Torts Flashcards

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1
Q

Manufacturing Defects

A

“The lemon product”
Construction defect - item was not constructed to the manufacturer’s own specifications - didn’t follow their own design
Product ended up being dangerous in a way that consumers would not expect

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2
Q

Design Defect

A

Not just one product is unreasonably dangerous with this defect - THEY ALL ARE
The design itself makes the product unreasonably dangerous

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3
Q

Failure to Warn

A

The product is actually manufactured to the manufacturer’s own specifications, and it’s not a fucked up product, but the plaintiff is complaining that the manufacturer failed to give adequate warnings about the DANGER of the product

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4
Q

Strict Products Liability & Commercial Suppliers
Four main elements we must satisfy for any strict products liability action:

A

1) The defendant is a commercial supplier who
2) Produced or sold a defective product (one of the three types) which…
3) Factually and proximately caused;
4) The plaintiff’s bodily injury or injury to the plaintiff’s property (other than the product itself)

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5
Q

What is a commercial supplier?

A

A merchant who regularly deals in a certain type of goods

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6
Q

In a strict products liability action, anyone along the distribution line can be held liable. Who does this include?

A

The manufacturer, the wholesaler, the retailer - all three can be sued if the end product causes an injury to person or property

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7
Q

Single-time sellers, eBay sellers, auction sellers, garage salers AREN’T in the regular course of business

A

NOT subject to strict liability

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8
Q

Food is defective if it contains an ingredient that a consumer would not expect which INCLUDES _______

A

BOTH foreign material (like glass & plastic) AND natural material

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9
Q

Remember the difference between a commercial supplier and a service provider!

A

Ex. The barber is not a commercial supplier of scissors if you accidentally get cut.
If you get injured, you must pursue it in negligence.
If goods are collateral to the services, the service provider is not liable under the strict liability theory.

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10
Q

Commercial lessors (like car rental companies) ARE liable under strict products liability BECAUSE

A

their goods are NOT incidental to the service, like cars ARE the service

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11
Q

Manufacturing Defect
Sellers of component parts are only liable under two situations

A

1) If the component itself is defective and the defect caused the harm; or
2) If the seller of the component part substantially participates in the integration of the component and the integration caused the product to be defective

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12
Q

The RAD must be:

A

SAFER &
Practical (can’t make the product difficult to use) &
Cost-effective (same cost or slightly more expensive)

The fact finder will balance everything out to see if the benefits exceeded the risks

Must show ACTUAL CAUSE (if X had been X, X would have never happened)

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12
Q

Design Defect

A

Two elements: Foreseeable risk and RAD (reasonable alternative design)

When the plaintiff is saying that the foreseeable risks of a product could have been reduced or avoided by a RAD by the manufacturer, and the omission of the design makes the product unreasonably safe.

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13
Q

The fact that something is “state of the art” does not bar recovery as a matter of law -

A

there still could have been a reasonable alternative design

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14
Q

Government safety standards

A

If you follow government standards = this doesn’t mean you are automatically not defective. It’s just some evidence towards you not being defective

if you don’t follow government safety standards = your product is instantly defective

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15
Q

Warnings are NOT a full substitute for the duty to safely design a product

A

if you can implement a low cost reasonable alternative design you should do that first

Warnings come into place when there is no possible RAD. When there is absolutely no RAD, an adequate warnings can make the product reasonably safe.

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16
Q

Adequacy test

A

The warning itself must be designed so that it can
(1) reasonably catch the attention of the consumer,
(2) be understandable and show the specific risks involved with the product, and
(3) be of an intensity justified by the magnitude of risks

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17
Q

If a substantial part of the population could be harmed, then

A

a warning is required

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18
Q

Some products regarded as so obviously dangerous to the consumer do not need a warning.

A

ex. firearms, knives

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19
Q

Just because a label complies with federal labeling standards (such as the FDA) does NOT mean it will comply with possibly more stringent state law product labelling standards

A

The federal rule is the floor - the state rule can always set the ceiling way higher

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20
Q

Learned Intermediary

A

Doctrine that states that so long as manufacturer’s of drugs, medicine, or medical devices give adequate warnings to the physicians that prescribe them - their duty to warn is fulfilled

(The extent of the manufacturer’s duty to warn ends with warning the learned intermediary)

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21
Q

Not enough that the product is defective, it must be shown that that the defect existed when it left the defendant’s control

A

If a product is BRAND NEW and purchased through normal supply channels, it is assumed that the defect existed when it left the supplier’s control

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22
Q

Pure economic loss rule

A

To bring a strict products liability claim you have to allege either
(1) bodily harm, or (2) damage to property OTHER THAN THE DEFECTIVE PRODUCT ITSELF

NO consequential damages

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23
Q

Breach of warranty claims for products

A

REQUIRES privity (only the purchaser and their family can sue)

can bring breach of warranty claim if the defendant represents that their product is fit for a certain purpose…and then the failure of the product to actually perform as warranted renders it unreasonably dangerous

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24
Q

To impose strict liability, the product must be used in both a ________

A

foreseeable or reasonably anticipated way

Abnormal use of the product fully negates the manufacturer of liability

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25
Q

Product designers and manufacturers have NO responsibility to design or warn against unreasonable or abnormal uses of a product

A

Abnormal use of the product must be both unintended by the manufacturer and unforeseeable to them

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26
Q

Whether the product was altered after it left the manufacturer

A

There is NO LIABILITY if the product was altered, UNLESS the alteration was foreseeable

The alteration/modification to the product MUST occur between the time it left the manufacturer and when it was used by the consumer

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27
Q

Strict liability will NOT apply to _______

A

people outside the chain of production

look for terms “product is new and unopened” to signify that it isn’t from a third-party seller & hasn’t been modified

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28
Q

To prove that the plaintiff assumed the risk, the manufacturer has to show that :

A

(1) The plaintiff knew about the product defect (they must not only KNOW THAT IT IS DEFECTIVE, they must also KNOW THAT IT POSES A RISK OF SERIOUS BODILY INJURY)

(2) The plaintiff voluntarily proceeded to encounter that danger, even though it was unreasonable to do so

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29
Q

Proximate cause

A

a legal fiction that says we want people to be liable for things which were foreseeable to them at the time of their negligent actions

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30
Q

Danger invites rescue

A

Proximate cause is satisfied in the situation of a rescuer

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31
Q

When a patient poses a serious threat to a NAMED individual, the psychiatrist has a duty to warn or protect that individual, which could include:

A

1) Warning the potential victim
2) Notifying law enforcement
3) or taking other reasonable steps to stop them

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32
Q

Intentional criminal acts often ARE superseding causes if they are

A

UNFORESEEABLE

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33
Q

Res ipsa

A

The thing speaks for itself

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34
Q

Attractive nuisance

A

Imposes a special duty on a landowner when it comes to conditions that involve the risk of harm to children who cannot recognize the danger themselves.

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35
Q

Attractive nuisance elements

A

–The nuisance must be in a place where children are known or are likely to trespass;
–The landowner either knows or has reason to know that artificial conditions on the land exist and realizes that they present an unreasonable risk of death or serious bodily injury to children
–if it’s cheap to fix and the risk of injuring a child is great - this cuts against the landowner
–The condition is such that a child would not discover it or appreciate the risk

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36
Q

Undiscovered trespasser

A

No duty for natural or artificial conditions, or activities

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37
Q

Discovered Trespasser

A

Duty to warn of or make safe known manmade “hidden” death traps, and not to willfully or wantonly injure them by doing crazy activities,
No duty to warn about natural conditions

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38
Q

People of low intelligence are held to the same standard of care as ___

A

a reasonable person

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39
Q

Standard of care for a child?

A

A child engaged in childlike activities will be held to a standard of care of a child of similar age and experience

40
Q

Standard of care for blind person or physical disability

A

A blind person or someone with a physical (not a mental) disability is held to different tailored standard of care

41
Q

Negligence per se (shortcut to satisfy duty & breach)

A

We are substituting a statute for our normal “reasonable person standard of care”

Need a statute
then a 2 part test:
The right harm HAPPENED
The right plaintiff was HURT

42
Q

Failure to follow industry custom

A

is different from failure to follow a statute

43
Q

Standard of care for professionals (people with special licenses)

A

Held to the standard of care of an AVERAGE member of the profession in good standing in a similar community

Specialists are held to a NATIONAL standard of all those who practice that particular specialty

44
Q

Licensees

A

Duty to warn about known concealed dangers

No duty to warn about obvious conditions known to the licensee
No duty to inspect and discover dangerous shit

45
Q

Invitees

A

Duty to discover all KNOWABLE dangerous conditions

Exercise reasonable care and actually discover hidden dangers which should have been reasonably discoverable

46
Q

Res ipsa loquitur

A

This would not have happened absent negligence

Other causes are eliminated (including those by plaintiff)

Was the thing that caused the injury under the exclusive control of the defendant?

look for answer choices that say “infer”

47
Q

Medical res ipsa

A

The exclusive control element does not exist in cases of medical res ipsa

48
Q

Joint and several liability

A

The entire amount can be collected from any of the defendants

Then the defendants have to go after each other in contribution actions

Concurrent tortfeasors are jointly and severally liable for an indivisible injury

49
Q

When can you get punitive damages?

A

Only for willful and wanton purposeful misconduct

50
Q

What do you need to show in medical malpractice actions?

A

That you had at least 51% chance of survival to recover

51
Q

Are employers liable for independent contractors?

A

Not usually
Only liable when they are negligent is hiring them or the duty given to them is non-delegable

Duty is non delegable when you keep land open to the public and are under obligation of reasonable care to protect invitee’s

If you hire someone to do an inherently dangerous activity, you can’t escape liability by hiring an independent contracor

52
Q

Employers ARE liable for things their employees do IF

A

it is within the scope of the employee’s employment

53
Q

Intent

A

Specific Intent: The defendant acted with a specific purpose to bring about a particular consequence.

General Intent: The defendant acted with knowledge to a substantial certainty that a particular consequence would happen.

54
Q

Transferred intent

A

a legal doctrine that allows the defendant’s intent to shift from person to person, from tort to tort, and from person to person, AND tort to tort.

55
Q

Battery

A

Intentional act by the defendant
A harmful or offensive contact
To the plaintiff’s person (includes anything connected to the plaintiff’s person like a backpack or purse)

Need to prove causation

56
Q

Assault

A

Intentional creation of reasonable apprehension (awareness) of an imminent harmful or offensive contact (must be immediate)

Words are not enough, must be an overt act

57
Q

False imprisonment

A

Intent to confine plaintiff to a bounded area

Must be aware of confinement

58
Q

Shopkeepers privilege

A

may detain shoplifter by using reasonable force until investigation is complete - cannot use deadly force

59
Q

Trespass to Land

A

(1) A physical invasion of plaintiff’s real property by defendant
(2) The intent to bring about physical invasion
(3) causation

Trespasser doesn’t even have to know the land belongs to someone else.

60
Q

Trespass to Chattels

(Chattels - an old english word for personal property - not land, your personal stuff)

A

(1) An act by the defendant that interferes with the plaintiff’s right to possess their chattel;
(2) Intent to perform the act of interference;
(3) Causation; and
(4) Unlike the other intentional torts: Damages.

61
Q

Conversion

A

Involves the same prima facie case as trespass to chattels but the interference has to be more serious

Defendant has to pay the FMV of the chattel.

62
Q

For a trespass action, the plaintiff doesn’t have to be an owner of the land

A

They can be anyone in actual or constructive possession of the land.

Transferred intent applies in this tort too.

Damages are NOT required

63
Q

Defense to Intentional Torts:
Consent

A

Actual (Express) Consent - plaintiff expresses a willingness to submit to the defendant to its conduct

Fraud only negates the consent if it goes against an essential matter

Person must have capacity to consent (Incompetents, drunken persons, infants)

Cannot consent to a criminal act (but under the modern trend, you can consent as long as the criminal act doesn’t breach the peace)

64
Q

Defense to Intentional Torts:
Consent Implied by law

A

Saving a person choking

65
Q

Defense to Intentional Torts:
Self-Defense

A

If a person has reasonable grounds to believe they are being, or about to be, attacked, they may use such force as reasonably necessary for protection against the potential injury.

Only enough force to prevent the perceived harm may be used.
Deadly force may be used only if it’s reasonable to believe there is a danger of serious injury or death.

66
Q

Duty to retreat

A

Requires a person to retreat before using deadly force unless they are in their own home

67
Q

Defense of Others

A

If a person reasonably believes that the person being aided would have the right of self-defense, the defense of the defense of others is available.

68
Q

Defense of property

A

Generally, a person can use reasonable force to defend their property

Ask the would-be assailant to desist

69
Q

Challenges to defense of property

A

First complication is when the actor has a privilege to enter the land

The defense of property is limited to preventing the commission of a tort against the defendant’s property

70
Q

Recapture of Chattels

A

If someone wrongfully takes something from another person, reasonable force can be used to re-acquire the chattel

Recapture may only be from the tortfeasor or someone who knew or should have known that the chattels were tortiously taken

71
Q

Private Necessity

A

The act is solely to prevent harm to a person or a limited number of people.

The actor is liable for actual damages they cause.

If the act was to benefit the landowner, the defense is absolute.

72
Q

Public Necessity

A

A person may interfere with the real or personal property of another if the interference is reasonably necessary to avoid injury that is substantially more serious than the invasion undertaken.

Ex. avert a national disaster. Firefighters damage your home putting out a fire.
The actor isn’t liable for trespass or damaging the land or chattels interfered with.

73
Q

Negligence Prima Facie Elements

A

Duty
Breach
Causation
Damages

74
Q

Duty

A

What standard of care applies, that is, what duty is owed?

Who is the duty to exercise that standard of care owed to?

75
Q

Reasonably Prudent Person

A

An average person
Taking reasonable care in their actions

Duty is to act as a REASONABLY PRUDENT PERSON would act under the same or similar circumstances - to FORESEEABLE PLAINTIFFS

76
Q

Balancing Test to determine how much care should be exercised in a given situation

A

Cost of Prevention (low) + Likelihood+Gravity of Loss (great) = Duty

Cost of Prevention (great) + Likelihood+Gravity of Loss (remote/low) = No Duty

77
Q

Who do the courts allow to determine issues of duty and foreseeability?

A

The jury

78
Q

Res ipsa loquitur

A

A tool used to help prove a negligence case in certain circumstances

It raises a permissible inference that there has been a BREACH of duty based on circumstantial evidence

79
Q

Res ipsa - the instrumentality that caused the injury was in the exclusive control of the defendant

A

If control wasn’t exclusive, res ipsa generally cannot be used

80
Q

Res ipsa loquitur presumption aids in establishing the prime facie case (breach element)

A

Presumption is permissible but NOT mandatory

81
Q

Causation (But for test)

A

Multiple acts can be a “but for” cause of the plaintiff’s injury.

If a negligent act is totally unrelated to an injury - if we can’t trace a line from the negligent act to the injury - the negligent act isn’t a but for cause.

82
Q

Substantial factor test

A

used when several causes merge to bring about a single injury

83
Q

Ascertainable causes approach to negligence

A

The plaintiff must prove that both defendants were negligent and that the harm has been caused by one of them, but it is uncertain as to which one.
Then the burden of proof shifts to the defendants, and each must show that their negligence was not the cause in fact.

84
Q

Proximate Cause

A

Serves as a limitation on factual cause
Factual causes can be far ranging, and proximate cause reins in that liability

85
Q

If a doctor commits malpractice due to your injuries caused by plaintiff, then what?

A

A tortfeasor is liable for subsequent simple malpractice related to the injury they caused.

Also applies to negligence by rescuers b/c they are foreseeable

86
Q

What about later injuries resulting from the original injury weakening the victim?

A

Original tortfeasor also is liable for later injuries resulting from the original injury weakening the victim

87
Q

Superseding force break the causal chain

A

An unforeseeable result is caused by an unforeseeable intervening force is then not the proximate cause of the injury

88
Q

Unforeseeable extent or severity of harm

A

The fact that the extent or severity of the harm was not foreseeable does not relieve the defendant of liability.

89
Q

Damages are available to recover for:

A

Personal Injury
Harm to property

90
Q

When can a plaintiff not recover?

A

If their loss is only economic, meaning there was no harm to person or property

If there was harm - then economic damages are available as well

91
Q

Can a plaintiff recover punitive damages in a tort action?

A

No - we punish intentional tortious conduct but as a society accept that “accidents will happen,” so we don’t punish a tortfeasor for not being careful enough.

92
Q

Collateral Source Rule

A

Damages aren’t mitigated in favor of the defendant just because the plaintiff receives money for their injury from another source, such as a gift from a relative to keep the victim housed and fed while they recover, or sick pay from an employer, or the like

92
Q

If any elements are missing (breach, duty, causation, damages) what should the defendant do?

A

Move for a directed verdict in a pre-trial motion.

93
Q

Contributory Negligence

A

Plaintiff was negligent with respect to their injury as well as the defendant - then plaintiff cannot recover for the defendant.

94
Q

Assumption of Risk

A

The plaintiff voluntarily assumed the risk of their injury occurring.

95
Q

Partial Comparative Negligence

A

A plaintiff cannot recover if their negligence was greater than that of the defendant(s)

96
Q

Pure Comparative Negligence

A

The amount of damages that the plaintiff can collected is limited based on the assigned fault determined by the court.

97
Q
A