Aneuploidy Flashcards

1
Q

what genetic abnormality is the most common genetic cause of developmental and intellectual disability, and fetal loss in the first trimester?

A

aneuploidy

most common mechanism of aneuploidy is meiotic nondisjunction

and nondisjunction in these diseases is usually caused by maternal nondisjunction in meiosis II, due to halt in cell cycle during oocyte development

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2
Q

how can you determine whether nondisjunction occurred during meiosis I or II?

A

look at polymorphisms around the centromere, because that region suppresses crossover

this gives accurate idea of where the chromosome came from (identify chromosome by its centromere)

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3
Q

when in meiosis does crossover occur?

A

prophase I

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4
Q

if nondisjunction occurred during meiosis I, what chromosomes would the daughter cells have?

A

one daughter cell would have both homologous chromosomes (pretend one red, one blue).

In meiosis II, these will split so each daughter cell has a chromatid from each of the homologous chromosomes (so one blue stick and one red stick in each cell, instead of just one).

second daughter cells has neither, so in meiosis II there is nothing either

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5
Q

if nondisjunction occurred during meiosis II, what chromosomes would you expect the daughter cells to have?

A

a daughter cell from meiosis I with one homologous chromosome (tetrad - remember chromosomes are counted by how many centromeres there are) would split the two chromatids, but both would end up in only one daughter cell

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6
Q

what banding pattern might you see if you ran the DNA of the four daughter cells of meiosis, if nondisjunction in meiosis I had occurred?

what pattern would you see if nondisjunction occur during meiosis II?

(describe the banding pattern only for the nondisjunction)

A

meiosis I nondisjunction: 2 daughter cells would have 2 bands (the same bands), the other 2 would have none

meiosis II: 1 daughter cell would have a thick band for 2 copies of the same chromosome, 1 daughter cell would have no bands, and the other 2 daughter cells would have just 1 normal band

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7
Q

what is the most common cause of uniparental disomy

A

trisomic rescue - body tries to compensate by removing the extra chromosome, but depending which is removed, uniparental disomy can occur (if it did not remove one of the repeats)

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8
Q

how can a recessive disease occur in a patient of which only one parent is a carrier?

A

uniparental disomy - they get 2 copies of the mutant allele

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9
Q

what its the most common chromosomal abnormality, and most frequent genetic cause of cognitive disability?

A

Trisomy 21 - Down Syndrome

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10
Q

You’re shadowing in L&D when you see a neonate, born to a 45yo F, being delivered in 39th week of gestation. The neonate has a flattened face, epicanthal folds, and echocardiography reveals endocardia cushion defect. What condition does this child likely have?

A

Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21), due to meiotic non-disjunction

most common chromosomal abnormality and most frequent cause of cognitive disability

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11
Q

what are the key clinical features of Trisomy 21 for:
1. Head and neck
2. Neurological
3. Heart
4. GI

A

head and neck: slanted palpebral fissures (slanted eyes), flat facial profile, low set ears, macroglossia (protruding tongue), nuchal folds (back of neck), brachycephaly (wide head)

neuro: early-onset Alzheimer’s, hypotonia, cog. disability

heart: ventricular or atrial septal defects (due to defect in fusion of tissues that make endocardia cushions)

GI: duodenal atresia (lumen is not open), Hirschsprung’s disease

also at high risk of neoplasias (leukemias)

D - duodenal atresia
O - opening in heart due to septal defect
W - loW cog. function
N - neoplasia, nuchal folds, non-disjunction

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12
Q

neonate presents with nuchal folds, macroglossia, and brachycephaly. heart examination reveals an atrial septal defect, and GI examination reveals duodenal atresia. What is your diagnosis, and what important disorders are they at high risk for?

A

Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)

at high risk for early-onset Alzheimer’s and neoplasias (leukemias)

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13
Q

this second-most common chromosomal abnormality presents with rocker-bottom feet, clenched hands, a prominent occiput, and dolichocephaly. What is?

A

trisomy 18: Edward Syndrome

severe cognitive disability

[dolichocephaly = long head]

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14
Q

what are the key clinical features of Edward syndrome?

A

aka Trisomy 18

key features:
- prominent occiput
- rocker-bottom feet

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15
Q

what is Patau syndrome and how does it present?

A

aka Trisomy 13

features:
- anophthalmia (missing an eye)
- cleft lip or palate
- Holoprosencephaly (prosencephalon/ forebrain misdevelops)
- polydactyly (extra digits)

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16
Q

neonate presents with anophthalmia, cleft lip, and holoprosencephaly. what is your likely diagnosis?

A

Patau Syndrome: Trisomy 13

anophthalmia - missing an eye
holoprosencephaly - forebrain mis-development

17
Q

what are the features of Turner syndrome and what is the genetic abnormality

A

Turner Syndrome = 45, X
*only monosomy consistent with life

features:
-short stature
-ovarian failure (no breast development, primary amenorrhea)
-shield chest, webbed neck
-cardiovascular disease (problems with aortic arch/valve)
-lymphedema

18
Q

a F pt presents with lymphedema and primary amenorrhea. PE notes lack of breast development, a shield chest, webbed neck, and short stature. What is your diagnosis and what is the genetic abnormality

A

Turner syndrome: 45, X (monosomy)

19
Q

what are the features of Kleinfelter syndrome and what is the genetic abnormality

A

47, XXY
most common cause is nondisjunction of PATERNAL chromosomes

features:
-tall stature (long legs)
-difficulty with social interactions
-androgen insufficiency —> infertility, decreased muscle tone, decreased bone mineral density, gynecomastia (breasts in males)

20
Q

a M pt presents with gynecomastia (increased breast tissue). PE notes tall stature and decreased muscle tone. Endocrine analysis reveals low androgens. What is your diagnosis?

A

Kleinfelter syndrome: 47, XXY