MBE Review Flashcards

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1
Q

The negative implications of the Dormant Commerce Clause do not apply when the state acts as a market participant and applies when

A

A state operates as if they are a private entity and allows a state to favor its own residents in the course of its own dealings when acting as a market participant rather than in a regulatory capacity.

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2
Q

What is the full faith and credit clause of the Constitution?

A

It obligates the courts of each state to recognize the final judgments of the courts of every other state.

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3
Q

SCOTUS precedent establishes that a state law requiring children to attend public schools infringes on the rights of parents to control the upbringing of their children. Is this a fundamental right?

A

This is a fundamental right protected by the due process clause of the 14th Amendment.

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4
Q

A state law that infringes on the right to education must undergo strict scrutiny. What does strict scrutiny require?

A

The STATE must prove that the law is necessary to further a compelling state interest.

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5
Q

Durational residency requirements violate the right to travel protected through the

A

Privileges and Immunities clause of the 14th Amendment

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6
Q

The privileges and immunities clause only

A

Reaches actions by a state that discriminate against citizens of other states.

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7
Q

An ordinance with a content-neutral restriction of expression must satisfy _______ scrutiny, which requires ____

A

intermediate —– the city to prove that the ordinance is narrowly tailored to an important government interest and that it leaves open alternative channels of communication.

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8
Q

The First Amendment does not protect commercial speech that is _____

A

false or misleading

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9
Q

Expressive conduct which is content-neutral faces ______ scrutiny

A

intermediate scrutiny

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10
Q

SCOTUS has consistently rejected claims that the freedom of the press protected by the First Amendment exempts the press from activities __________

A

from laws of general application such as contract law.

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11
Q

SCOTUS has held that the freedom of association protected by the First Amendment prohibits a state from inquiring about an individual’s associations in order to _________

A

withhold a right or benefit because of the individual’s beliefs.

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12
Q

The concept of federalism embedded in the 10th Amendment disables Congress from requiring states _________

A

from enacting laws or administering federal law.

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13
Q

Does Congress play a role in the removal of executive officers?

A

No

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14
Q

A state tax is valid if it is nondiscriminatory and _______

A

DOES NOT APPLY directly to the federal government.

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15
Q

Are admissions of a party opponent admissible under FRE?

A

Yes if plaintiff had personal knowledge of what the defendant said and can testify about it.

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16
Q

Admission of a party opponent is admissible to ________

A

IMPEACH the defendant’s testimony as a prior inconsistent statement and as SUBSTANTIVE EVIDENCE.

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17
Q

A doctor’s letter is not a business record if _________

A

it is not prepared in the ordinary course of regularly conducted activity.

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18
Q

A hospital record is hearsay but qualifies as a record of regularly recorded conduct.

A

Absence of an entry in such a record is admissible to prove the non occurrence of a matter that would normally have been recorded if it had occurred.

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19
Q

Learned treatises exception

A

Provides that if a court finds a publication to be a reliable authority, then ‘statements’ may be read into evidence, but the publication MAY NOT be received as an exhibit.

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20
Q

Is the jury allowed to bring learned treatises into the jury room?

A

NO - cannot be received as an exhibit.

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21
Q

Are computerized records a testimonial statement?

A

No

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22
Q

Is the declarant subject to cross-exam within the meaning of the hearsay exception for prior identifications?

A

Yes, even if the witness lacks all memory of the prior identification

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23
Q

Are statements made during settlement negotiations in a private civil action - (negotiations not involving a public office) admissible?

A

No - they are inadmissible in a subsequent criminal case arising out of the same incident.

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24
Q

Is evidence of subsequent remedial measures admissible?

A

Only to prove the feasibility of precautionary measures.

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25
Q

Three basic criteria are required to permit the testimony of an expert witness:

A

(1) the expert is qualified to give an opinion on the subject matter;
(2) the state of the art of scientific knowledge permits a reasonable opinion to be given by the expert;
(3) the subject matter goes beyond the understanding of the average layman

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26
Q

An expert may testify as to the way drug dealers operate and to the meaning of code words that dealers use, as long as the testimony is based on _______

A

their expert opinion and not on the defendant’s specific mental processes.

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27
Q

A plaintiff often needs experts to prove causation, and the trial judge is responsible for making sure the expert testimony is relevant/grounded on scientific research - before an otherwise qualified expert may testify as to causation, and the proponent of the evidence must ________

A

usually establish not only that the evidence is relevant and helpful to the jury, but also that the methodology employed by the expert is reliable.

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28
Q

Prior bad acts can be admitted to prove the defendant’s conduct is offered for some purpose other than to show that the defendant is a bad person, such as _____

A

Intent, knowledge, lack of accident, and modus operandi - can be offered as proof that the defendant committed the crime.

Convictions are admissible both to prove that the defendant committed the crime and to impeach the defendant.

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29
Q

The defendant’s character for peacefulness is a pertinent trait of character. Can the defendant offer evidence of his reputation for peacefulness?

A

Yes

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30
Q

The production of evidence “sufficient to support a finding” that the evidence is what the proponent claims it to be is the proper standard for ______________

A

authentication.

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31
Q

If a defendant denies a plaintiff’s injuries are severe, the plaintiff is entitled to show the severity of injuries by introducing a _______

A

photograph. The evidence relates directly to the appropriate amount of damages.

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32
Q

A prior inconsistent statement by a party may be received into evidence to impeach and may be used as substantive evidence if

A

the prior inconsistent statement was given under oath, AND as part of a formal trial, hearing, proceeding, deposition (includes statements made in a grand jury proceeding).

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33
Q

After a witness’s character for truthfulness has been attacked, the opposing party may then rehabilitate the witness by regarding the witness’s good character for truthfulness through __________

A

reputation opinion or opinion testimony.

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34
Q

Extrinsic evidence may be admitted to impeach a witness’s ability to perceive the events _______

A

as they transpired.

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35
Q

If the witness has testified that she knows about the defendant’s reputation, the prosecutor has a right to test the basis and adequacy of that knowledge, as well as the nature of the community itself.

A

If the witness answers that she had not heard about the arrest, the admission could indicate that she is not very knowledgeable about the defendant’s reputation in the community, because such an arrest would likely have a negative effect on that reputation.

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36
Q

Evidence that is relevant to some issue or issues at trial other than the defendant’s character is admissible if

A

the evidence’s probative value is not substantially outweighed by the risk of unfair prejudice.

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37
Q

It is permissible to impeach a witness for bias by showing any fact that would give the witness a reason to testify favorably or negatively about a party’s case.

A

A successful showing of bias on the part of a witness would have a tendency to make the facts to which he testified less probable in the eyes of the jury because it suggests the testimony is false, slanted, or mistaken in one party’s favor.

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38
Q

In a criminal case, judges are liberal in permitting the admission of circumstantial evidence to prove guilt, so long as the evidence points logically to the defendant’s guilt and excludes to a moral certainty, every other reasonable hypothesis -

A

it is not necessary for each piece of circumstantial evidence to point to no other hypothesis but guilt, but the totality must.

39
Q

The court MUST take judicial notice of a fact if the court is supplied with the necessary information to indicate that the fact is not subject to reasonable dispute.

A

In a criminal case, “the court MUST instruct the jury that it MAY OR MAY NOT accept the judicially noticed fact as conclusive.”

40
Q

Refresh recollection

A

If a testifying witness cannot clearly remember something, the examining attorney may present any type if item to the witness to refresh the witness’s recollection

41
Q

If a party uses a writing to refresh the witness’s recollection…

A

The witness CANNOT read from it while testifying and the adverse party may inspect the document used to refresh the witness’s memory, cross-examine the witness about it, and introduce parts of it into evidence.

42
Q

What is the advantage to having a Purchase Money Mortgage (PMM)?

A

Has super priority over all other non-purchase money mortgages and claims, EVEN IF THE NON-PURCHASE MONEY mortgage or liens are recorded first.

RECORDED PMM have priority over BOTH prior recorded mortgages and liens AND subsequently acquired property claims, whether or NOT the purchase-money lender has notice of their existence.

43
Q

What is the effect of an UNRECORDED PMM?

A

Still wins against PRIOR recorded mortgages and liens,
BUT loses against SUBSEQUENTLY RECORDED (AFTER-ACQUIRED) mortgages and liens that come after it

44
Q

If the principal (loan) is changed or the interest rate is raised without the junior lien holders’ consent, then what?

A

The junior lien holder has priority over the raised amount.

45
Q

If a mortgage allows for FUTURE PAYMENT ADVANCES, these payments are split into two categories:

A

(1) Mandatory future payments
(2) Optional advance payments

46
Q

What priority do MANDATORY future payments have?

A

The same priority as the source mortgage

47
Q

Who has priority over OPTIONAL future payment?

A

Junior mortgages/liens have priority over OPTIONAL payments the senior mortgagee is NOT OBLIGATED to make.

48
Q

Adverse Possession Elements

A

–Continuous
–Open, visible, and notorious
–Actual (and exclusive) possession
–Hostile

49
Q

Adverse Possession - Continuous

A

Must be uninterrupted for the amount of time the statute says - common law is 20 years
*Not continuous look for one full year of not showing up to the property. Seasonal is fine.

50
Q

Adverse Possession - Open, visible, and notorious

A

Show that the actual owner knew you were there and didn’t agree to it; or the owner should have known

51
Q

Adverse Possession - Actual (and exclusive) possession

A

Need to have ACTUALLY physically trespassed, and the owner can’t be possessing the property WITH you

52
Q

Adverse Possession - Hostile

A

You don’t have the true owner’s permission to be there

53
Q

Constructive Adverse Possession

A

You only need to control a part of the land, and so long as you BELIEVED you owned the whole thing, you get the whole thing.

54
Q

What happens once the adverse possession period ends?

A

The adverse possessor has superior right over the true owner, BUT still have to bring a QUIET TITLE action to establish that they are the true owner.

55
Q

What happens If you don’t “quiet the title” to the property?

A

It will not be marketable, as it will be under the threat of litigation

56
Q

What is Tacking?

A

It allows one adverse possessor to team up with another adverse possessor and add up their time together to get the property from the owner

57
Q

Tacking requires privity, which can be achieved by:

A

–Blood (family members)
–Contract
–Deed, OR
–Will
Possession still has to be CONTINUOUS

58
Q

What happens if two or more people adversely possess the land TOGETHER?

A

They acquire the title as tenants-in-common

59
Q

Adverse possessors can ONLY take the rights the owner themselves had

A

If you adversely possess a life estate, you get a life estate measured by the previous owner’s life.

60
Q

Requirements of a Deed

A

–In writing
–Signed the GRANTOR (the person selling the land)
–And describe the land (doesn’t have to be perfect)

61
Q

Can the grantee give back a deed that was successfully delivered?

A

Hell No - If the grantee wants to deliver it BACK to the grantor, the grantee has to make a NEW deed, and deliver it themselves

62
Q

Estoppel by Deed (“the after-acquired title” doctrine)

A

Occurs when someone actually executes a deed, but they don’t have the land
Normally not allowed BUT if they acquire the land later on, it just passes automatically to the person

63
Q

When can a breach of PRESENT covenant occur?

A

Only when the land is conveyed

64
Q

Do PRESENT covenants “run with the land?”

A

No, you can only sue the person who ACTUALLY sold you the land

65
Q

When can FUTURE covenants be breached?

A

At the time of delivery or anytime after

66
Q

Do FUTURE covenants “run with the land?”

A

Yes, so the present owner can sue the person BEFORE the grantor who gave the land to them if the earlier person caused the covenant to be broken.

67
Q

What is the Covenant of Seisin?

A

Present covenant
Promise that you’re in possession of the land you are trying to sell

68
Q

What is the Covenant of Right to Convey?

A

Present covenant
Promise that you have the legal right to sell the land

69
Q

What is the Covenant against Encumbrances?

A

Present covenant
Promise that there are no rights on the land held my 3rd parties (easements, covenants, servitudes, mortgages, liens, etc).

70
Q

What is the Covenant of Quiet Enjoyment?

A

Future covenant
Breached by eviction by grantor or by someone showing up with superior title

71
Q

What is the Covenant of Warranty?

A

Future covenant
If someone shows up with better title than you, the grantor will help you defend against them & will pay your legal costs

72
Q

What is the Covenant of Further Assurances?

A

Future covenant
Promise to make sure the title is always good
If defective, grantor will give you a new one & will take care of later discovered liens that spring from third parties.

73
Q

What is a quit claim deed?

A

A deed with no protections for the grantee

74
Q

What is a general warranty deed?

A

The gold standard that includes all 6 promises (all present & future covenants)

75
Q

What does a special warranty deed guarantee?

A

Promises on behalf of the grantor THEMSELVES, not anyone BEFORE them

76
Q

What are the special warranty deed promises?

A

Grantor promises they have the right the convey & property is free of encumbrances that arose when the grantor had the land or that were created by the grantor.

77
Q

What is lapse?

A

When someone getting a gift in a will dies before the testator

78
Q

What is an anti-lapse statute?

A

All states have some form of anti-lapse statute
It saves the gift and allows it to pass to the beneficiary’s living descendants, but generally ONLY IF the beneficiary was a sibling or child of the testator

79
Q

What is ademption?

A

When a specific bequest of property isn’t in the estate when you die (it was sold, lost, etc.)

80
Q

What is a bona-fide purchaser (BFP)?

A

An innocent buyer
MUST be purchase a property AND pay value (can’t be a gift, from an heir, from a will, be a judgment creditor, can’t have notice)

81
Q

What is a race statute?

A

The first to record the deed wins

82
Q

What is a notice statute?

A

First buyer doesn’t record
Second buyer has NO notice (doesn’t need to record himself) BUT WINS.

83
Q

What is a race-notice statute? (says “first” in the question)

A

First buyer doesn’t record
Second buyer has NO notice AND records BEFORE the first buyer

84
Q

What is the Shelter Rule?

A

When an heir, donee, or devisee gets the land from a BFP and becomes bona-fide themselves
EVEN IF they have notice, they are protected as a BFP

85
Q

What is Owner’s Title Insurance?

A

Investigates the title for you
Ensures that buyers will have clear title to the property
Indefinite duration and cover your heirs AND retroactive claims that arise later on

86
Q

Does owner’s title insurance run with the land and cover subsequent purchasers?

A

NO – it DOES NOT run with the land & does not cover subsequent purchasers (only you & heirs)

87
Q

What is a Lender’s Title Insurance?

A

It is basically required to get a mortgage
Protects the lender if anything is wrong with the property
DOES NOT protect the buyer
Expires with the final payment of the mortgage

88
Q

What is an equitable mortgage?

A

Giving the actual title to the property, then you can just easily take the property if they don’t pay

89
Q

What happens when a buyer ASSUMES a mortgage?

A

They are taking over the mortgage that already exists and agreeing to pay it
Buyer – primarily liable
Seller – secondarily liable

90
Q

What happens when a buyer TAKES SUBJECT to the mortgage?

A

They are agreeing to make the mortgage payments but are not personally liable
The ORIGINAL SELLER remains liable if they do not make the payments

If the mortgage has a “due on sale” clause, this is probably not allowed

91
Q

What is a deed in lieu of foreclosure?

A

This is ALLOWED, as long as it is fair, reasonable, and voluntary BUT you do not extinguish junior interests

92
Q

What is statutory redemption?

A

Law that gives the debtor the right to redeem his property anywhere from 6-12 months AFTER the foreclosure sale by paying the price of the foreclosure sale & interest, but NOT the original debt.
About ½ the states allow it

93
Q

What is equitable redemption?

A

The option to buy the property back before the foreclosure sale is completed by paying the overdue debt and the interest.
Remember: NO ONE can force someone to give up their right to equitable redemption

94
Q
A