Trigger - LE and male genitalia Flashcards

1
Q

How do you prep an abscess

A

Clean overlying skin w povidone and drape in steril fashion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the high risk features for endocarditis? how would this change your plan of care if you were treating a patient for an abscess?

A
  • prosthetic heart valves or prosthetic material
  • hx of previous endocarditis
  • unrepaired cyanotic CHD
  • repaired CHD w prosthetic material
  • repaired CHD w residual defects
  • Cardiac transplant recipients w valve regurg

give IV clinda or vanc 30-60 min prior to I&D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

where do you measure for extremity swelling related to a DVT?

A

10cm below the tibial tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A large proximal DVT that is white/pale

A

phlegmasia Alba dolens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A large proximal DVT that is dusky blue

A

Phlegmasia cerulea dolens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the risks for MRSA

A
  • recent hospitalization, surgery, or hemodialysis
  • HIV infection, drug use, or prior ABX
  • incarceration, military
  • sharing sports equiptment, needles or razors.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When do you use POCUS with a cutaneous abscess

A

to differentiate a edep abscess from cellulitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

For I&D of a drainage you should…
1. use a no. () or () scalpel blade
2. incise over the area of ()
3. incise deep enough to ()
4. express pus w ()
5. insert () into the abscess to ()
6. +/- irrigation of wound w saline

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

For LARGE abscesses what is the management

A

Send for drainage in the OR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which areas are considered areas of cosmetic concern and should be sent for management by a specialist

A
  • palms
  • soles
  • nasolabial folds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do you treat a mild, moderate and severe abscess

just say all of em, i know you can

A
  • mild - I&D alone! no abx
  • Moderate/severe - bactrim, clinda, doxy
  • Severe + immunocomp or sepsis - IV (Vanc/linezolid/clinda) + (piptaz or meropenem)

only add pip/taz or meropenem if signs of sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What do the Wells test scores for DVT

A

0 or less = D dimer
1-2 = high sensitivity d dimer
3+ = US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is D dimer

A

Plasma D-dimer is a product of cloth breakdown, released upon degradation of polymerized crosslinked fibrin. Elevated plasma dimer levels indicate that coagulation has been activated, fiber clot has formed, and clot degradation by plasma has occurred.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the DOACs

A
  • dabigatran (pradaxa)
  • rivaroxaban (Xarelto)
  • Apixaban (Eliquis
  • Edoxaban (Lixiana, Savaysa)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which DVT types require a surgery consult

A
  • Proximal DVT without limb ischemia w high bleeding risk
  • proximal DVT w ischemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When do you use Serial proximal compressive US Qweekly for 2-4 weeks in a DVT

A

a DVT with distal vein involvement only that has a moderate/low risk of bleeding and is asymptomatic

17
Q

what are the 4 criteria for amission w a DVT

A
  1. proximal DVT
  2. Concurrent symptomatic PE
  3. High bleeding risk
  4. comorbid conditions requiring hospitalization
18
Q

What are the 6 P’s for?

A

Acute arterial occlusion

19
Q

Which arteries correlate with which parts of the leg for arterial limb ischemia

A
20
Q

what ABI is suggestive of severe disease

A

<0.4

21
Q

chart for rutherford classification of ischemia

A
22
Q

immediate consultation with vascular surgery about revascularization prior to additional diagnostic imaging is the management for which rutherford stage

A

IIb

23
Q

How do you tx acute limb ischemia

A

UFH

24
Q

Does pyuria on a UA rule out testicular torsion

A

no

25
Q

pain localized to the upper pole of the testis

A

testicular appendage torsion

26
Q

Mumps is the MC viral cause of

A

orchitis

27
Q
  1. men who are <35 and DONT practice anal intercourse - MC etiology is ()
  2. Men >35 or those who do practice anal intercourse - MC etiology is ()

epididymitis!!!!

A
  1. gonorrhea and chlamydia
  2. urinary pathogens like E. coli and Klebsiella
28
Q

testes in this disease hangs LOWER than normal in the scrotum

A

epididymitis

29
Q

How do you treat epididymitis in:
1. not gono/chlam
2. + gono/chlam
3. anal intercourse exposure

A
  1. Levo or bactrim
  2. rocephin + doxy/azithro
  3. Rocephin + Levo
30
Q

what is the treatment for a patient with an intrascrotal abscess

A
  • immediate urology consult for surgical drainage
  • broad ABX (zosyn) until cultures are back
31
Q

CT w IV contrast shows air along fascial planes and deep tissue involvement

A

fournier’s gangrene

32
Q

Tx for fournier’s gangrene

A
  • zosyn
  • fluids, opioids, NPO, septic work up.
  • Urgent urology consult
33
Q

What are the 3 options of tx for paraphimosis in order

A
  1. try anesthesia and manual reduction
  2. small punctures to release fluid (22-25g needle)
  3. dorsal slit
34
Q

sickle cell disease is the MCC of () occuring in children

A

ischemic priapism

This disease is MC in ADULTS!!!! if in peds, sickle cell.

35
Q

MCC of non-ischemic/high flow priapism

A

traumatic fistula

36
Q

Prior to attempting removal of an object on an entrapped penis, what must you do

A

corporal aspiration

37
Q

what size foley for urethral strictures

A
  • 14 or 16 Fr straight
  • if unsuccessful use 12 Fr Coude w lube
38
Q

what is a positive post void residual bladder scan volume

A

> 50-150cc