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HFD Acting Exam Correct Answers Only > Training Bulletins, Memos & Index Files (74 Questions) > Flashcards

Training Bulletins, Memos & Index Files (74 Questions) Flashcards

1
Q

According to the training document on Building Construction Materials and Building Collapse located on HFDnet, steel I beams will elongate when heated and can push out a load-bearing walls. A 50-foot (15.2m) beam may elongate by as much as ___ inches/mm when heated to about 1,000 degrees F (538 degrees C):

A

4 inches (102 mm)

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2
Q

According to the training document on Building Construction Materials and Building Collapse located on HFDnet, the temperature at which a steel member will depend on many variables. Which of the following is NOT one of those variables:

A

Age

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3
Q

According to the training document on Building Construction Materials and Building Collapse located on HFDnet, which of the following is NOT a safety precaution for imminent building collapse:

A

Allow personnel or apparatus to operate within the collapse zone

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4
Q

According to the Personal Note Taking document on HFDnet, under the heading Best Practices, notes are to be completed as events occur, or at the first available opportunity. What is the time frame that notes should be completed within?

A

24 hours

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5
Q

According to the Personal Note Taking document on HFDnet, which of the following is NOT an advantage of good note taking?

A

Shows a commitment to quality work

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6
Q

According to the Personal Note Taking document on HFDnet, which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of poor note taking?

A

May require you to rewrite your notes

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7
Q

According to Memo 2017 – AP – 110, all personnel will rotate the use of their Bunker Gear

A

On a three (3) month cycle or sooner if required and logged into FDM

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8
Q

According to AP Memo 2021-AP-676 “Training Tablets and New Training Tablet Policy”, what is the passcode for all the tablets:

A

123654

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9
Q

According to AP Memo 2021-AP-676 “Training Tablets and New Training Tablet Policy”, Who will be held accountable for the tablets while in service in the stations?

A

6.1 Station Officers and supervisors will ensure that the HFD training tablets and peripheries (Charging stations, accessory cords, etc.) are accounted for in the workplace daily. They will report deficiencies, damage or missing tablets immediately to their supervisor and submit a Loss/Damage Report (437). Supervisors will then inform the Chief Training Officer.

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10
Q

The HFDNET Training Index document “Thermal Imaging Camera – General Use and Operation 2017 identifies two modes of operation. Which of the following statements correctly identifies the two modes of operation:

A

High Sense Mode (High image quality, lower temperatures) and Low Sense Mode (Low image quality, higher temperatures)

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11
Q

According to Training Bulletin #271 – “Cold Environments – Working in the Cold”, which temperature range is considered a Moderate risk in wind chill conditions (Table 2)?

A

– 10 to – 27 degrees Celsius

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12
Q

According to Memo 2018-AP-157, Workplace Safety & Insurance Board (WSIB)Injury/Exposure
Reporting Checklist, it is imperative that all personnel make themselves familiar with the procedures, the completion the Parklane Report is the responsibility of:

A

The Workplace Supervisor

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13
Q

According to Training Bulletin # 270 Blitzfire Portable Ground Monitor, procedures to reduce the risk of unlimited movement do not include:

A

Always loop the hose in front of the monitor

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14
Q

Which of the following construction features is not associated with Center Core Construction according to HFDNET - High Rise Construction

A

Balconies act as a fire break in addition to serving as a sage refuge area in the event of a fire.

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15
Q

According to HFDNET - High Rise Construction, the description of “Stratification of Smoke” in high-rise buildings does not include:

A

Because a higher percentage of heat and smoke can accumulate in a confined space (high rise) with little potential for top level ventilation, the sudden admittance of air into the high rise can easily lead to a backdraft potential

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16
Q

According to Memorandum 2021-AP-523 – Deployment of Rescue 42 Vehicle Stabilization kits:

A

Rescue 42 struts shall be the preferred equipment utilized during an incident that requires stabilization

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17
Q

According to Memo 2022-AP-011, 45mm Hose High-Rise Bundle, which of the following statement regarding High-rise pack deployment is correct;

A

To accomplish a Wet-lay/ Non-tenable deployment, the nozzle bundle is extended up the stairs above the entry point to the fire floor

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18
Q

According to Memo 2022-AP-011, 45mmHose High-Rise Bundle, which of the following best describes the first steps to accomplish either the Dry-Lay/Tenable or the Wet-Lay/Non-Tenable deployment of the High-rise pack:

A

Shoulder carry all three bundles, place the bundles coupling-side up, side, by side on the floor, make the appropriate connections, move and extend the bundles dependent upon fire floor conditions

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19
Q

According to Training Bulletin #136, Helicopter Safety, what are the minimum dimensions that should be used for the Landing Zone?

A

150ft x 150ft

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20
Q

According to Training Bulletin #136, Helicopter Safety, when on uneven ground, which side should you approach the helicopter from?

A

Downhill Side

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21
Q

According to Training Bulletin #136, Helicopter Safety, which of the following is a false statement?

A

Use flares to outline the safe landing zone for the helicopter

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22
Q

According to Training Bulletin #221, Epi-Pen, which of the following is NOT a symptom of anaphylaxis

A

Increased blood pressure

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23
Q

According to Training Bulletin #221, Epi-Pen, what is the correct Medical Directive for the Hamilton Fire Department?

A

Patients showing signs of anaphylaxis may receive two doses of epinephrine 5-15 minutes apart

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24
Q

According to Training Bulletin #221, Epi-Pen, there are recommendations that should be followed for the safe storage of Epinephrine, which of the following is one of these recommendations?

A

Regularly check the viewing window on your EpiPen Auto-Injector and replace it if the solution is brown, discoloured or cloudy

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25
Q

According to Training Bulletin #224, Narcan Administration, which of the following is NOT listed as a sign or symptom of Opiate Withdrawal?

A

Complacency

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26
Q

According to Training Bulletin #224, Narcan Administration, if you encounter a patient who you suspect has overdosed on opioids, and who is Vital Signs Absent, what is your course of action?

A

Initiate CPR and administer Narcan concurrent with compressions

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27
Q

According to Training Bulletin #224, Narcan Administration, the following are true about Narcan with the exception of:

A

Narcan is also effective for non-opioid overdoses (e.g., cocaine, ecstasy, GHB or alcohol).

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28
Q

According to Training Bulletin #143, Penetrating Chest Injuries, the correct treatment for an open chest wound is:

A

A non-occlusive dressing, replacing as dressing becomes saturated

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29
Q

According to Training Bulletin #143, Penetrating Chest Injuries, what life-threatening condition can poor treatment for open chest wounds lead to?

A

Tension Pneumothorax

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30
Q

According to Training Bulletin #158, Heart & Stroke CPR & Hamilton Fire Department SAED Protocol, which statement is true when dealing with a penetrating trauma patient?

A

A total of (1) “No Shock Advised” received at any point within the resuscitation ends the protocol

31
Q

According to Training Bulletin #158, Heart & Stroke CPR & Hamilton Fire Department SAED Protocol, Newborns are defined as being less than 24 hours old. What is the correct compression to ventilation ratio for newborns?

A

3 compressions to 1 ventilation

32
Q

According to Training Bulletin #158, Heart & Stroke CPR & Hamilton Fire Department SAED Protocol, if you have a newborn patient (less than 24 hours old), whose heart rate is below 60 beats per minute, what is your course of action?

A

Begin chest compressions and ventilations at a rate of 3:1

33
Q

According to TB 266, the MSA Premaire Cadet G1 Escape Pack Visual Inspection and Function Test. A Visual Inspection of All Components, including the Facepiece, Regulator, Cylinder and Valve Assembly will be conducted _________.

A

Weekly

34
Q

According to TB 266, the MSA Premaire Cadet G1 Escape Pack Visual Inspection and Function Test. A Functional Test will be performed_________.

A

Monthly

35
Q

According to TB 262 Cylinder Tagging. Each cylinder has a colored zip tie secured around the neck of the cylinder. The colors represent_____________.

A

A Hydrostatic Testing Schedule

36
Q

According to TB 264, Spare MSA G1 Facepieces C73 and C74. Each will carry a compliment of ______ temporary facepieces.

A

5

37
Q

According to TB 264, Spare MSA G1 Facepieces C73 and C74. If a facepiece is issued to replace a faulty or damaged one, what must be done with the issued replacement when the original personal issued is repaired and returned.

A

The issued replacement is cleaned, sanitized and returned to the original issuing Car73 or Car74

38
Q

According to TB 265 MSA G1 Facepiece and Regulator Cleaning and Disinfecting, what is the minimum recommended contact time for the Facepiece and Regulator using Confidence Plus 2.

A

30 seconds

39
Q

According to Training index files, Elevator Awareness, which of the following is not found in the 3 Golden Rules for Operating an Elevator in Firefighter Emergency Operations (FEO)?

A

Have the RP (Responsible Person) operate the elevator.

40
Q

According to Training index files, Elevator Awareness, which of the following is not considered an Elevator classification?

A

Dumbwaiters

41
Q

According to Training index files, Elevator Awareness, who is the Authority Having Jurisdiction with regards to elevators in Ontario?

A

TSSA (Technical Standards & Safety Act)

42
Q

According to, Training Bulletin 38, Aerial Ladder Load Limits and Interpreting Load Charts, under what condition can an Aerial Ladder be lowered to rest upon a structure?

A

Under no circumstances

43
Q

According to, Training Bulletin 38, Aerial Ladder Load Limits and Interpreting Load Charts, which of these are typically found on an Aerial Ladder Load Limit Chart?

A

Ladder Angle
Permissible Loads on each individual section, based on the Ladder’s angle of elevation
Permissible Loads on each individual section, based on whether the aerial water tower is flowing water or not. (Wet or Dry)
D) All of the above

44
Q

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Fire Streams 08: At 212 degrees F/100 Degrees C, water expands approximately how many times its’ original volume as it changes to steam?

A

1700

45
Q

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Fire Streams 08: Water Hammer, which can cause damage to pumps, hoses, watermains, couplings, nozzles and hydrants, can be prevented by?

A

Operating nozzle controls, hydrants, valves, and hose clamps slowly

46
Q

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Pump Operator’s Awareness Course 2020, what is the nozzle pressure / flow rate for the Akron Assault 45mm nozzle?

A

350 kpa / 570 LPM

47
Q

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Pump Operator’s Awareness Course 2020, what is the nozzle pressure / flow rate for the Akron Assault 65mm nozzle?

A

350 kpa / 950 LPM

48
Q

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Pump Operator’s Awareness Course 2020, what is the friction loss for 15M of the 45mm hose? / 65mm hose?

A

45mm – 120 kpa / 65mm – 45 kpa

49
Q

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Pump Operator’s Awareness Course 2020, when does Cavitation occur?

A

When discharge tries to exceed the supply to the pump

50
Q

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Pump Operator’s Awareness Course 2020, what is the minimum residual pressure that should be maintained on the intake gauge when being supplied by a pressurized source?

A

140 kpa

51
Q

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Pump Operator’s Awareness Course 2020, what is the friction loss ( +/- ) per meter? / per storey?

A

10 kpa per meter / 30 kpa per storey

52
Q

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Pump Operator’s Awareness Course 2020, what is the pressure required at the eductor for the purpose of creating Foam.

A

1400 kpa

53
Q

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Rural Water Supply Operations 2018, what “Mode” should a Pressure Governor be in for the purpose of Priming the Pump?

A

RPM

54
Q

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Rural Water Supply Operations 2018, what engine RPM should you be at for the purpose of Priming the Pump?

A

1000

55
Q

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Rural Water Supply Operations 2018, what appliance should be installed at the mouth of the Fire Location’s laneway, through which water will be supplied to the 100mm hose, feeding the attack or relay pump?

A

Clappered Siamese Manifold

56
Q

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Rural Water Supply Operations 2018, at what pressure should the drafting pump initially set the discharge pressure to the attack/fire or relay pump?

A

500 kpa

57
Q

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Rural Water Supply Operations 2018, how many portable water tanks will be set up in front of the Drafting Pump?

A

3

58
Q

According to, Training Bulletin 14, PPV, where should the positive pressure fan be placed?

A

4’ to 6’ outside of the doorway

59
Q

According to Training Bulletin 14, PPV, and the use of Positive Pressure Fans with Garage Doors it states?

A

Only partially open Garage Doors and use 2 or more fans

60
Q

According to Training Bulletin #259 – Hypothermia Packaging – Patient Wrap, which of the following is NOT a component of the patient wrap a.k.a. the “Thermal Burrito”?

A

Thermal Exposure Suit

61
Q

According to Training Bulletin 280 – 2Tinga Rapid Inflation Tunnel (RIT) Craft, what is the operational pressure of the red (side) tunnels of the craft? (Training Bulletin is still being crafted and therefore without a number)

A

3 pounds per square inch (PSI)

62
Q

According to the video series “The Art of Reading Smoke”, What are the stages of fire growth in a “Vent Controlled” fire?

A

Ignition, First Growth, Vent Limited, Explosive Growth, Fully Developed, Decay

63
Q

According to the video series “The Art of Reading Smoke”, What are the stages of fire growth in a “fuel controlled” fire?

A

Ignition, Incipient, Fully Developed, Decay

64
Q

According to the video series “The Art of Reading Smoke”, which of these factors do NOT influence the smoke?

A

Time of day

65
Q

According to the Ice Rescue Operations Theory training, what kind of ice can be described as fragile and easily broken, comprised of newly forming ice on a water’s surface?

A

Frazil

66
Q

According to Training Bulletin #257 – CMC Throwline Bag Set, how long are the rope in the rescue throw bags HFD uses for ice water/shore-based water rescue?

A

75 feet

67
Q

According to Training Bulletin #256 – Sterling WaterLine Water Rescue Rope, how long are the ropes HFD uses to tether to shore for ice water rescue?

A

A) 300 feet

68
Q

According to Training Bulletin #275 – Non-locking Carabiners for Ice Rescue, what is the Major Axis Strength (also known as the MBS or Minimum Breaking Strength) for the non-locking carabiners?

A

31 kN (kiloNewtons)

69
Q

According to Training Bulletin, TB-033, Initial Attack Considerations for Single Family Dwelling Fires, the article states that SFD (Single Family Dwelling) fires accounted for ________ % of residential fires in 1994?

A

70 %

70
Q

According to Training Bulletin, TB-033, Initial Attack Considerations for Single Family Dwelling Fires, which of the following is NOT considered a factor which can contribute to an attic fire?

A

Platform construction

71
Q

According to Training Bulletin, TB-033, Initial Attack Considerations for Single Family Dwelling Fires, window size, shape and location suggest room use. A small, narrow window between two larger windows usually indicates a __________ room?

A

Bathroom

72
Q

Training Bulletin 195 - When the precision gas mixture cylinder, Industrial Scientific Cal Gas, used for bump testing the Ventis MX4 gas detector, becomes empty, what form is required to be completed to receive a new full cylinder?

A

Form 437 faxed to Breathing Apparatus Technician

73
Q

Training Bulletin 195 - When should the Ventis MX4 be turned on?

A

Fresh air environment

HFD Acting Exam Correct Answers Only (17 decks)

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