are which type of counterparty?
A) Retail Clients
B) Eligible Counterparties
C) Professional clients
B) Eligible Counterparties
This category includes governments, central banks and financial institutions authorised by an EEA state – the latter including firms such as banks, insurance companies, investment firms and collective investment funds.
Tier the following counterparts in terms of level of required protection?
1) Retail Clients
2) Professional Clients
3) Eligible Counterparties
3, 2, 1
For an execution‐only transaction, the adviser’s duty of care to fully explain the nature of the transaction and risks involved does not apply.
True or false
True