Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

LABS > TRANSFUSION SCIENCE > Flashcards

TRANSFUSION SCIENCE Flashcards

1
Q

STORAGE TEMP OF SAGM RBC AND SHELF LIFE

A

42 DAYS, 1-6 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

STORAGE TEMP OF IRRADIATED SAGM RBC AND SHELF LIFE

A

1-6 C, 14 DAYS FROM DATE OF IRRADIATION OR 28 DAYS WHICHEVER COMES FIRST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

WASHED RBC STORAGE TEMP AND SHELF LIFE

A

1-6 C, 7 DAYS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

PLASMA PRODUCT DERIVATIVES STORAGE TEMP AND CONDITONS

A

DEPENDS ON MANUFACTURER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

VISUAL INSPECTION: LIPEMIA/WHITE PARTICULATE MATTER

A

ACCEPTABLE TO TRANSFUSE/RELEASE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

WHAT IS TRANSFUSION-RELATED ACUTE LUNG INJURY? (TRALI)

A

ANTI-HLA OR ANTI-NEUTROPHIL ANTIBODY IN DONOR PLASMA REACTING WITH RECIPIENT ANTIGENS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Anti-E is a clinically significant antibody because

A

it can cause hemolytic transfusion reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is complement bound by?

A

Kidd antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which set of antibodies could be found in a patient with no history of transfusion or pregnancy?

A

anti-I, anti-Lea, anti-B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What part of the antigen does the antibody react with?

A

Epitope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What substance are all antibodies composed of?

A

Glycoproteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does the Fc portion of an antibody bind to?

A

Site of complement fixation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does the Fab portion of an antibody bind to?

A

Binds to antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Held together by disulphide bonds

A

IgM and IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Has J Chains

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Most efficient molecule for binding complement

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Has several subclasses and a molecular weight of 150,000-180,000 daltons

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Has alpha heavy chains

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Has mu chains

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Has gamma heavy chains

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Has a monomeric shape

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Name 3 applications of DAT

A

Diagnosis of hemolytic anemia, compatibility testing for blood transfusion, prenatal testing for hemolytic disease of the newborn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What kind of result can you expect from a 3-5% solution in the prozone?

A

False positive, cell suspension too light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What kind of result can you expect from a 3-5% solution in the postzone?

A

False negative, cell suspension too heavy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the difference between the monospecific method vs the polyspecific AHG method?

A

Monospecific contains antibodies specific to either C3d or IgG, polyspecific contains antibodies that react with both.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are Anti-A, Anti-B and Anti-A,B composed of?

A

They are derived from Brima-1, they are murine monoclonal antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is Anti-D composed of?

A

A blend of IgM and IgG, heterohybridoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is in the Rh or monoclonal control?

A

Everything in Anti-D, except for anti-D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are A1 & B cells composed of?

A

2-4% suspension of pooled C-D-E RBC suspended in a buffered solution containing adenosine and adenine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are screen cells composed of?

A

Contains a 2-4% suspension of a single donor group O red blood cells prepared in a buffer containing adenosine and adenine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are check cells composed of?

A

A single pool of group O red cells that have been sensitized with an IgG antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is Anti-IgG composed of?

A

Prepared by blending supernatants produced by individual hybridoma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is PEG composed of?

A

Glycine polythene, glycol, and propylene oxide/ethylene oxide block polymer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are lectins composed of?

A

Seed extracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Name 2 lectins.

A

Anti-A1 (Diluchous biflorous), Anti-H (Ulex uropious)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In which situation might mixed field reactions be seen

A

S typing of red cells from a recently transfused patient

37
Q

What are the 3 theories for weak D?

A
  1. Inherited genetic coding
  2. Gene position effect
  3. Partial D
38
Q

A positive Rh control may result if:

A

Patient has warm/cold autoantibodies or a positive DAT

39
Q

When can Rh positive blood be given to Rh negative individuals?

A

Males above 18yrs old, women older than 45

40
Q

Which patients should receive CMV-negative products?

A

Neonates (older than 14 days do not receive), anyone immunocompromised and organ transplants

41
Q

Changes to red cells during storage is called

A

Storage lesion

42
Q

During storage of red cells what decreases?

A

Viability of red cells, plasma pH, ATP levels, viable platelets, ability of red cells to metabolize glucose, 2-3 DPG levels

43
Q

During the storage of red cells what increases?

A

Plasma K+, plasma hemoglobin, and osmotic fragility

44
Q

What is cryosupernatant plasma?

A

The plasma product remaining after cryo-precipitated AHF production

45
Q

What is cryo-precipitated AHF used for?

A

Used for patients who require fibrinogen

46
Q

What is albumin used for?

A

Most suitable product for treatment of shock due to severe burns

47
Q

What are red cells useful for?

A

Treatment of anemia

48
Q

What is factor IX concentrate used for?

A

Most suitable for patients with hemophilia B

49
Q

What is factor VII concentrate used for?

A

Most suitable for patients with hemophilia A

50
Q

What does immune serum globulin (ISG) provide?

A

Provides passive antibody protection after exposure to hepatitis A

51
Q

What is frozen plasma useful for?

A

It provides all clotting factors

52
Q

When will RhIG be required?

A

Following amniocentesis, trauma or abortion

53
Q

Why is it possible to have a negative DAT in a hemolytic transfusion reaction?

A

If RBCs are lysed

54
Q

Which blood groups system antibodies are commonly associated with delayed transfusion reactions?

A

Kidd

55
Q

What is common with an allergic (uticarial) reaction post-transfusion?

A

Hives, antihistamines may relieve symptoms of this type of reaction

56
Q

What is common with an intravascular hemolytic reaction?

A

Usually resulting from transfusing ABO-incompatible blood or clerical errors, a burning sensation at the site of infusion, may activate the coagulation system resulting in DIC

57
Q

What is common with an extravascular hemolytic reaction?

A

Red cell destruction by antibodies which do not bind complement, patient demonstrates a decreased hemoglobin level 2 to 10 days post transfusion

58
Q

What is common with a non-hemolytic febrile reaction?

A

Fever of at least 1C higher is the only symptom, anti-pyretic may help reduce or control the reaction

59
Q

What is common with an anaphylactic reaction?

A

Plasma from IgA deficient donors may prevent this reaction

60
Q

What percentage of the population has the D antigen?

A

85%

61
Q

What percentage of the population has the C antigen?

A

68%

62
Q

What percentage of the population has the E antigen?

A

29%

63
Q

What percentage of the population has the c antigen?

A

80%

64
Q

What percentage of the population has the e antigen?

A

98%

65
Q

What percentage of the population has the K antigen?

A

9%

66
Q

What percentage of the population has the k antigen?

A

99.8%

67
Q

What percentage of the population has the Fya antigen?

A

66%

68
Q

What percentage of the population has the Fyb antigen?

A

83%

69
Q

What percentage of the population has the Jka antigen?

A

77%

70
Q

What percentage of the population has the Jkb antigen?

A

74%

71
Q

What percentage of the population has the A antigen?

A

43%

72
Q

What percentage of the population has the B antigen?

A

9%

73
Q

What percentage of the population has the AB antigen?

A

4%

74
Q

What percentage of the population has the O antigen?

A

44%

75
Q

R0 in fisher race

A

Dce

76
Q

R1 in fisher race

A

DCe

77
Q

R2 in fisher race

A

DcE

78
Q

Rz in fisher race

A

DCE

79
Q

r in fisher race

A

ce or dce

80
Q

r’ in fisher race

A

Ce or dCe

81
Q

r” in fisher race

A

cE or dcE

82
Q

ry in fisher race

A

CE or dCE

83
Q

Characteristics of KELL antibodies

A

Do not bind complement, IgG class usually, associated with hemolytic transfusion reactions and hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn

84
Q

Characteristics of DUFFY antibodies

A

Demonstrate dosage, IgG 37C and do not react with enzyme-treated RBCs

85
Q

Characteristics of KIDD antibodies

A

Show dosage, enhanced by enzymes, cause of delayed HTRs

86
Q

Characteristics of LEWIS antibodies

A

Anti-Lea naturally occurring, IGM, not clinically significant, commonly reactive at room temp

87
Q

Characteristics of I antibodies

A

Bind complement, cold reacting, IgM, reactions are avoided by prewiring techniques

88
Q

Characteristics of M and N antibodies

A

Show dosage, IgM, variable reactions

89
Q

Characteristics of S antibodies

A

IgG, shows dosage

LABS (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions