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102 chap 10 questions intelligence > Treatment of Psychological Disorders chp 16 exam 3 > Flashcards

Treatment of Psychological Disorders chp 16 exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of treatment of therapy?

a) Interpersonal support for psychological challenges.
b) Systematic procedures designed to change abnormal behavior into normal behavior.
c) Advice from friends or family members.
d) Connecting with others through social media.

A

b) Systematic procedures designed to change abnormal behavior into normal behavior.

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2
Q

Which of the following is NOT a key feature of therapy according to Jerome Frank?

a) A trained healer whose expertise is socially accepted.
b) The use of words, acts, and rituals between healer and sufferer.
c) A specific diet and exercise regimen.
d) A series of contacts aimed at changing the sufferer’s emotional state and behavior.

A

c) A specific diet and exercise regimen.

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3
Q

What distinguishes therapy from other factors that may contribute to recovery, such as advice or exercise?

a) Therapy is performed exclusively by friends and family members.
b) Therapy is systematic and designed to alter abnormal behavior.
c) Therapy relies solely on physical and chemical procedures.
d) Therapy does not involve interactions between individuals.

A

b) Therapy is systematic and designed to alter abnormal behavior.

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4
Q

Which statement describes biological therapy?

a) A method involving systematic communication between healer and client.
b) Use of physical and chemical procedures to address psychological difficulties.
c) The inclusion of advice and social support in treatment plans.
d) Focusing on enhancing interpersonal relationships to resolve issues.

A

b) Use of physical and chemical procedures to address psychological difficulties.

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5
Q

What is the role of clinical researchers?

a) To diagnose and treat psychological disorders directly.
b) To systematically gather information to describe, explain, and predict psychological disorders.
c) To replace clinicians in therapy sessions.
d) To exclusively study Indigenous healing practices.

A

b) To systematically gather information to describe, explain, and predict psychological disorders.

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6
Q

What is one source of disagreement among therapists, according to Carl Rogers?

a) The methods used to collect clinical data.
b) The goals, outcomes, and measures of success or failure in therapy.
c) The integration of Indigenous Elders in treatment teams.
d) The necessity of physical treatments in psychotherapy.

A

b) The goals, outcomes, and measures of success or failure in therapy.

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7
Q

How do therapists’ views on abnormality influence their terminology?

a) All therapists use the term “patient” regardless of their perspective.
b) Those viewing abnormality as an illness use “patient,” while those seeing it as a problem in living use “client.”
c) Therapists avoid using terms like “patient” or “client” altogether.
d) Indigenous therapists use “client,” while others use “patient.”

A

b) Those viewing abnormality as an illness use “patient,” while those seeing it as a problem in living use “client.”

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8
Q

What is the first essential feature of all therapies?

a) A trained therapist who uses biological treatments.
b) A sufferer who seeks help.
c) A healer who is socially accepted.
d) Regular meetings between therapists and other clinicians.

A

b) A sufferer who seeks help.

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9
Q

Who qualifies as the healer in the essential features of therapy?

a) A random individual offering advice.
b) A trained, socially accepted expert whose expertise is recognized by the sufferer and their social group.
c) Any friend or family member of the sufferer.
d) An untrained individual offering alternative treatments.

A

b) A trained, socially accepted expert whose expertise is recognized by the sufferer and their social group.

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10
Q

What is the primary goal of the series of contacts between the healer and the sufferer in therapy?

a) To establish a social relationship.
b) To monitor progress for clinical research.
c) To change attitudes, emotional states, or behaviors.
d) To connect the sufferer with other social groups.

A

c) To change attitudes, emotional states, or behaviors.

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11
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the essential features of all therapies?
a) A sufferer who seeks help.
b) A healer who is socially accepted.
c) Regular use of medication in treatment.
d) A series of contacts aimed at achieving change in the sufferer.

A

c) Regular use of medication in treatment.

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12
Q

Why must the healer’s expertise be socially accepted?
a) To ensure societal approval for their methods.
b) To gain recognition from clinical researchers.
c) So that the sufferer and their social group trust the process.
d) To provide an explanation for abnormal behaviors.

A

c) So that the sufferer and their social group trust the process.

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13
Q

What is psychotherapy?
a) The use of medication to treat physical symptoms of psychological disorders.
b) A treatment system where a client and therapist use words and acts to overcome psychological difficulties.
c) A surgical procedure to address psychological difficulties.
d) The use of group therapy to solve interpersonal problems.

A

b) A treatment system where a client and therapist use words and acts to overcome psychological difficulties.

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14
Q

What does biological therapy involve?
a) The use of group discussions to address emotional issues.
b) The application of words and actions in therapy.
c) Physical and chemical procedures to help people overcome psychological difficulties.
d) Training in behavioral techniques to cope with stress.

A

c) Physical and chemical procedures to help people overcome psychological difficulties.

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15
Q

Which group used to outnumber the other in seeking therapy by four to one?
a) Men.
b) Adolescents.
c) Women.
d) Older adults.

A

c) Women.

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16
Q

How has men’s willingness to seek therapy changed?
a) Men are less willing to enter therapy than before.
b) Men are equally likely as women to seek therapy now.
c) Men are more willing to enter therapy than before.
d) Men still avoid therapy as much as in the past.

A

c) Men are more willing to enter therapy than before.

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17
Q

Which group tends to seek treatment for psychological problems less often?
a) Adolescents compared to adults.
b) Members of ethnic minority groups compared to the majority culture.
c) Men compared to women.
d) Older adults compared to younger adults.

A

b) Members of ethnic minority groups compared to the majority culture.

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18
Q

What impact has the reduction in stigma had on mental illness?
a) Increased awareness but no change in treatment-seeking behavior.
b) A significant reduction in stigma has encouraged people to acknowledge their mental health issues.
c) It has resulted in a complete eradication of stigma around mental health.
d) Stigma no longer plays a role in decisions about mental health acknowledgment.

A

b) A significant reduction in stigma has encouraged people to acknowledge their mental health issues.

making people less ashamed or embarrassed about something

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19
Q

Which of the following professionals conduct therapy?
a) Psychologists and school teachers.
b) Psychiatrists, counsellors, clinical social workers, and psychologists.
c) Only clinical social workers and psychiatrists.
d) Psychologists and medical doctors only.

A

b) Psychiatrists, counsellors, clinical social workers, and psychologists.

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20
Q

Where is mental health treatment typically conducted?
a) Private homes and recreational centers only.
b) Hospitals, correctional facilities, schools, and private clinics.
c) Online platforms exclusively.
d) Only in hospitals and schools.

A

b) Hospitals, correctional facilities, schools, and private clinics.

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21
Q

What is the difference between inpatient and outpatient treatment?
a) Inpatient treatment occurs at home, while outpatient occurs in a facility.
b) Inpatients receive care in a facility, while outpatients attend sessions and live at home.
c) Inpatient treatment is voluntary, while outpatient treatment is mandatory.
d) Outpatients receive more intensive treatment than inpatients.

A

b) Inpatients receive care in a facility, while outpatients attend sessions and live at home.

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22
Q

What does the Canadian Mental Health Act outline?
a) Guidelines for treating patients with physical illnesses.
b) Patient rights and conditions for involuntary admittance to hospitals.
c) Conditions under which therapy can be offered by non-professionals.
d) Procedures for transitioning from inpatient to outpatient care.

A

b) Patient rights and conditions for involuntary admittance to hospitals.

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23
Q

Which of the following is a common reason people enter therapy, according to surveys?

A) Financial problems
B) Problems with marriage, family, or job relationships
C) Physical health issues
D) For legal or court-mandated reasons

A

B) Problems with marriage, family, or job relationships

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24
Q

What percentage of Canadians is estimated to experience a mental illness in their lifetime, according to the CMHA?

A) 20%
B) 1%
C) 50%
D) 76.9%

A

A) 20%

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25
Q

Which group of people is less likely to seek mental health treatment, according to the text?

A) Women
B) Men
C) Members of ethnic minority groups
D) High-income individuals

A

C) Members of ethnic minority groups

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26
Q

What was a key barrier to seeking mental health therapy identified in the text?

A) High cost of treatment
B) Lack of awareness about mental health issues
C) Stigma associated with seeking help
D) Lack of trained professionals

A

C) Stigma associated with seeking help

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27
Q

Which of the following factors contributes to the under-use of therapy, as mentioned in the text?

A) Increased awareness of mental health
B) The social stigma associated with therapy
C) Lack of mental health professionals
D) Higher availability of government funding

A

B) The social stigma associated with therapy

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28
Q

Which of the following therapy approaches primarily focuses on improving structural or biochemical functioning?
A) Psychodynamic Approaches
B) Cognitive-Behavioural Approaches
C) Biological Approaches
D) Humanistic and Existential Approaches

A

C) Biological Approaches

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29
Q

What is a key strength of the cognitive-behavioural approach?
A) It relies on subjective therapist interpretation.
B) It has considerable research support for its application to several disorders.
C) It focuses on uncovering unconscious conflicts.
D) It primarily uses psychotropic drugs.

A

B) It has considerable research support for its application to several disorders.

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30
Q

Which therapy technique is commonly associated with psychodynamic approaches?
A) Rational-emotive therapy
B) Free association
C) Operant conditioning
D) Desensitization

A

B) Free association

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31
Q

What is a major limitation of the biological approaches to therapy?
A) They neglect the biological aspects of the client’s problem.
B) They may neglect non-biological problems of clients.
C) They are not effective for all psychological disorders.
D) They are only effective for minor disorders.

A

B) They may neglect non-biological problems of clients.

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32
Q

Which therapy approach is designed to help clients develop more functional behaviours and includes techniques like operant conditioning?
A) Psychodynamic Approaches
B) Behavioural Approaches
C) Cognitive-Behavioural Approaches
D) Humanistic and Existential Approaches

A

B) Behavioural Approaches

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33
Q

What is the goal of humanistic and existential approaches to therapy?
A) To change harmful thinking patterns to more useful ones.
B) To provide support for honest self-appraisal, self-acceptance, and self-actualization.
C) To identify and resolve unconscious conflicts.
D) To eliminate undesirable behaviours through conditioning.

A

) To provide support for honest self-appraisal, self-acceptance, and self-actualization.

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34
Q

Which of the following is a potential weakness of cognitive-behavioural approaches?
A) They ignore the effects of dysfunctional thinking.
B) They may neglect unobservable cognitive processes.
C) They overemphasize therapist interpretation.
D) They rely too heavily on psychotropic drugs.

A

B) They may neglect unobservable cognitive processes.

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35
Q

Which therapy technique is commonly used in behavioural approaches to treat phobias?
A) Free association
B) Desensitization
C) Cognitive restructuring
D) Existential analysis

A

B) Desensitization
A method to reduce fear by slowly exposing someone to what they are afraid of while ensuring they stay relaxed.

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36
Q

What trends have changed who tends to receive treatment for psychological disorders?
a) Only individuals with severe psychological disorders now seek treatment.
b) People from a broader demographic, including those with less severe issues, now seek treatment.
c) Treatment is only sought by individuals from high-income backgrounds.
d) The stigma surrounding mental health has led to a decrease in people seeking treatment.

A

b) People from a broader demographic, including those with less severe issues, now seek treatment.

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37
Q

What are the three key features common to all forms of therapy?
a) The use of medication, group sessions, and relaxation techniques.
b) A therapeutic relationship, a structured approach, and a focus on treatment goals.
c) Individual counseling, community support, and socialization activities.
d) Cognitive-behavioral techniques, long-term duration, and spiritual guidance.

A

b) A therapeutic relationship, a structured approach, and a focus on treatment goals.

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38
Q

Which of the following is the most common biological approach used in treating psychological disorders?
a) Psychosurgery
b) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
c) Drug therapy
d) Hypnotherapy

A

c) Drug therapy

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39
Q

What is the primary function of psychotropic drugs in the treatment of psychological disorders?
a) To cure psychological disorders completely
b) To alter brain chemistry and reduce symptoms
c) To replace psychotherapy
d) To provide long-term behavioral conditioning

A

b) To alter brain chemistry and reduce symptoms

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40
Q

Which of the following drug groups is commonly used to reduce confusion, hallucinations, and delusions in people with psychotic disorders?
a) Antidepressants
b) Mood stabilizers
c) Antipsychotics
d) Anxiolytics

A

c) Antipsychotics

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41
Q

What is the primary use of antidepressant drugs?
a) To stabilize moods in people with bipolar disorder
b) To reduce anxiety and tension
c) To improve the mood of people who are depressed
d) To correct distorted thinking in psychotic disorders

A

c) To improve the mood of people who are depressed

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42
Q

Mood stabilizing drugs are primarily used to treat which condition?
a) Schizophrenia
b) Generalized anxiety disorder
c) Bipolar disorder
d) Major depressive disorder

A

c) Bipolar disorder

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43
Q

Which drug group helps to reduce anxiety and tension in individuals with anxiety disorders?
a) Antipsychotics
b) Stimulants
c) Anxiolytics
d) Antidepressants

A

c) Anxiolytics

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44
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common group of psychotropic drugs used to treat psychological disorders?
a) Antidepressants
b) Mood stabilizers
c) Anxiolytics
d) Hallucinogens

A

d) Hallucinogens

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45
Q

Since the 1950s, the field of psychopharmacology has significantly impacted the treatment of psychological disorders by focusing on the effects of drugs on the:
a) Endocrine system
b) Brain and behavior
c) Digestive system
d) Immune system

A

b) Brain and behavior

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46
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action for antipsychotic drugs?
A. Increasing serotonin levels
B. Blocking dopamine receptors
C. Enhancing glutamate activity
D. Reducing norepinephrine release

A

B. Blocking dopamine receptors

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47
Q

Which symptoms do classic antipsychotic drugs primarily target?
A. Negative symptoms such as apathy
B. Positive symptoms such as hallucinations
C. Symptoms of anxiety
D. Symptoms of depression

A

B. Positive symptoms such as hallucinations

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48
Q

What is a common side effect of first-generation antipsychotics?
A. Weight gain
B. Tardive dyskinesia
C. Drowsiness
D. Decreased white blood cells

A

B. Tardive dyskinesia
causes involuntary, repetitive movements, often of the face, tongue, or limbs. These movements can include things like lip smacking, grimacing, or uncontrollable blinking.

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49
Q

Which second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic drug is associated with monitoring white blood cell counts due to its side effects?
A. Quetiapine
B. Clozapine
C. Risperidone
D. Olanzapine

A

B. Clozapine

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50
Q

What is a significant advantage of second-generation antipsychotic drugs?
A. Cure for schizophrenia
B. Relief for negative symptoms
C. Elimination of all side effects
D. Reduced movement disorders

A

B. Relief for negative symptoms

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51
Q

What disorder is caused by long-term use of classic antipsychotics and involves repetitive, tic-like movements?
A. Parkinson’s disease
B. Tardive dyskinesia
C. Schizophrenia
D. Anxiety disorder

A

B. Tardive dyskinesia

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52
Q

Why do many patients discontinue antipsychotic medications?
A. They are fully cured
B. Lack of accessibility
C. Unpleasant side effects
D. Lack of effectiveness

A

C. Unpleasant side effects

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53
Q

What unintended consequence followed the deinstitutionalization of psychiatric patients?
A. Growth in community health services
B. Increased homelessness
C. Reduction in psychiatric diagnoses
D. Increased funding for mental health care

A

B. Increased homelessness

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54
Q

Which neurotransmitter systems, besides dopamine, are implicated in schizophrenia treatment?
A. Norepinephrine and acetylcholine
B. Glutamate and serotonin
C. GABA and norepinephrine
D. Acetylcholine and serotonin

A

B. Glutamate and serotonin

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55
Q

What movement disorder can first-generation antipsychotics induce?
A. Tardive dyskinesia
B. Parkinson’s disease-like symptoms
C. Akathisia
D. Epileptic seizures

A

B. Parkinson’s disease-like symptoms

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56
Q

Which of the following is an example of a first-generation antipsychotic?
A. Clozapine
B. Quetiapine
C. Chlorpromazine
D. Olanzapine

A

C. Chlorpromazine

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57
Q

Which of the following is an example of a second-generation antipsychotic?
A. Chlorpromazine
B. Clozapine
C. Haloperidol
D. Thioridazine

A

B. Clozapine

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58
Q

Which side effect is common with second-generation antipsychotics?
A. Increased dopamine levels
B. Seizures
C. Weight gain and drowsiness
D. Severe respiratory distress

A

C. Weight gain and drowsiness

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59
Q

What is a notable off-label use of some second-generation antipsychotics?
A. Treating addiction disorders
B. Treating mood, insomnia, and anxiety
C. Treating obsessive-compulsive disorder
D. Treating eating disorders

A

B. Treating mood, insomnia, and anxiety

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60
Q

What percentage of Canadians use antidepressants?
A. 11%
B. 9%
C. 7%
D. 13%

A

B. 9%

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61
Q

What conditions, besides depression, are SSRIs used to treat?
A. PTSD and schizophrenia
B. Anxiety disorders, OCD, and panic disorder
C. Bipolar disorder and dementia
D. Insomnia and ADHD

A

B. Anxiety disorders, OCD, and panic disorder

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62
Q

How do antidepressants primarily work?
A. By increasing dopamine levels only
B. By targeting serotonin and norepinephrine pathways
C. By blocking acetylcholine receptors
D. By reducing GABA levels

A

B. By targeting serotonin and norepinephrine pathways

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63
Q

What group tends to benefit most from antidepressants?
A. Those with mild depression
B. Those with moderate depression
C. Those with severe depression
D. All equally benefit

A

C. Those with severe depression

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64
Q

What was the main function of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)?
A. To block reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine
B. To increase dopamine only
C. To reduce serotonin levels
D. To block acetylcholine receptors

A

A. To block reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine

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65
Q

What was a major drawback of monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)?
A. Increased risk of addiction
B. Severe dietary restrictions
C. Short-term effectiveness
D. High cost of production

A

B. Severe dietary restrictions

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66
Q

Which antidepressant type works by blocking the reabsorption of serotonin?
A. MAOIs
B. TCAs
C. SSRIs
D. SNRIs

A

C. SSRIs

MAOIs (A) prevent the breakdown of neurotransmitters like serotonin but don’t specifically block reuptake.

TCAs (B) block the reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine, not just serotonin.

SNRIs (D) also block serotonin reuptake but affect norepinephrine reuptake as well.
Thus, SSRIs are the most specific to serotonin reuptake.

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67
Q

Which second-generation antidepressant class also blocks norepinephrine reuptake?
A. SSRIs
B. SNRIs
C. MAOIs
D. TCAs

A

B. SNRIs

When I say SNRIs are more selective compared to TCAs, I mean that SNRIs specifically target serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake, while TCAs target serotonin, norepinephrine, and other systems, like acetylcholine and histamine. This difference affects how they work and their side effects.

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68
Q

What additional benefit do SSRIs have over TCAs?
A. Faster effects in one week
B. Fewer side effects and better compliance
C. Higher serotonin reuptake rates
D. No dietary restrictions

A

B. Fewer side effects and better compliance

SSRIs are more selective in their action, primarily affecting serotonin levels without interfering with other neurotransmitters like norepinephrine, acetylcholine, and histamine, which are impacted by TCAs.

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69
Q

What drug is considered for treatment-resistant mood disorders and suicidal patients due to its rapid effect?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Ketamine
C. Duloxetine
D. Amitriptyline

A

B. Ketamine

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70
Q

What is a key concern about ketamine’s use as an antidepressant?
A. Short-term effectiveness only
B. Risk of neurotoxicity and addiction
C. Lack of FDA approval
D. Poor compliance rates

A

B. Risk of neurotoxicity and addiction

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71
Q

What risk is associated with antidepressants, especially SSRIs, in children and adolescents?
A. Increased risk of cardiovascular disease
B. Heightened risk of suicide in early treatment
C. Significant weight gain
D. Dependency and withdrawal symptoms

A

B. Heightened risk of suicide in early treatment

This is why black box warnings are included on antidepressant medications, alerting healthcare providers and patients to monitor closely for any signs of worsening depression or suicidal behavior when starting these medications or adjusting doses.

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72
Q

Which class of antidepressants is most commonly used for smoking cessation and ADHD?
A. SSRIs
B. NDRIs
C. SNRIs
D. TCAs

A

B. NDRIs

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73
Q

Which antidepressant class is commonly used off-label for insomnia?
A. SSRIs
B. Atypical antidepressants
C. SNRIs
D. MAOIs

A

B. Atypical antidepressants

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74
Q

What regulatory warning is associated with antidepressants in patients under 18?
A. Blue label
B. Black box warning
C. Red box caution
D. FDA experimental label

A

B. Black box warning

75
Q

What is the primary difference between SNRIs and SSRIs?
A. SSRIs block norepinephrine, while SNRIs block serotonin
B. SNRIs block both serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake
C. SSRIs are more effective than SNRIs
D. SSRIs are used off-label for insomnia only

A

B. SNRIs block both serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake

76
Q

What is the off-label use of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)?
A. Treating ADHD
B. Managing nerve pain and insomnia
C. Treating OCD
D. Addressing panic disorders

A

B. Managing nerve pain and insomnia

77
Q

Which antidepressant was historically avoided due to its dietary restrictions?
A. Tricyclics
B. MAOIs
C. SSRIs
D. NDRIs

A

B. MAOIs

78
Q

Which second-generation antidepressant class is associated with a higher risk of diabetes and cardiovascular issues?
A. MAOIs
B. SSRIs
C. SNRIs
D. TCAs

A

C. SNRIs

79
Q

What is a “black box warning”?
A. An FDA approval label
B. The strictest warning for life-threatening side effects
C. A caution for addiction potential
D. A warning for non-prescribed drugs

A

B. The strictest warning for life-threatening side effects

80
Q

What condition are mood stabilizers primarily used to treat?
A. Schizophrenia
B. Bipolar Disorder I or II
C. Major Depressive Disorder
D. Generalized Anxiety Disorder

A

B. Bipolar Disorder I or II

81
Q

What is the primary function of mood stabilizers in treating bipolar disorder?
A. To stabilize manic episodes only
B. To stabilize mood swings, preventing both mania and depression
C. To enhance serotonin levels exclusively
D. To cure bipolar disorder permanently

A

B. To stabilize mood swings, preventing both mania and depression

82
Q

Lithium, a commonly used mood stabilizer, is chemically classified as:
A. A salt
B. An anticonvulsant
C. An antipsychotic
D. An enzyme inhibitor

A

A. A salt

83
Q

Which of the following is a common side effect of lithium?
A. Increased appetite
B. Thyroid and kidney disease
C. Enhanced memory function
D. Loss of sleep

A

B. Thyroid and kidney disease

84
Q

What alternative medication to lithium is commonly used as a mood stabilizer?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Valproate
C. Risperidone
D. Lamotrigine

A

B. Valproate

85
Q

The mechanism of valproate in stabilizing mood likely involves:
A. Increasing serotonin reuptake
B. Blocking histone deacetylases
C. Enhancing dopamine pathways
D. Modulating acetylcholine receptors

A

B. Blocking histone deacetylases

86
Q

What is one advantage of valproate over lithium?
A. Fewer severe side effects
B. Faster mood stabilization
C. Higher adherence rates by patients
D. No dietary restrictions

A

C. Higher adherence rates by patients

87
Q

Which group is more likely to be non-compliant with mood stabilizer treatment protocols?
A. Older adults
B. Women
C. Men
D. Adolescents

A

C. Men

88
Q

Mood stabilizers were originally developed to treat what condition?
A. ADHD
B. Epilepsy
C. Schizophrenia
D. PTSD

A

B. Epilepsy

89
Q

What is a common reason for patients’ reluctance to take mood stabilizers?
A. High cost of medication
B. Limited availability of drugs
C. Unpleasant side effects
D. Inconsistent diagnosis of bipolar disorder

A

C. Unpleasant side effects

90
Q

Which of the following is an example of a mood stabilizer besides lithium?
A. Risperidone
B. Lamotrigine
C. Fluoxetine
D. Sertraline

A

B. Lamotrigine

91
Q

According to research, what influences men’s likelihood of being less compliant with their treatment compared to women?
A. Lack of trust in medical professionals
B. Higher prevalence of severe side effects
C. Cultural and social factors
D. Medication protocols for mood stabilizers

A

C. Cultural and social factors

92
Q

What is the primary goal of mood stabilizers for individuals with bipolar disorder?
A. Complete remission of symptoms
B. Preventing relapse or recurrence of mania or depression
C. Reducing dopamine activity
D. Improving social functioning

A

B. Preventing relapse or recurrence of mania or depression

93
Q

What are common side effects of benzodiazepines (antianxiety drugs)?
A) Loss of appetite and insomnia
B) Drowsiness and poor muscle control
C) Increased blood pressure and heart rate
D) Memory loss and renal failure

A

B) Drowsiness and poor muscle control

94
Q

What type of drug is preferred for the long-term treatment of anxiety disorders?
A) Antipsychotics
B) Benzodiazepines
C) Stimulants
D) Antidepressants

A

D) Antidepressants

95
Q

What are common side effects of stimulants like methylphenidate?
A) Increased appetite and drowsiness
B) Insomnia, weight loss, and headache
C) Cardiac arrhythmia and thyroid issues
D) Memory loss and bladder control issues

A

B) Insomnia, weight loss, and headache

96
Q

What is a “rebound effect” commonly associated with stimulants?
A) Rapid reduction in symptoms
B) Worsening of symptoms after the drug wears off
C) Increased drowsiness and fatigue
D) Long-term tolerance development

A

B) Worsening of symptoms after the drug wears off

97
Q

What is a notable characteristic of ketamine in mental health treatment?
A) It is used to treat anxiety disorders long-term
B) It is an FDA-approved treatment for treatment-resistant depression
C) It is primarily used for schizophrenia
D) It has no side effects

A

B) It is an FDA-approved treatment for treatment-resistant depression

98
Q

What is a major issue with benzodiazepines?
A) They take weeks to start working
B) They cause long-term memory improvement
C) They can lead to tolerance, dependence, and withdrawal symptoms
D) They completely eliminate anxiety causes

A

C) They can lead to tolerance, dependence, and withdrawal symptoms

99
Q

What type of therapy involves daily exposure to bright, artificial light?
A) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
B) Dialectical behavior therapy
C) Light therapy
D) Behavioral therapy

A

C) Light therapy

100
Q

What is a major concern associated with electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?
A) Long-term brain damage
B) Inability to reduce depressive symptoms
C) Short-term memory problems
D) Increased depressive symptoms

A

C) Short-term memory problems

101
Q

Which therapy method is most effective for treating specific phobias?
A) Behavioral therapy
B) Dialectical behavior therapy
C) Drug therapy
D) Light therapy

A

A) Behavioral therapy

102
Q

What does the placebo effect refer to in drug trials?
A) The effect of drugs acting faster in some patients
B) Improvements due to patient expectations rather than the drug itself
C) A method used to determine specific drug side effects
D) The ability of sugar pills to act as active drugs

A

B) Improvements due to patient expectations rather than the drug itself

103
Q

What mental health condition is ketamine FDA-approved to treat?
A) Bipolar disorder
B) Schizophrenia
C) Treatment-resistant depression
D) Generalized anxiety disorder

A

C) Treatment-resistant depression

104
Q

What is a key benefit of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?
A) It reduces depressive symptoms in 70% of patients
B) It has no side effects
C) It cures bipolar disorder permanently
D) It enhances long-term memory

A

A) It reduces depressive symptoms in 70% of patients

105
Q

What therapy is designed for borderline personality disorder?
A) Light therapy
B) Behavioral therapy
C) Dialectical behavior therapy
D) Electroconvulsive therapy

A

C) Dialectical behavior therapy

106
Q

What symptom is drug therapy most effective at treating in schizophrenia?
A) Anxiety
B) Positive symptoms, such as hallucinations
C) Memory problems
D) Motor symptoms

A

B) Positive symptoms, such as hallucinations

107
Q

What is a placebo?
A) An active substance with mild effects
B) A fake drug with no active ingredients
C) A sugar pill that treats anxiety
D) A double-blind study tool

A

B) A fake drug with no active ingredients

108
Q

What research method tests the effectiveness of a drug versus a placebo?
A) Single-blind study
B) Observational study
C) Double-blind procedure
D) Case study

A

C) Double-blind procedure

109
Q

What combination of treatments often has the strongest effect on mental illness?
A) Therapy and placebo
B) Drug therapy and psychotherapy
C) Light therapy and antidepressants
D) Stimulants and antipsychotics

A

B) Drug therapy and psychotherapy

110
Q

Why is it essential to assess the efficacy of a drug in studies?
A) To measure its commercial success
B) To determine whether patients respond to the drug or the idea of it
C) To identify if all side effects are positive
D) To calculate how quickly the drug is sold

A

B) To determine whether patients respond to the drug or the idea of it

111
Q

Which approach to therapy is effective for bipolar disorder?
A) Behavioral therapy
B) Dialectical behavior therapy
C) Drug therapy
D) Light therapy

A

C) Drug therapy

112
Q

What is a strength of biological treatments for psychological disorders?
A) They are the only option for treatment
B) They always have no side effects
C) They bring relief when other approaches fail
D) They completely replace the need for psychotherapy

A

C) They bring relief when other approaches fa

113
Q

Which area of the cerebral cortex often shows reduced activity in people who are depressed?
A) Parietal cortex
B) Prefrontal cortex
C) Temporal cortex
D) Occipital cortex

A

B) Prefrontal cortex

114
Q

What does it mean to say that a particular drug is a “serotonin reuptake inhibitor”?
A) It increases serotonin production in the brain.
B) It prevents serotonin from being broken down.
C) It blocks the reabsorption of serotonin, making more serotonin available in the brain.
D) It replaces serotonin with dopamine in brain activity

A

C) It blocks the reabsorption of serotonin, making more serotonin available in the brain.

115
Q

What is the role of the hippocampus in the recovery of someone taking antidepressant medication to relieve depression?
A) It enhances serotonin production directly.
B) It plays a role in regulating stress responses and emotional memory.
C) It blocks the effects of stress hormones entirely.
D) It ensures rapid improvement within days of treatment.

A

B) It plays a role in regulating stress responses and emotional memory.

116
Q

What was Freud’s concept of transference?
A) The client’s reaction to a situation in therapy.
B) The therapist’s emotional reaction to the client.
C) The client’s emotional reaction displaced onto the therapist based on past experiences.
D) The therapist’s behavior toward the client based on cultural norms.

A

C) The client’s emotional reaction displaced onto the therapist based on past experiences

117
Q

What is the key focus of behavioral therapy in Wave 1?
A) Changing emotions to influence behavior.
B) Changing behavior to influence thoughts and emotions.
C) Using mindfulness techniques for emotional regulation.
D) Integrating cognitive and behavioral techniques.

A

B) Changing behavior to influence thoughts and emotions.

118
Q

Which of the following is a behavioral therapy technique for anxiety?
A) Cognitive restructuring
B) Socratic questioning
C) Systematic desensitization
D) Mindfulness-based therapy

A

C) Systematic desensitization

behavioral therapy technique commonly used to treat anxiety, especially in cases of specific phobias.

119
Q

What is a key principle of Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT)?
A) Emphasizing the need for medication alongside therapy.
B) Accepting and integrating opposite truths.
C) Identifying and solving unsolvable problems.
D) Focusing solely on emotional regulation.

A

B) Accepting and integrating opposite truths.

For example, a person might need to accept their current emotional state (e.g., anger or sadness) while also recognizing the importance of changing behaviors that contribute to emotional distress.

120
Q

What is the “Dodo bird verdict” in therapy?
A) Therapy is only effective for specific issues.
B) All therapies are equally effective on average.
C) The success of therapy depends entirely on the therapist’s skill.
D) Only CBT and DBT are considered effective therapies.

A

B) All therapies are equally effective on average.

121
Q

Which therapy is best for depression that is resistant to treatment?
A) Behavioral Activation Therapy
B) Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)
C) Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT)
D) Interpersonal Psychotherapy

A

C) Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT)

Dialectical means balancing two opposite ideas, like acceptance and change

122
Q

What was the goal of the CBT revolution in therapy?
A) To integrate mindfulness and acceptance.
B) To emphasize the unconscious mind.
C) To make therapy more objective and measurable.
D) To focus solely on emotional regulation.

A

C) To make therapy more objective and measurable.

To make therapy more clear and measurable.

123
Q

What does “behavioral activation” encourage individuals to do?
A) Avoid activities they no longer enjoy.
B) Continue engaging in enjoyable activities, even if it doesn’t feel the same initially.
C) Focus on cognitive restructuring before starting new activities.
D) Wait for motivation to return before starting activities.

A

B) Continue engaging in enjoyable activities, even if it doesn’t feel the same initially.

124
Q

What does unconditional positive regard mean in humanistic therapy?
A) Offering conditional support to encourage client growth.
B) Highlighting the importance of client-therapist fit.
C) Providing acceptance and support without judgment.
D) Relying on specific therapy techniques for success.

A

C) Providing acceptance and support without judgment.

125
Q

What is implanted under the skin of the chest during vagus nerve stimulation?
A) An electromagnetic coil.
B) A pulse generator.
C) A pacemaker for the brain.
D) A wire connected to the brain stem.

A

B) A pulse generator

126
Q

What is the main target area of transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)?
A) The vagus nerve.
B) The prefrontal cortex.
C) The brainstem.
D) The chest and abdomen.

A

B) The prefrontal cortex.

127
Q

What device is used in TMS to send currents into the brain?
A) A pacemaker.
B) A pulse generator.
C) An electromagnetic coil.
D) A transcranial electrode.

A

C) An electromagnetic coil.

128
Q

How long does TMS treatment typically last to alleviate depression?
A) One week
B) Two to four weeks
C) One month
D) Three months

A

B) Two to four weeks

129
Q

What is a primary goal of TMS in the treatment of depression?
A) To increase neuron activity in underactive regions of the prefrontal cortex.
B) To replace vagus nerve stimulation as a primary treatment.
C) To monitor brain activity with electrical currents.
D) To stimulate the abdominal nerves.

A

A) To increase neuron activity in underactive regions of the prefrontal cortex.

130
Q

What is the primary goal of modern psychosurgery?

a) To improve intelligence
b) To alleviate psychological disorders through brain surgery
c) To remove tumors from the brain
d) To enhance memory

A

b) To alleviate psychological disorders through brain surgery

131
Q

What is the current state of deep brain stimulation as a treatment?

a) It is widely used for all psychological disorders
b) It is still considered experimental and used infrequently
c) It has no side effects
d) It is the first-line treatment for depression

A

b) It is still considered experimental and used infrequently

132
Q

What condition is deep brain stimulation most commonly used to treat?

a) Bipolar disorder
b) Severe depression, Parkinson’s disease, and epilepsy
c) Anxiety disorders
d) Schizophrenia

A

b) Severe depression, Parkinson’s disease, and epilepsy

133
Q

Which of the following is a significant limitation of biological treatments like deep brain stimulation?

a) They provide a permanent cure without side effects
b) They can produce significant side effects
c) They are always effective
d) They are the only effective treatment for all psychological disorders

A

b) They can produce significant side effects

134
Q

What has research shown about the relationship between behavior and brain chemistry?

a) Behavior has no effect on brain chemistry
b) Brain chemistry responds to changes in behavior, and vice versa
c) Behavior only responds to brain chemistry, not the other way around
d) Brain chemistry can only be changed through medicatio

A

b) Brain chemistry responds to changes in behavior, and vice versa

135
Q

What did a study find about people with depression who responded to psychotherapy?

a) They showed abnormal brain patterns similar to non-depressed individuals
b) They continued to show abnormal brain patterns
c) Their brain chemistry was unaffected by therapy
d) Their depression worsened after therapy

A

a) They showed brain responses similar to non-depressed individuals

136
Q

What are the three main categories of biological treatments?

a) Psychotherapy, medication, and psychosurgery
b) Medication, deep brain stimulation, and psychosurgery
c) Cognitive-behavioral therapy, medication, and psychosurgery
d) Medication, physical therapy, and electroconvulsive therapy

A

b) Medication, deep brain stimulation, and psychosurgery

137
Q

What are some new methods of direct brain stimulation, and how are they used?

a) Electroconvulsive therapy, used for treating schizophrenia
b) Deep brain stimulation, used for treating severe depression, Parkinson’s disease, and epilepsy
c) Transcranial magnetic stimulation, used for mood disorders
d) Lobotomy, used for severe anxiety

A

b) Deep brain stimulation, used for treating severe depression, Parkinson’s disease, and epilepsy

138
Q

Which of the following is a goal of psychodynamic therapy?
a) To uncover past traumatic events
b) To treat symptoms with medication
c) To focus on the present only
d) To avoid discussing emotional issues

A

a) To uncover past traumatic events

139
Q

In psychodynamic therapy, free association refers to:
a) The therapist leading the discussion
b) Clients freely discussing thoughts, even if they seem unimportant
c) Clients avoiding difficult topics
d) A process of therapist-led interpretation

A

b) Clients freely discussing thoughts, even if they seem unimportant

140
Q

Which of the following best describes ‘transference’ in psychodynamic therapy?
a) Clients avoiding certain topics
b) Clients acting toward the therapist as they do toward important figures in their lives
c) The therapist sharing personal feelings with the client
d) A process of uncovering unconscious thoughts

A

b) Clients acting toward the therapist as they do toward important figures in their lives

141
Q

What is the purpose of catharsis in psychodynamic therapy?
a) To re-experience past feelings to resolve internal conflicts
b) To immediately resolve the client’s problems
c) To avoid difficult emotional topics
d) To stop the free association process

A

a) To re-experience past feelings to resolve internal conflicts

Catharsis means letting out strong emotions, like crying or talking about feelings, which helps you feel better.

142
Q

Which of the following techniques is used to uncover unconscious thoughts in psychodynamic therapy?
a) Medication
b) Free association
c) Cognitive restructuring
d) Behavioral reinforcement

A

b) Free association

143
Q

What is a key feature of relational psychoanalytic therapy?
a) Therapists remain neutral and distant
b) Therapists disclose personal reactions and form more equal relationships with clients
c) Therapists avoid discussing past events
d) Therapy is focused on present behaviors only

A

b) Therapists share personal reactions and form more equal relationships with clients

144
Q

In psychodynamic therapy, ‘working through’ refers to:
a) The process of re-experiencing past emotions
b) The therapist interpreting resistance
c) The client and therapist revisiting issues across multiple sessions to gain deeper insights
d) Immediate resolution of all conflicts

A

c) The client and therapist revisiting issues across multiple sessions to gain deeper insights

145
Q

Which of the following is the primary aim of psychodynamic therapy?
a) To use medication to treat psychological disorders
b) To uncover and resolve unconscious conflicts from past traumas
c) To change current behavior through conditioning
d) To give clients direct advice on life decisions

A

b) To uncover and resolve unconscious conflicts from past traumas

146
Q
  1. Which of the following best contrasts three types of psychodynamic therapy?

a) Classic Psychoanalysis, focusing on the therapeutic relationship, is the shortest form of therapy.

b) Short-Term Psychodynamic Therapy (STPD) focuses on present-day issues with a time-limited approach, while Classic Psychoanalysis involves long-term treatment, and Relational Psychoanalytic Therapy emphasizes the therapeutic relationship.

c) Classic Psychoanalysis focuses on modern techniques, Relational Psychoanalytic Therapy focuses on behavior change, and STPD has an unlimited duration.

d) Short-Term Psychodynamic Therapy (STPD) is the most passive therapy, while Classic Psychoanalysis and Relational Psychoanalytic Therapy are equally focused on past life events.

A

b) Short-Term Psychodynamic Therapy (STPD) focuses on present-day issues with a time-limited approach, while Classic Psychoanalysis involves long-term treatment, and Relational Psychoanalytic Therapy emphasizes the therapeutic relationship.

147
Q

Which of the following contrasts the three types of psychodynamic therapy?

a) Classic Psychoanalysis focuses on exploring childhood conflicts, Short-Term Psychodynamic Therapy (STPD) is brief and addresses a specific issue, and Relational Psychoanalytic Therapy emphasizes the therapeutic relationship.

b) Classic Psychoanalysis and STPD focus on behavior modification, while Relational Psychoanalytic Therapy is purely client-centered.

c) STPD focuses on past traumas, Relational Psychoanalytic Therapy targets physical symptoms, and Classic Psychoanalysis avoids discussing emotions.

d) All three types of psychodynamic therapy focus solely on dream interpretation to resolve unconscious conflicts.

A

a) 1.Classic Psychoanalysis focuses on exploring childhood conflicts,

2.Short-Term Psychodynamic Therapy (STPD) is brief and addresses a specific issue, and

3.Relational Psychoanalytic Therapy emphasizes the therapeutic relationship.

148
Q

What is the purpose of dream analysis in psychodynamic therapy?
a) To analyze unconscious desires and conflicts reflected in dreams
b) To understand a patient’s current behaviors and habits
c) To guide clients in future planning
d) To interpret repressed memories in daily conversations

A

a) To analyze unconscious desires and conflicts reflected in dreams

149
Q

Which psychodynamic technique involves the therapist’s interpretation of the client’s emotional response to them?
a) Transference
b) Free association
c) Countertransference
d) Insight therapy

A

c) Countertransference

So, transference is the client’s feelings toward the therapist, while countertransference is the therapist’s feelings toward the client.

150
Q

In psychodynamic therapy, what does “transference” refer to?
a) A therapist sharing their feelings with the client
b) A patient transferring unconscious feelings from one person onto the therapist
c) A technique to analyze dreams
d) A method for resolving cognitive dissonance

A

b) A patient transferring unconscious feelings from one person onto the therapist

151
Q

What is the primary goal of behavioral therapy?
a) To explore childhood conflicts and repressed emotions
b) To replace problem-causing behaviors with more adaptive ones
c) To improve self-awareness and personal insight
d) To develop a therapeutic relationship with the client

A

b) To replace problem-causing behaviors with more adaptive ones

152
Q

What type of therapy uses a step-by-step process to help individuals with phobias react calmly to feared objects or situations?
a) Aversion therapy
b) Cognitive restructuring
c) Systematic desensitization
d) Operant conditioning

A

c) Systematic desensitization

153
Q

In systematic desensitization, what is the purpose of constructing a fear hierarchy?
a) To identify underlying unconscious conflicts
b) To prioritize the client’s most traumatic experiences
c) To gradually expose the client to feared situations in increasing intensity
d) To replace negative thoughts with positive ones

A

Answer: c) To gradually expose the client to feared situations in increasing intensity

154
Q

What technique involves pairing a noxious stimulus, such as a nausea-inducing drug, with an undesirable behavior like excessive drinking?
a) Exposure therapy
b) Aversion therapy
c) Modeling therapy
d) Positive reinforcement

A

Answer: b) Aversion therapy

The goal is to reduce the undesirable behavior by associating it with something negative, discouraging the person from engaging in it.

155
Q

Which of the following is NOT a behavioral therapy technique?
a) Classical conditioning
b) Operant conditioning
c) Modeling
d) Psychoanalysis

A

Answer: d) Psychoanalysis

156
Q

Research suggests systematic desensitization is effective in treating which of the following?
a) Depression and anxiety disorders
b) Schizophrenia and bipolar disorder
c) Phobias, PTSD, and agoraphobia
d) Personality disorders

A

c) Phobias, PTSD, and agoraphobia

157
Q

Why are exposure-based therapies often more effective than placebo treatments?
a) They rely on cognitive restructuring rather than behavior modification.
b) They directly expose individuals to feared stimuli, allowing for desensitization.
c) They address unconscious conflicts related to the fear.
d) They focus solely on relaxation techniques without exposure.

A

b) They directly expose individuals to feared stimuli, allowing for desensitization.

158
Q

What is the main principle of operant conditioning treatments in therapy?
a) Encouraging unconscious behaviors through reinforcement.
b) Providing rewards for appropriate behaviors and withholding them for inappropriate behaviors.
c) Using punishment to eliminate all inappropriate behaviors.
d) Allowing patients to act freely without guidance.

A

b) Providing rewards for appropriate behaviors and withholding them for inappropriate behaviors.

159
Q

What is a token economy program?
a) A therapy where tokens replace privileges as punishments.
b) A therapy where tokens are given for inappropriate behaviors.
c) A therapy where participants receive tokens for desirable behaviors, which can be traded for rewards.
d) A therapy based on the removal of all privileges.

A

c) A therapy where participants receive tokens for desirable behaviors, which can be traded for rewards.

160
Q

Which group is most commonly treated using operant conditioning techniques?
a) Elderly individuals with memory loss.
b) Children with tantrums or individuals with autism or intellectual disabilities.
c) Adults with substance use disorders.
d) Patients recovering from surgery.

A

b) Children with tantrums or individuals with autism or intellectual disabilities

161
Q

For which of the following problems are behavioral therapies particularly effective?
a) Generalized anxiety disorder.
b) Resolving internalized conflicts.
c) Reducing specific fears and minimizing social deficits.
d) Addressing chronic depression without other interventions.

A

c) Reducing specific fears and minimizing social deficits.

162
Q

What is a key difference in second-wave cognitive-behavioural therapies?
a) They focus on eliminating dysfunctional thoughts entirely.
b) They help clients accept problematic thoughts rather than changing them.
c) They emphasize physical activity as a treatment method.
d) They focus exclusively on childhood experiences.

A

b) They help clients accept problematic thoughts rather than changing them

while the first wave sought to change problematic thoughts and behaviors, the second wave emphasizes acceptance and mindfulness regarding those thoughts.

163
Q

Mindfulness-based cognitive therapy primarily aims to:
a) Replace negative thoughts with positive ones.
b) Accept thoughts as events of the mind without judgment.
c) Analyze childhood experiences to identify traumas.
d) Develop assertiveness skills.

A

b) Accept thoughts as events of the mind without judgment.

164
Q

What therapeutic approach uses mindfulness meditation to address psychological problems?
a) Rational-emotive behavioural therapy.
b) Cognitive therapy.
c) Third-wave cognitive-behavioural therapies.
d) Exposure therapy.

A

c) Third-wave cognitive-behavioural therapies.

third-wave therapies go further by focusing on mindfulness, acceptance, psychological flexibility,

165
Q

What is a characteristic of third-wave cognitive-behavioural therapies?
a) They focus solely on behavioural changes.
b) They emphasize mindfulness, acceptance, and spirituality.
c) They reject earlier methods of CBT.
d) They use classical conditioning techniques exclusively.

A

b) They emphasize mindfulness, acceptance, and spirituality.

166
Q

What are the goals of second-wave cognitive-behavioural therapies?
a) To eliminate dysfunctional thoughts completely.
b) To help clients identify irrational beliefs and replace them.
c) To encourage clients to accept problematic thoughts as part of the mind’s activity.
d) To focus on past experiences that caused trauma

A

c) To encourage clients to accept problematic thoughts as part of the mind’s activity.

167
Q

What techniques are used in Gestalt therapy?
a) Cognitive restructuring and mindfulness
b) Dream analysis and free association
c) Role-playing, empty chair technique, and focusing on present experiences
d) Exposure therapy and systematic desensitization

A

c) Role-playing, empty chair technique, and focusing on present experiences

168
Q

What are the main goals of existential therapy?
a) To change maladaptive behaviors and thoughts
b) To help individuals gain insight into their unconscious mind
c) To help individuals find meaning, authenticity, and face life’s challenges
d) To reduce anxiety through relaxation techniques

A

c) To help individuals find meaning, authenticity, and face life’s challenges

169
Q

Describe primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention.

A

Primary prevention focuses on preventing mental health issues,

secondary prevention addresses existing problems,

tertiary prevention works to minimize the impact of long-term issues

170
Q

The behavioural therapy of systematic desensitization works primarily through the principle of:
a) extinction.
b) negative reinforcement.
c) positive reinforcement.
d) punishment.

A

a) extinction

171
Q

Which of the following theorists would be most likely to give clients homework assignments requiring them to observe and challenge their assumptions?
a) Beck
b) Ellis
c) Perls
d) Rogers

A

a) Beck

Beck is known for developing Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT), which focuses on identifying and challenging distorted or irrational thoughts (

172
Q

Which statement about the cognitive-behavioural approach to therapy is false?
a) It has been found to be highly effective.
b) It is difficult to determine whether irrational thoughts are a cause or an effect of maladaptive behaviour.
c) It is only applicable to the treatment of depression and has limited use for other conditions.
d) Research has consistently found that there is a link between maladaptive thoughts and maladaptive behaviour.

A

c) It is only applicable to the treatment of depression and has limited use for other conditions.

173
Q

The Gestalt approach to therapy was developed by:
a) Abraham Maslow.
b) Albert Ellis.
c) Carl Rogers.
d) Fritz Perls.

A

d) Fritz Perls.

174
Q

A school district launching a smoking awareness program to try to reduce the number of students who start smoking is an example of ____________ prevention.
a) educational
b) primary
c) secondary
d) tertiary

A

b) primary

175
Q

Recent research shows that electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) helps about ____________ percent of depressed patients who try it.

A

70

176
Q

One downside of ____________ medications used to treat disorders such as schizophrenia is that they can cause severe shaking and contractions of the face and body.

A

antipsychotic

177
Q

In psychodynamic therapy, dream interpretation involves examining both the ____________ content (the consciously remembered details) and the ____________ content (the symbolic meaning of those details).

A

manifest, latent

178
Q

Despite limited evidence of its effectiveness, the psychodynamic approach to therapy is practised by about ____________ percent of clinical psychologists.

A

25

179
Q

Pointing out the social deficits of clients, then role-playing more effective strategies in imaginary social situations, is an approach used in ____________ training.

A

social skills

180
Q

Beck’s approach to cognitive therapy is most commonly used to treat ____________.

A

depression

181
Q

In contrast to psychodynamic therapy approaches, humanistic and existential therapies usually emphasize ____________ experiences rather than conflicts from childhood.

A

current

182
Q

One reason why group therapies are helpful is because they encourage group ____________, or a sense of unity among group members.

A

cohesion

183
Q

Although all forms of therapy tend to help people, some approaches are better suited to particular problems than others. Phobias, for example, are most effectively treated with ____________ therapy.

A

behavioural

102 chap 10 questions intelligence (8 decks)

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