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Surgery > trauma > Flashcards

trauma Flashcards

1
Q

4 phases of initial assessment

A

primary survey, resuscitation, secondary surgery, and definitive care

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2
Q

ABCDE of primary survery

A

airway,breathing, circulation, disability (neuro: GCS), exposure (head to toe exam)

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3
Q

ways to open airway

A

chin lift, jaw thrust, oral airway, nasal airway, endotracheal tube, cricothyroidotomy

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4
Q

tx tension pneumothorax

A

vent the high intrapleural pressure w a catheter place in the 2nd rib space at midclavicular line or w a chest tube placed through an incision between the ribs

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5
Q

mc cause shock in trauma pt

A

hypovolemia from hemorrhage

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6
Q

survey to quickly determine the degree of neurologic disability

A

glasgow coma scale

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7
Q

glasgow coma scale

A

Eye opening: spontaneous (4), speech (3), pain (2), none (1)

motor response: obeys commands (6), localizes pain (5), withdraws to pain (4), decorticate posture/abdn flexion (3), decerebrate posture/abn extension (2), none/flaccid (1)

verbal response: oriented (5), confused (4), inappropriate words (3), incomp sounds (2), none (1)

best=15, worst=3

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8
Q

secondary survey

A

identify and tx additional injuries not uncovered during primary; PE, med hx, allergies, last meal, tetanus immunization status, meds; ng tube, urine cath, ekg, pulse ox

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9
Q

what is indicated if pt has gastric distension

A

can be from injury or from bag mask ventilation; need to decompress so place NG tube; orogastric route if pt is intubated, basilar skull fracture, extensive facial fractures

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10
Q

mc cause of trauma related mortality and leading cause of long term disability

A

head injury

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11
Q

cushing reflex

A

inc in systemic bp asoc w bradycardia and a slowed respiratory rate; caused by inc intracranial pressure

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12
Q

htn, bradycardia and a slow respiratory rate after severe traumatic brain injury indicates

A

cushing reflex

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13
Q

best initial eval of head injury

A

non contrast head ct

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14
Q

epidural hematoma

A

middle meningeal artery is lacerated, often by a fracture of the overlying bone. Blood collects between the bone and the dura mater. The dura is normally tightly adhered to the skull and as a result the collecting hematoma progressively separates the dura from the skull creating a lens-shaped or convex hematoma that can be seen on CT scan

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15
Q

s/sx epidural hematoma

A

brief loss of consciousness at time of injury followed by normal mental status that progressively deteriorates over time as hematoma expands

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16
Q

subdural hematoma

A

blood collects between the dura mater and the brain. In this injury, the hematoma follows the contour of the inner cranium and requires surgical drainage if of sufficient size. Typically, subdural hematomas appear concave or crescent shaped on CT scan

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17
Q

what osmotic diuretic effectively reduces brain swelling and lowers ICP

A

mannitol

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18
Q

mc site for cervical fracture or subluxation

A

c5 level

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19
Q

s/sx of tension pneumo

A

affected side if hyper resonant w diminished or absent breath sounds; trachea shifted to opposite side; hypotension; jugular venous distension

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20
Q

open pneumo

A

occurs w penetrating thoracic trauma when chest wall wound remains patent; allows lung to collapse completely and creates a sucking chest wound

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21
Q

tx open pneumo

A

place dressing over chest wound and secure it to the skin; creates a one way valve that allows egress of accumulated pleural gas during exhalation but prevents inflow from the atmosphere during inhalation; then a chest tube thoracostomy

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22
Q

cardiac tamponade

A

compression of the heart from accumulation of fluid or blood within the pericardial sac; ventricular filling is restricted; the increased pressure within the pericardial sac is transmitted to each cardiac chamber; results in equalization of the right atrial, right ventricular diastolic, pulmonary artery diastolic, pulmonary capillary wedge, left atrial, left ventricular diastolic, and intra-pericardial pressures.

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23
Q

mc cause of cardiac tamponade

A

stab wound to sternal region

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24
Q

s/sx cardiac tamponade

A

muffled heart sounds, jugular venous dissension, hypotension (Beck’s triad); Kussmaul’s sign (jug ben distension w inspiration) and pulsus paradoxes (drop SBP >10 during inspiration)

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25
Q

dx cardiac tamponade

A

bedside focused assessment w sonography in traume (FAST) which reveals pericardial effusion

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26
Q

tx cardiac tamponade

A

volume resuscitation, immediate surgical decompression to release tamponade, rapid underlying cardiac injury

may need to do pericardiocentesis

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27
Q

massive hemothorax

A

rapid loss of more than 1500 mL of blood into the pleural cavity; class III or greater hemorrhage into the pleural cavity; ongoing thoracic blood loss of >200/hr over 4-6hr

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28
Q

s/sx massive hemothorax

A

diminished breath sounds and dullness to percussion

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29
Q

tx massive hemothorax

A

tube thoracotomy for control of hemorrhage; may need blood transfusion

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30
Q

simple pneumothorax

A

gas enters the pleural space causing collapse of the ipsilater lung; gas from atmosphere in penetrating injury or from injury to lung parenchyma or tracheobronchial tree

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31
Q

s/sx simple pneumo

A

diminished breath sounds on affected side; hyper resonance to percusion

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32
Q

dx/tx of simple pneumo

A

cxr and tx by chest tube placement for reexpansion of the lung

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33
Q

hemothorax

A

blood or clots accumulate within pleural space; from pulmonary parenchyma, great vessels, mediastinal structures, or chest wall

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34
Q

s/sx hemothorax

A

dec breath sounds and dullness to percussion

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35
Q

dx/tx hemothorax

A

cxr; placement of large bore (36 french) chest tube to drain the pleural space; post procedure X-ray to confirm evacuation

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36
Q

diagnostic peritoneal lavage

A

surgical procedure used to identify an intraperitoneal injury; under local anesthesia, a peritoneal catheter is inserted into the peritoneal cavity through a small midline incision; a syringe is attached to the catheter and aspirated; if 10 mL blood is aspirated, the test result is positive; if

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37
Q

FAST

A

evaluates for free fluid in the abdomen or pericardium using US views of the right and left upper quadrants, heart, and pelvis

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38
Q

mc injuries of blunt trauma

A

spleen or liver

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39
Q

tx hypotensive victim of blunt abd trauma

A

vol resusc but doesn’t respond than rapid transfer to operative room for surgical correction of the cause of bleeding

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40
Q

tx penetrating trauma

A

if clear evidence of peritoneal traverse or hypotension then prompt exploratory lap since incidence of visceral injury is extremely high; if hemodyn stable then CT for more info lowering the risk of non therapeutic operative exploration

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41
Q

dx penetrating trauma to flank or back

A

triple contrast CT helps screen stable pts who may not need operative intervention

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42
Q

grades of blunt liver injuries (1 represented by small capsular hematomes or parenchymal lacerations to 6 hepatic avulsion)

A

1.Hematoma:Subcapsular, nonexpanding, 50% surface area or expanding; ruptured subcapsular hematoma with active bleeding; intraparenchymal hematoma >10 cm or expanding
Laceration:>3 cm parenchymal depth

4.Hematoma:Ruptured intraparenchymal hematoma with active bleeding
Laceration:Parenchymal disruption involving 25%–75% of hepatic lobe or 1–3 segments within a single lobe

  1. Laceration:Parenchymal disruption involving >75% of hepatic lobe or >3 segments within a single lobe.
    Vascular:Juxtahepatic venous injuries (i.e., retrohepatic vena cava/central major hepatic veins
  2. vascular: hepatic avulsion
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43
Q

dx of blunt liver injuries

A

ct

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44
Q

tx of ongoing bleeding liver injuries seen on ct

A

interventional radiology suite w selective angioembolization of bleeding hepatic arterial branches

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45
Q

tx higher grade liver injuries involving hepatic veins or retrohepatic vena cava

A

urgent or intervention and damage control because they can result in massive hemorrhage

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46
Q

frequently injured in blunt abd trauma esp deceleration injuries in adults or direct impact inkids

A

spleen

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47
Q

grading of splenic injury 1-5

A

1.Hematoma:Subcapsular, nonexpanding, 50% surface area or expanding; ruptured subcapsular hematoma with active bleeding; intraparenchymal hematoma >5 cm or expanding
Laceration:>3 cm parenchymal depth or involving trabecular vessels

4.Hematoma:Ruptured intraparenchymal hematoma with active bleeding
Laceration:Laceration Involving segmental or hilar vessels producing major devascularization (>25% of spleen)

5.Laceration:Completely shattered spleen
Vascular: Hilar vascular injury which devascularizes spleen

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48
Q

dx spleen injury

A

ct

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49
Q

tx spleen injury

A

low grade= observation and serial monitoring of hemoglobin and hematocrit

recurrent hemorrhage/peritonitis=lap

active bleeding/hypotension upon presentation=or

either total splenectomy or splenorrhaphy

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50
Q

mc cause of postsplenectomy bleeding

A

unligated short gastric vessel or surgical knot that slips after resuscitation and normalization of blood volume (minimized by greater curvature of stomach systolic pressure of 100)

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51
Q

tx hemodyn stable pt w IV contrast extravasation noted on CT

A

angioembolization of the bleeding splenic after branches

52
Q

splenectomy pt should receive what vaccines

A

pneumococcus and meningococcus

53
Q

injury of the pancreas from trauma

A

uncommon because of its location but can become transectioned from being compressed against the vertebral column

54
Q

tx transection pancreas

A

operative distal pancreatectomy

55
Q

dx pancreas injuries

A

ct and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)

56
Q

what does gastric injury frequently coexist with

A

diaphragmatic injury

57
Q

tx rupture of the diaphragm

A

interrupted or running permanent suture to minimize risk of recurrence or further tearing; make sure to avoid phrenic nerve

58
Q

why are left sided diaphragmatic injuries concerning

A

risk of dev of diaphragmatic hernia and visceral incarceration; commonly assoc w injuries of the stomach, colon, spleen, and small intestine

59
Q

tx blunt injury to kidney

A

rarely require operative intervention unless there is ureteral injury or calyces leak of urine

60
Q

tx of massive destruction or complex hilar injury of the kidney

A

nephrectomy

61
Q

tx penetrating injuries of kidney

A

self limiting unless renal artery or vein is involved

62
Q

who long should foley catheter drainage be maintained about kidney injury

A

7-10d or until hematuria resolves

63
Q

what should be suspected when ct shows hemoperitoneum but no liver or spleen injury

A

mesenteric tears w hemorrhage from arcade vessels can occur in deceleration injury

64
Q

tx small bowel and mesentery injury from penetrating trauma from knife or gunshot wound

A

one layer closure w absorbable or nonabsorbalbe suture; staple repair or resection w anastomosis

65
Q

tx of injury to colon that caused devascularization

A

resection w primary reanastomosis

66
Q

tx injuires to rectum below the peritoneal reflection

A

fecal diversion to avoid perineal sepsis and allow injury to heal

67
Q

pt w colonic trauma and other injuries or profound shock may be considered candidates for

A

temporary diverting colostomy due to inc risk for anastomotic breakdown

68
Q

lethal triad assoc w trying to repair all abd wounds during initial operation w shock and hypotension

A

hypothermia, acidosis, and coagulopathy; worsened by prolonged operation

69
Q

fundamental tenets of damage control surgery for abdomen

A

control of massive hemorrhage and control of enteric contamination of peritoneal cavity while attempting to minimize hypothermia, acidosis, and coagulopathy

70
Q

how long is the initial control surgery for abd injuries and when is the second surgery

A

first one takes 60-90min and the next one occurs in 12-36hr after

71
Q

aggressive crystalloid volume resuscitation and severe hemorrhagic shock sometimes result in

A

retroperitoneal and intra abdominal swelling and intra abdominal pressures above 30mmHg

72
Q

effects of rise of abd pressure from aggressive crystalloid volume resuscitation nd severe hemorrhagic shock

A

con compromise blood flow to abd viscera, producing ischemia and eventual necrosis if left uncorrected

73
Q

untx abd compartment syndrome results in

A

multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) and is commonly fatal

74
Q

abdominal compartment syndrome triad

A

inc airway pressures, dec urine output, and elev abd pressure

75
Q

tx abd compartment syndrome

A

opening the abd cavity via lapartomy incision; allows prompt decompression and relieves cephalic pressure on the diaphragm and thoracic cavity; renal perfusion is restored and urinary output inc

76
Q

mc and most stable mechanism of pelvic fracture

A

lateral compression mechanism; less likely to lead to ligamentous disruption at the sacroiliac joint

77
Q

known as the open book pelvic fracture

A

anterior posterior compression- symphysis pubis is disrupted and iliac wings open leading to variable ant of sacroiliac ligamentous disruption

78
Q

most unstable pelvic fracture

A

vertical shear injury; least common; caused by severe upward force that may disrupt the hemipelvis from the spine or create a fracture of the iliac wing; assoc w serious abd, pelvic, or vascular injuries

79
Q

dx pelvic fractures

A

xray; ct

80
Q

signs of urethral injury in men

A

scrotal hematoma, blood at urethral meatus, and high riding or non palpable prostate gland on rectal exam

81
Q

3 zones of the neck

A
  1. sternal notch to inferior border of cricoid cartilage
  2. cricoid cartilage to angle of mandible
  3. distal neck (mandible) to base of skull
82
Q

tx injury to internal jugular vein

A

lateral venorrhaphy or patch venoplasty

83
Q

compartment syndrome

A

elevation of the pressure within a fascial compartment of the upper or lower extremity; interstitial tissue pressure becomes higher than capillary perfusion pressure, resulting in ischemia to the muscles and nerves within the fascial compartment.

84
Q

s/sx compartment syndrome

A

early include pain, paresthesias, and diminished sensation; swollen and tense; late include diminished pulses or capillary refill assoc w irrev ischemia

85
Q

tx compartment syndrome

A

prompt operative fasciotomy

86
Q

A 22-year-old man is in the emergency department after a high-speed motor vehicle collision. He complains of back pain. He is alert and oriented and is breathing normally. His oxygen saturation is normal and hemodynamically stable. There are ecchymoses on the left chest. Chest x-ray shows fractures of the left first and second ribs. The aortic knob is not clearly visible, and the mediastinum measures 10 cm. Further evaluation should include which of the following?

A. Contrast-enhanced chest CT

Β. Repeat chest x-ray

C. Diagnostic thoracoscopy

D. Pericardial window

E. Diagnostic mediastinoscopy

A

Answer: A

The high-speed deceleration mechanism and chest x-ray findings are highly concerning for blunt aortic injury (BAI), which is most efficiently diagnosed by contrast-enhanced chest CT. Repeat chest x-ray would likely reveal the same findings but would not establish the diagnosis. Thoracoscopy is useful for evaluating the pleural space, lungs, and diaphragm, but not the aorta and great vessels. Pericardial window may be utilized to diagnose hemopericardium in suspected penetrating cardiac trauma, but not aortic injury. Mediastinoscopy is used for evaluating lymph node status in lung cancer staging but has no role in trauma

87
Q

A 30-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after crashing his motorcycle at high speed into a concrete divider. He sustains severe trauma to the mid face and mandible and is lethargic upon arrival. He has copious amounts of bloody airway secretions and pulse oximetry reveals oxygen saturation levels of 82% to 85%. Two unsuccessful attempts have been made to place an orotracheal tube. The next step should be

A. bag-valve mask ventilation.

B. nasotracheal intubation.

C. resuscitative thoracotomy.

D. surgical cricothyroidotomy.

E. bronchoscopy.

A

Answer: D

In the primary survey, obtaining a patent airway is of paramount importance The patient in this scenario has an unstable airway and poor systemic oxygenation, making the establishment of a definitive airway an urgent matter. Since orotracheal intubation attempts have failed, the next step is to perform a cricothyroidotomy. Bag-valve mask ventilation is unlikely to be successful in this circumstance and does not provide a definitive airway. Nasotracheal intubation is contraindicated in severe facial trauma as false passage into the cranium may occur. Resuscitative thoracotomy may restore circulation but does not provide an airway. Bronchoscopy may be utilized after establishment of an airway to clear blood or secretions.

88
Q

A 53-year-old man sustains a severe traumatic brain injury after an assault. His GCS score is 6, and an intracranial pressure monitor is inserted. Vital signs are heart rate—92 beats/minute, blood pressure (BP)—152/88 mm Hg, mean arterial pressure—109 mm Hg, and respiratory rate—16/minute. His intracranial pressure is 32 mm Hg. The patient’s cerebral perfusion pressure is

A. 120 mm Hg.

B. 77 mm Hg.

C. 60 mm Hg.

D. 56 mm Hg.

E. 32 mm Hg.

A

Answer: B

Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is calculated by subtracting the intracranial pressure (ICP) from the mean arterial pressure (MAP).

89
Q

A 25-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after involvement in a low-speed motor vehicle collision. She complains of feeling light-headed and states that she is 33 weeks pregnant. Vital signs are heart rate—90 beats/minute and BP—82/44 mm Hg. Abdominal examination reveals a gravid uterus but no tenderness. Chest x-ray is unremarkable, and FAST reveals no intraperitoneal fluid. A viable intrauterine pregnancy is noted, and fetal heart tones are observed The next step in management should be

A. cesarean section.

B. induction of labor with vaginal delivery.

C. left lateral tilt positioning.

D. diagnostic peritoneal lavage.

E. MRI of the abdomen and pelvis.

A

Answer: C

In the supine position, the gravid uterus compresses the inferior vena cava (IVC), resulting in decreased venous return to the heart and hypotension. Visibly pregnant trauma patients should be placed in the left lateral tilt position (while maintaining spinal precautions) to displace the gravid uterus from the IVC. Induction of labor and cesarean section would not be indicated in the absence of fetal distress. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL) is relatively contraindicated in pregnancy, as uterine or fetal injury may occur. MRI is not utilized in the acute evaluation of abdominal trauma.

90
Q

A 22-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after falling from a 10-foot ladder, landing on his left side He has multiple left-sided rib fractures and a pneumothorax requiring a chest tube. Physical examination of the abdomen is unremarkable He remains hemodynamically stable throughout the primary and secondary surveys and undergoes contrast-enhanced CT scanning of the abdomen and pelvis. CT scan reveals a grade II laceration of the spleen, with no evidence of active contrast extravasation. The next appropriate step in management is

A. exploratory laparotomy with splenectomy.

B. exploratory laparotomy with splenorrhaphy.

C. splenic angioembolization.

D. video-assisted thoracoscopy with evacuation of hemothorax.

E. observation with serial abdominal examinations.

A

Answer: E

Most low-grade splenic injuries can be managed nonoperatively. The key factor is hemodynamic stability of the patient. In this patient, splenectomy and splenorrhaphy would represent unnecessary surgical options, and interventional techniques such as angioembolization should be reserved for cases of high-grade splenic injury with active extravasation of intravenous contrast. Thoracoscopy is indicated for evacuation of residual hemothorax or diagnosis of penetrating diaphragmatic injury.

91
Q

trauma deaths first peak

A

immediate at time of injury; lacerations to brain, brain stem, spinal cord, heart, major arteries

92
Q

trauma deaths second peak

A

golden hr where intervention can make a difference; subdural, epidural, hemopneumothorax, rupture of spleen, laceration of liver, multi injuries w sig blood loss

93
Q

trauma deaths third peak

A

days to weeks later; sepsis and organ failure

94
Q

algorithmic approach of advance trauma life support

A

primary survery, resuscitation phase, secondary survery, definitive tx

95
Q

jane resuscitation

A

supplemental oxygen (often intubated); 2 lg bore IVs (18gauge), crystalloid fluid; urinary cath; ng tube; ekg monitor; constantly reassess abc’s, monitor urine output

96
Q

when is AMPLE done

A

during definitive care

allergies, meds, past illness, last meal, events preceding injury

97
Q

blood work that should be ordered

A

cbc, chem 12, pt/ptt/inr, type and screen

98
Q

imaging right away

A

cxr, lateral c spine xr, pelvis xr

99
Q

when should a ct be ordered on a pt w a head hematoma

A

lg, sig mechanism of injury, alt LOC

100
Q

tx head hematoma

A

rice, nsaids

don’t attempt any aspiration or evacuation

101
Q

dx closed skull fracture

A

ct scan

102
Q

tx closed skull fracture

A

admit for observation

103
Q

tx open skull fracture

A

admit, neurosurgery consult, seizure prophylaxis, +/- abx

104
Q

dx and tx depressed skull fracture

A

pe and ct; admit, neurosurgery consult to OR for debridement, abx

105
Q

s/sx basilar skull fracture

A

(fracture of temporal bone along base of skull)

battle sign (ecchymosis along mastoids), raccoon eyes (b/l periorbital ecchymosis); can have csf leak from ears or nose (accucheck/halo test)

106
Q

tx basilar skull fracture

A

admit, neurosurgery consult

107
Q

epidural hematoma

A

bleeding between dura and skull that is arterial; oval shaped (biconvex); lucid interval (brief period of normalcy after head injury)

108
Q

subdural hematoma

A

bleeding between dura and brain venous source; crescent shaped, elderly pt

109
Q

tx subdural hematoma

A

neurosurgery for eval, aggressive conservation, seizure prophylaxis

110
Q

tx epidural hematoma

A

neurosurgery for immediate evacuation; seizure prophylaxis

111
Q

canadian head ct rules

A

pts w minor head trauma:
gcs 13-15
witnesed LOC
amnesia or confusion

if on blood thinners getting scanned

scan if any are met:
gcs

112
Q

who should get seizure prophylaxis

A

head injury:

gcs

113
Q

ex of seizure prophylaxis

A

phenytoin (dilantin): inc na efflux/dec na influx; 15-20mg/kg once

fosphenytoin (cerebyx): water soluble prodrug of phenytoin; 10-20mg/kg once; loaded within 30m

114
Q

tx elevated ICP

A

mannitol: osmotic agent limiting renal resorption and causes diuresis; 0.25-1g/kg IV Q6 prn; can lead to renal dysfunction

115
Q

which neck zones are surgical and which are not

A

2 surgical w ct angio, esophogoscopy and tracheoscopy

1/3 are non surgical

116
Q

pain in jaw, mal occlusion, step off/malallignment of teeth, truisms, mucosal lacerations

A

mandible fx

117
Q

dx mandible fx

A

pe and ct

118
Q

tx mandible fx

A

update tetanus; abx (penicillin or clinda); barton bandage to splint

119
Q

when should mandible fx get immediate OMFS consult

A

open fx, complex fx w dislocation, grossly dislocated, airway complication

120
Q

maxillofacial trauma w tripod fx

A

zygomaticomaxillary complex;

fx through infraorbital rim, zygomatic/frontal suture, and zygomatic/temporal suture

121
Q

mc orbital fx

A

maxilary bone (the floor)

122
Q

s/sx of orbital fx

A

pain along orbital rim, +/- periorbital ecchymosis; diplopia w upward gaze (inferior rectus entrapment); enophthalmosis (sign of sig inferior displacement)

123
Q

imaging orbital fx

A

non contrast ct

124
Q

tx orbital fx

A

update tetanus, pain control, abx (augmenting), don’t blow nose, OMFS f/u 7-10d

125
Q

tx nasal fx

A

ice packs, pain control, orc decongestants, OMFS f/u 3-5d for early correction

126
Q

auricular hematoma

A

cauliflower ear; blunt trauma to eat; bleeding between perichondrium and auricular cartilage

127
Q

tx auricular hematoma

A

i/d or aspiration; pack w petroleum gauze and stitch in place; pack behind ear and wrap w ace around head; abx (cephalexin), pain, OMFS in 1 d

Surgery (21 decks)

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