Translation Flashcards

1
Q

T/F: knowing the amino acid sequence of a protein, the sequence of the gene can be predicted

A

FALSE: because of redundancy in genetic code

code is also non-ambiguous

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2
Q

what is the specialized nucleotide of the 5’ cap which is necessary for binding of initiation factors for translation?

A

7-methyl-guanosine

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3
Q

what is the start codon in eukaryotes

what are the stop codons

A

START: AUG - Methionine

STOP: UGA, UAA, UAG
[u go away, u are annoying, u are gone]

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4
Q

codon-anticodon interactions are ____

A

antiparallel

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5
Q

these enzymes catalyze charging of tRNA

A

aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases

REQUIRES ATP

includes proofreading before AND after —> high fidelity process

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6
Q

what are the subunit sizes of eukaryotic and prokaryotic ribosomes

A

eukaryotic - 40S (small) + 60S (large) = 80S

prokaryotic - 30S (small) + 50S (large) = 70S

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7
Q

where does the peptidyl transfer activity come from in translation?

A

rRNA catalyzes peptide bond formation —> ribosome is a ribozyme

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8
Q

what are the 3 sites of tRNA binding

A

A (aminoacyl) - acceptor
P (peptidyl) - peptide chain is growing
E (exit) - empty (uncharged) tRNA is released

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9
Q

what are the 3 basic steps of translation initiation (eukaryotic)

A
  1. PIC (pre-initiation complex) binds mRNA cap complex. PIC includes Met, eIF2, GTP, and initiation tRNA (recognizes AUG)
  2. scanning for first AUG codon
  3. large subunit recruitment (GTP hydrolysis and release of eIF2)
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10
Q

what are the 3 basic steps of elongation in translation (eukaryotic)

A
  1. deliver tRNA to A site via eEF2 (proofreading occurs before and after), GTP hydrolysis follows
  2. peptidyl transfer / peptide bond formation (via ribozyme)
  3. translocation (grows N —> C terminal) with GTP-bound eEF2
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11
Q

what causes translation termination (eukaryotic)

A

eRF1 (eukaryotic releasing factor 1) catalyzes hydrolysis of completed peptide

requires GTP hydrolysis

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12
Q

polysome

A

large mRNA/multiple ribosome complex

multiple ribosomes can be translating single mRNA molecule simultaneously

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13
Q

match:
eukaryotic and bacterial translation
with
polycistronic and monocistronic

A

eukaryotic is monocistronic - 1 coding region (aka open reading frame, ORF, or cistron)

prokaryotic is polycistronic - multiple coding regions (ORF, cistron), multiple messages per transcript

each prokaryotic cistron has ribosome-binding site - Shine-Dalgarno sequence - located upstream of AUG (directly base pairs to rRNA)

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14
Q

what do aminoglycosides (streptomycin) and tetracyclines (doxycycline) target?

A

30S bacterial ribosomal subunit (the decoding site)

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15
Q

what do macrolides (erythromycin) target?

A

50S bacterial ribosomal subunit (peptide bond formation site)

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16
Q

miRNAs (non-coding) base pair with RNA sequences typically present in the _____

A

3’-UTR of target mRNAs to inhibit translation - can cause translational repression or mRNA degradation

use RISC (RNA-induced silencing complex)

[can measure circulating miRNA as biomarker of disease]

17
Q

Ferritin is a protein that stores excess iron. Its translation is regulated by cellular iron status. Describe this process

A

IRE (iron response element) in ferritin mRNA 5’-UTR is bound by IRP (iron regulatory protein) to lower production of Ferritin when iron is low

iron can bind IRP when levels are high, disinhibiting Ferritin production

18
Q

when are premature stop codons biologically useful?

A

when two tissues express the same gene but one uses a shorter form

ex: APOB gene in liver and intestine. Intestine requires a shorter form, so mRNA is edited to introduce premature stop codon

19
Q

how does HIV-1 take advantage of programmed ribosomal frame shifting in translation?

A

allows virus to generate 1+ protein from single mRNA

pseudoknots (secondary mRNA loops) stall ribosome movement - induces higher propensity to shift frame, esp in repetitive sequences (“slippery”)

20
Q

how does Polio mRNA bypass cap-dependent translation in host cells?

A

mRNA contains internal ribosome entry site (IRES) that allows cap-independent translation or viral proteins —> directly recruits 40S subunit

viral proteases cleave eIF4G (initiation factor), which halts host mRNA transcription and diverts machinery to viral RNA

21
Q

describe the cellular pathogenesis of corynebacterium diphtheriae

bonus: how does it present?

A

diphtheria toxin inactivates eEF2, by transferring ADP-ribose from NAD to eEF2

presentation: soar throat, gray/white pseudo-membrane due to cell death. vaccine available as part of DTaP

22
Q

azithromycin belongs to the macrolide class of antibiotics - therefore, what does it target?

A

macrolide antibiotics target bacterial 50S ribosomal subunit

23
Q

the RNA codon for methionine is 5’-AUG-3’ - which of these is the anticodon sequence?
a. 5’ - UAC - 3’
b. 5’ - TAC - 3’
c. 5’ - CAU - 3’
d. 5’ - CAT - 3’

A

5’-AUG-3’ (methionine) corresponds to
5’-CAU-3’ because codon-anticodon alignment is antiparallel (have to read it backwards)

24
Q

Pt is a 7yo F presenting with chills, N/V, sore throat. PE notes grayish-colored membrane near the tonsils.

What bacteria is this infection caused by, and what is the effect of its toxin?

A

C. Diphtheria bacteria - produces toxin that ADP-ribosylates/inactivates eEF2 needed for ribosome translocation

in summary, Diphtheria toxin halts elongation

25
Q

Which of the following enables polio virus to translate viral proteins in a cap-independent manner?
a. programmed ribosomal frame shifting
b. internal ribosomal entry site
c. ADP ribosylation of eEF2
d. phosphorylation of eIF2
e. RNA editing
f. miRNA
g. IRE-IRP interaction

A

polio - uses internal ribosomal entry site (IRES) to translate in cap-independent manner

viral protease cleaves eIF4G needed to recruit 40S subunit —> host translation inhibited and resources diverted —> cleaved eIF4G binds viral IRES for direct recruitment of 40S subunit