Torts Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What are the baseline requirements for any intentional tort?

A

1) an act by D
2) Intent by D
3) Causation of the result to P from D’s act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

For what intentional torts must P prove damages in order to recover?

A

The act must be a volitional movement

Must prove damages for IIED, Trespass to chattel, conversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is required of the defendant’s intent in all intentional torts?

A

The intent must be the desire to produce the forbidden consequences that are the basis of the tort or the KNOWLEDGE THAT THE FORBIDDEN CONSEQUENCE IS SUBSTANTIALLY CERTAIN TO OCCUR

Defendant does not need to intend injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the doctrine of transferred intent?

A

Applies when the defendant intends to commit a tort against one person but instead:

1) commits a different tort against that person
2) commits the intended tort against another person
3) commits a different tort against a different person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the limitations on the doctrine of transferred intent?

A
Transferred intent can only be involved if both the tort intended and the tort that results are one of the following:
assault
Battery
False imprisonment
Trespass to land
Trespass to chattels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Can someone who lacks capacity commit an intentional tort?

A

Yes - incapacity (either mental or youth) does not prevent the intent to commit an intentional tort

INCAPACITY IS NOT A DEFENSE to an intentional tort (You can sue a 10 year old)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is required to prove the causation element in all intentional torts?

A

The defendants conduct must be a substantial factor in bringing about the injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the prima facie case for battery?

A

1) harmful or offensive contact (actually causes pain/injury or would be offensive to a reasonable person)
2) contact must be with the plaintiffs person or something connected to them/holding
3) intent to cause the contact (but not intent to cause the harm)
4) causation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a key limitation on what contact is offensive for purposes of battery?

A

1) Contact is only offensive if it has not been consented to and is offensive on an objective standard
2) consent is implied for ordinary contacts of everyday life (e.g. bumping in a crowded bus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a general principle to remember about intentional torts and hypersensitive plaintiffs?

A

A plaintiff’s hypersensitivity should be ignored Act as if P is a reasonable person and if a reasonable person couldn’t recover neither should this weird plaintiff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Does P have to be damaged by a battery/assault/false imprisonment to successfully sue on it?

A

No - can award nominal damages even if actual damages aren’t proved.P can get punitive damages if D’s conduct was malicious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Does the harmful or offensive contact necessary for battery have to be instantaneous?

A

No it can be at a delay (e.g. poisoning)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the prima facie case for assault?

A

1) Act by D causes P to reasonably apprehend an immediate battery (harmful/offensive contact)
2) Intent to cause the apprehension
3) causation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is required of the “apprehension” for an assault?

A

Fear is not required and P does not have to know D caused it but P does have to be AWARE of the IMMEDIATE battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does the “reasonable” requirement in reasonable apprehension mean for assault?

A

Exaggerated fears are not protected.D’s APPARENT ability to commit a battery is enough even if D cannot cause a battery (e.g. the unloaded gun)Reasonable apprehension turns on what P knows/should know - but if P knows there are no bullets in gun no reasonable apprehension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What effect can words have on the reasonable apprehension needed for assault?

A

Words can negate reasonable apprehension caused by acts that would have otherwise been created by conduct (e.g. conditional threats “if you weren’t by friend I’d hit you” or future tense threats)Words alone cannot create reasonable apprehension necessary for battery. (even if you say I’m going to hit you in 5 seconds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If P intends to provoke D and D gives in and assault/batters P is provocation a defense?

A

No - provocation is not a defense even if P intended to provoke D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the prima facie case for False Imprisonment?

A

1) D’s act/omission confines/restrains P to a bounded area
2) intent to confine/restrain
3) causation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are some commons ways for P to be confined/restrained?

A

1) physical barrier
2) force/threat of immediate force against P their family or their property
3) failure to release P when under legal obligation to do so
4) invalid use of legal authority (false arrest)

Moral pressure/FUTURE threats are not enough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How long does the period of confinement need to be for false imprisonment?

A

Doesn’t matter - any time period works

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does P have to know to have an action for false imprisonment?

A

P either has to perceive the confinement OR be harmed by it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is required for the area P is confined in to be “bounded” for purposes of false imprisonment?

A

Freedom of movement must be limited in all directions - no REASONABLE (can’t be humiliating/disgusting/dangerous) means of escape KNOWN (or reasonably discoverable) to P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Does D’s apparent ability to carry out an imminent verbal threat prove IIED?

A

1) extreme and outrageous conduct
2) P must suffer severe emotional distress (physical harm not required)
3) intent (RECKLESSNESS is good enough) and causation
————
No, that is the “true threat” concept from 1A’s fighting word’s carveout - not at all related to IIED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is meant by “extreme and outrageous” conduct necessary for IIED?

A

Must exceed all bounds of decency.
Conduct that is not normally outrageous can become outrageous IF:
1) it is continuous
2) it is committed by a certain type of D (common carrier/innkeeper)
3) directed toward a certain type of P (child/elderly/known to be pregnant/known sensitivity)

Insults alone are not enough even if distress is intended.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Does P actually have to be damaged to sue for IIED?

A

Yes - has to be actual not nominal damages (the more outrageous the conduct the less emphasis on proving harm/damages) Must be ACTUAL SEVERE emotional distress (no physical symptoms required but they help)

IIED is the only intentional tort that requires proving damages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How does causation work in IIED cases with a bystander plaintiff?

A

If D’s conduct is directed at a 3rd party and P (bystander) suffers severe emotional distress P can recover by showing the prima facie case of emotional distress OR prove all of

(1) that they were present when the injury incurred
(2) the distress resulted in bodily harm or the plaintiff is a close relative of the third person
(3) D knew of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the prima facie case for trespass to land?

A

1) Physical invasion
2) of the plaintiff’s real property
3) intent to enter the land (but not intent to trespass)
4) causation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is required for the physical invasion necessary for a trespass?

A

Must be tangible - can be a person or an object thrown onto land
Intangibles like vibrations and odors might be nuisance but are not trespass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Who has the claim for trespass to land if the land is currently leased by a LL to T or held by a life estate?

A

It is the person with possession of the land that has the right to sue for trespass (so the T not the LL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the intent required for trespass to land?

A

D only needs to intend to enter the land - does not need to know that the land belonged to someone else.

Operating a soap factory with knowledge with substantial certainty that soap flakes will drift onto neighbor’s property is good enough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Is only the surface of land protected by the trespass to land tort?

A

No - invasions under the surface or in the air (out to a reasonable distance) are also considered trespass to land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Does P have to be damaged by a trespass to land to successfully sue on it?

A

No - no need to actually show injury to the land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the prima facie case for trespass to chattels?

A

1) D interferes with P’s right to possess a chattel
2) intent to do the act of interference (but not intent to wrongfully interfere; mistakenly taking something supports liability)
3) causation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the two types of interference for trespass to chattel?

A

1) Could be damaging the chattel

2) could be dispossessing P of the chattel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the intent required for trespass to chattel?

A

D only needs to intend to do the thing that causes the interference
*Mistaken belief that they own the chattel is no defense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Does P have to be damaged by a trespass to chattel to successfully sue on it?

A

Yes - must prove damage to the chattel or some other damage caused by the dispossession

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the prima facie case for conversion?

A

1) D interferes with P’s right to possess a chattel
2) interference is so severe that D should pay the chattel’s full value
3) intent and causation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are some common ways for D to convert property?

A

1) theft
2) wrongful transfer/detention
3) substantially altering/damaging/misusing the chattel
Look for duration and intensity of the interference to move something from trespass to chattel to conversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the intent required for conversion?

A

D only needs to intend to do the thing that causes the interference

  • No requirement to deprive the owner is required
  • *Mistaken belief that they own the chattel is no defense
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Can intangibles ever be converted?

A

Only if tangible (reduced to physical form - e.g. a promissory note)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What damages can P recover for conversion?

A

Can recover damages (FMV at time of conversion) or
can get the property back (replevin)

If successfully sue for conversion but owner still has some remnant of the original property, the one who converts gets to keep the remnant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the defenses to intentional torts?

A

1) Consent
2) Defense of self/others/property
3) Public/Private Necessity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are some limitations on P’s ability to consent?

A

1) Can’t consent to a criminal act

2) P must have capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

To what extent does a person have to be informed of the risks of an act before they can consent to it?

A

1) Was there valid consent?
2) Did D stay within the scope of the consent?
—————
Must be informed of material facts (facts that a reasonable person would want to know)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Describe the capacity limitation to valid consent?

A

If no capacity -> no valid consent (drunk people young children)
If limited capacity -> Can consent to things within their understanding (mild mental disability older children)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How does the role of capacity differ in evaluating P and D’s capacity in an intentional tort?

A

Everyone has the capacity to commit a tort

But not everyone has capacity to consent to have tort committed upon them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

D expressly consents to P’s intentional tort what are the circumstances where D is still liable?

A

1) D knows P’s consent was mistaken and took advantage of it
2) D induced consent by fraud on an essential matter (but consent valid of fraud on a collateral matter)
3) consent obtained by duress (unless the threat was only a future or future economic threat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is implied consent to an intentional tort?

A

A reasonable person would infer consent from custom/usage or P’s conduct
(e.g. getting in the boxing ring or a new york subway)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When is consent implied by law for an intentional tort?

A

When action is necessary to save a person’s life or some other important interest in their person or property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What 3 questions do you ask when evaluating a defense of self/others/property for an intentional tort?

A

1) Does the defense apply (only applies to prevent a tort - already committed ones don’t apply)
2) Is a mistake permitted as to whether the tort being defended against is actually being committed?
3) Was proper force used?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is required for defense of self/others/property with regard to the harm defended against?

A

The threat/harm has to be coming from the Plaintiff (unless bystander case) to be able to assert self defense against them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

When is a person entitled to self-defense?

A

When a person reasonably believes that they are being or are immediately about to be attacked they can respond with reasonably necessary force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Is there a duty to retreat before using force self defense?

A

No but minority view imposes a duty to retreat before suing deadly force (unless inside the home)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

When is self defense available to the initial aggressor?

A

Self defense is not available to the initial aggressor unless the other party responds to nondeadly force with deadly force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

D defends themselves and accidentally injures a third party - is D liable?

A

D is only liable to the third party if D deliberately injured the third party in an attempt to protect themselves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Is mistake allowed in self defense?

A

Yes as long as the mistake is reasonable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How much force can be used in self defense?

A

Only the force that appears necessary to prevent the harm (including deadly force)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

When is defense of others a defense to an intentional tort?

A

D can use reasonable force to defend V to the same extent they reasonably believe V could use force to defend themselves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Is mistake allowed in defense of others?

A

Yes - reasonable mistake as to if V was entitled to defend themselves is allowed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

When is defense of property a defense to intentional tort?

A

IF first verbally request to desist (unless clear it would be futile or dangerous) THEN can use reasonable force to prevent the commission of a tort against their real or personal property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How long is the defense of property defense in operation relative to the commission of the tort against D?

A

D cannot invoke the defense for actions taken after the tort has already been committed against them but D can use reasonable force in hot pursuit of another who has converted D’s property b/c tort is ongoing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Defense of property yields to those who have a privilege to commit an intentional tort such as…

A

necessity recapture of chattels etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Is reasonable mistake allowed in defense of property?

A

Generally Yes
BUT mistake is not allowed if the person has a privilege (like necessity or recapture of chattels) unless the person causes D to reasonably believe the action is not privileged (e.g. won’t disclose the necessity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How much force can be used in defense of property?

A

Reasonable force but never force that causes death or serious bodily harm unless it’s a trespass that also poses a threat of serious bodily harm.

This means no traps, spring guns, vicious dogs to protect only property (can’t use force indirectly that you can’t use directly) Also can’t leave the electric current on to prevent people from stealing your transformers. Doesn’t matter if thief or trespasser or whatever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is “shopkeeper’s privilege”?

A

If a shopkeeper/security guard of a shop reasonably believes there was a theft, they can use reasonable force (probaby need to verbally request first) to stop the suspect and detain them for a reasonable time to investigate (probably <30 min)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

I’ve been dispossessed of my land by a trespasser can I reenter by force?

A

At common law yes

Modern law no (use summary action for ejectment - can’t use self help)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Someone originally had by chattel with permission but now they are trespassing against my chattel - can I retake?

A

Can only retake by peaceful means unless in hot pursuit then can use reasonable force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the standard for necessity?

A

Can commit an intentional tort against another’s PROPERTY when:

1) it is reasonably and apparently necessary to do so
2) in an emergency (harm imminent)
3) to avoid injury that is substantially more serious than the harm caused

The party claiming necessity cannot have created the choice between evils, but this seems to be narrowly construed on the bar exam - more likely a red herring when you see a “reasonableness” answer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the difference in public and private necessity?

A

Public necessity [absolute defense] is when D acts to avert a public disaster (D does not act out of self interest/preservation - saving a bus full of kids is not public necessity)

Private necessity [limited defense] is when D acts to prevent harm to a limited number of people probably including himself. D must pay compensatory damages for any injury they caused unless the act was to benefit the owner of the property. D does not have to pay nominal or punitive damages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

If a party trespasses to escape a dangerous storm can the person whose land/home is trespassed on throw them out if they want to?

A

No. The trespasser has a legal right to be there for the duration of the emergency because of necessity. If homeowner throws them out and they do get hurt homeowner could be liable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which governs each element of a tort - law or facts or logic?

A

Duty (Law)
Breach (Facts)
Causation (logic/policy)
Damages (Facts and law)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the questions you should ask when evaluating duty?

A

1) to whom do I owe the duty

2) What is the duty owed?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the baseline duty owed by D?

A

D owes a duty to not create any unreasonable risk of harm to foreseeable victims

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Who are foreseeable victims to whom a duty is owed?

A

Those victims in the “zone of danger” - Unforeseeable victims will never win

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the rule about if a rescuer is a foreseeable victim?

A

A rescuer is a foreseeable victim when D negligently put themselves or a 3rd party in danger (“danger invites rescue”)
But firefighters and police officers cannot recover under this theory because the dangers of rescue are inherent in their jobs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Who is a foreseeable victim in pregnancy and contraception?

A

There is a duty owed to a viable fetus

If there is failure to perform a contraceptive procedure the child cannot recover for wrongful life but parents can recover for wrongful birth (medical expenses and pain during labor but not child rearing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Who are the foreseeable victims in economic transactions?

A

A third party who is an intended economic beneficiary of a deal is a foreseeable victim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the default standard of care and when does it apply?

A

The reasonably prudent person standard applies unless displaced by some alternative standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Describe the reasonable person standard of care?

A

Reasonable person is an objective standard but tailored to the similar circumstances - D’s stupidity or inexperience are not taken into account - this is the classic jury question

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Is the reasonable person standard of care adjusted upwards or downwards based on the tortfeasor’s knowledge or experience?

A

Standard of care is not adjusted downwards for informed drunk stupid amateur or even mentally handicapped defendants

Standard of care is adjusted upwards for those with superior knowledge or experience even if they are not in a professional setting. e.g. race car driver has to drive his passenger car to a higher standard e.g. engineer who knew of a better system but failed to implement it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Is the reasonable person standard of care adjusted according to D’s physical capacity?

A

It is altered if those physical characteristics are relevant to the claim (BUT people are expected to know their physical limitations and act accordingly - blind person can’t drive a car)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What standard of care are children held to?

What’s the exception?

A

5-18 children are held to the standard of a child of like age intelligence and experience acting under similar circumstances - SUBJECTIVE test (it’s different for every child - this is defendant friendly).
<5 cannot be negligent
Exception: Children engaged in potentially dangerous adult activates (driving a motorized vehicle) may be required to conform to an adult standard of care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What standard is a professional held to?

A

Professional is required to possess the knowledge and skill of an average member of the profession in good standing providing similar services
- Swaps “average” for “reasonable” so it’s an empirical comparison is to real world peers. DON’T SAY REASONABLE ON AN ESSAY - SAY AVERAGE
Doctors apply a national standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

How can standard practice or custom among similar actors be used in setting duty?

A

In a professional negligence case standard practice IS the duty

In ordinary negligence cases standard practice is persuasive but the jury can disregard it (maybe the whole industry is negligent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is a doctor’s duty to disclose risks of treatment?

A

Must disclose all risks that are serious enough that a reasonable person would have withheld consent if they learned of the risk - otherwise there is no informed consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What does the duty of care owed by a possessor of land depend on?

A

Depends on the status of the plaintiff on the land (unknown trespasser known trespasser licensee or invitee)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is an unknown trespasser?

What duty of care does a possessor of land owe to an unknown trespasser?

A

Unknown trespasser = someone who comes on the land without permission and without the possessor’s knowledge
No Duty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is a known trespasser?

What duty of care does a possessor of land owe to a known trespasser?

A

Known trespasser = discovered or anticipated trespassers (usually history of trespassing)
The possessor must warn OR make safe any conditions that are ALL OF:
- Concealed/nonobvious
- Artificial (manmade)
- Involve a risk of death or serious bodily harm
- Known to the possessor of land in advance (no duty to inspect or repair)
(known manmade death traps)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is a licensee?

What duty of care does a possessor of land owe to a licensee?

A

One who enters onto the land with the possessor’s permission (express/implied) and do not confer any financial benefit on the possessor.
Social guests and solicitors are licensees

Duty to warn OR make safe any conditions that are BOTH:
- Concealed/nonobvious
- Known to the possessor of land in advance (no duty to inspect or repair)
(all known traps)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What duty of care does a possessor of land owe to a firefighter or police officer?

A

No duty of care regarding risks that are inherent in their jobs. One of the inherent risks is that the property was negligently maintained.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is an invitee onto land?

What duty of care does a possessor of land is owe to an invitee?

A

Someone who enters land with permission and provide possessor with a financial benefit (customers govt health inspector to renew a restaurant’s license). Really for any purpose connected with the business. Under modern rule anyone who enters a location open to the public at large is an invitee even if no financial benefit.

Duty to warn OR make safe any conditions that are BOTH:
- Concealed/nonobvious
- Known to the land possessor in advance or could have been discovered on reasonable inspection
(all reasonably knowable traps)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

An invitee goes somewhere that is marked off limits to them (somewhere where they are not supposed to be) what status are they now?

A

They are not longer invitees and at best becomes a licensee and maybe some kind of trespasser.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Rapid Fire Premises Liability

A

UT:No Duty
KT: Known artificial nonobvious serious injury
L: Known nonobvious
I: Reasonably knowable nonobvious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

If a place is a place of public accommodation does that change the duty owed to entrants onto the land for purposes of premises liability?

A

No - the status of the entrant still determines the duty owed under the same 4 tiers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are the requirements of the attractive nuisance doctrine?

Who determines if the attractive nuisance doctrine applies?

A

Duty of reasonable prudence with regard to artificial conditions to trespassing children.
P must show
1) owner knew or should have known that children would be reasonably likely to trespass (kid magnet or otherwise)
2) dangerous artificial condition the owner knew or should have known of
3) condition is likely to cause injury and is dangerous because children will not appreciate the risk
4) expense of remedying the situation is slight compared with the risk of harm

The jury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Someone enters a store with no intention of making a purchase - what is their status for premises liability purposes?

A

Invitee. Just have to enter with some purpose connected with the store’s business (e.g. to browse or return an item)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Is a bright yellow puddle of grease on the floor sufficiently obvious that it does not require a landowner to warn or make safe?

A

No - this is not sufficiently obvious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

For attractive nuisance to apply does the child have to be attracted onto the property by the hazard?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Is the attraction of a child onto the property alone enough for attractive nuisance to apply?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

When do the tiers of premises liability rules apply?

A

When there is a hazardous condition
If the hazard is an activity being conducted on the land then it follows the “active operations” rules and there is a duty of reasonable care to everyone except undiscovered trespassers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What duty is owed by someone conducting “active operations” on their property?

A

A duty of reasonable care is owed to discovered/anticipated trespassers licensees and invitees (everyone but undiscovered trespassers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is the key difference between an invitee and a licensee under the traditional rule?

A

There is no duty to inspect for a licensee but there is a duty to inspect for an invitee.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

When is a landowner who allows the public to use their land for recreational purposes without charging a fee liable for injuries of a user?

A

Landowner not liable unless willfully and maliciously failed to guard against or warn of a dangerous condition or activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Is there a duty to protect someone not on the land from conditions on the land?

A

Must conduct ACTIVITIES on the land to avoid unreasonable risk of harm to those off the land.
If NATURAL condition on the land -> no duty
If ARTIFICIAL condition on the land -> duty to protect from unreasonably dangerous artificial conditions or structures abutting adjacent land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Who has a general duty to maintain leased premises?

A

The lessee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is the lessor’s duty to a leasee?

What effect does a lessor’s covenant to repair have on their duty to the leasee?

A

Must warn of defects they knew or should have known of IF the tenant is not likely to discover them on reasonable inspection

Covenant to repair makes them liable for unreasonably dangerous conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

If a guest of a tenant gets injured on leased premises who might be liable?

A

The landlord and the tenant.

The possessor is always on the first one on the hook for premises liability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What duties does a seller of real estate have to a buyer of real estate?

A

Seller must disclose latent unreasonably dangerous defects that vendor knows of or has reason to know of and which the buyer won’t discover on reasonable inspection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

When does a statutory standard of care replace the common law standard of care? (Negligence Per Se)

A

If there is:

  • a clear duty specified in a criminal statute
  • P is within the protected class (class of person)
  • statute was designed to prevent the type of harm suffered by P (class of risk)

then the circumstances don’t matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What does negligence per se do?

A

It borrows a duty from a criminal statute and uses it to replace the reasonable person standard.
So if negligence per se applies reasonableness no longer matters what matters is if the statute is violated (and the criminal statute could have a strict liability mens rea)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What are the two steps for establishing negligence per se?

A

1) Must convince the judge as a matter of law that the criminal statute should replace the reasonable person standard of care (Legal step)
2) Must convince the jury that the defendant violated the statutory standard of care (factual step)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

If a plaintiff tries and fails to invoke negligence per se what does P do?

A

Litigates under the reasonably prudent person under he circumstances test - there is no disadvantage to trying and failing to invoke negligence per se

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

When is a violation of a criminal statute’s standard of care under a negligence per se theory excused?
What happens if one of these exceptions applies?

A

If compliance would cause more danger than violation
OR
compliance is out of the defendant’s control or impossible
If one of these applies then you litigate under the reasonable person standard of care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Under the majority view what does violation of the criminal standard of care under negligence per se accomplish?
What does compliance with that standard of care accomplish

A

Violation satisfies the first two requirements: Duty and Beach

Compliance will not establish that due care has been taken

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Is there an affirmative duty to act?

A

No but if you choose to do so you must act like a reasonably prudent person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

When is there a duty to rescue?

A

Generally no duty to rescue but exceptions include:
1) special relationship between parties (parent-child common carrier innkeeper-guest shopkeeper employer-employee family members)
2) D creates P’s peril (regardless if negligent or innocent)
3) if D undertakes to rescue must do so with reasonable care
4) Professional rescuer (firefighter, police)
Even under the exceptions there is no duty to rescue - this is just a duty to act reasonably under the circumstances. It is never required that you put your own life in jeopardy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is a good Samaritan statute?

Should you assume a good Samaritan statute exists?

A

If someone undertakes a duty by coming to someone’s rescue they are ordinarily liable for negligence in their rescue
Good Samaritan statutes eliminate liability for ordinary (but not gross) negligence by licensed medical professionals gratuitously rendering their services.
Assume there is no good Samaritan statute unless the question states otherwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Is there a duty to prevent a person from harm from third parties?

A

No but exceptions include:

1) places of public accommodation have a duty to prevent injury to guests caused by third parties
2) If one has actual ability and control over another’s actions and knows/should know that the person is likely to do something that would require them to control their actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What is the standard of care for common carriers and innkeepers?

A

Held to a very high degree of care to PASSENGERS AND GUESTS. Liable for very slight negligence. But remember P must be a passenger or guest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What is the standard of care owed by a driver to a guest passenger in a car?

A

Owed duty of ordinary care

But some states have “guest statutes” that make the driver liable to nonpaying passengers only for reckless torts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What is a bailment?

A

Bailor transfers possession of something to bailee. The transfer could be to benefit the bailor or the bailee.

122
Q

What are the duties owed by a bailee?

A

Depends on who benefits from the bailment.
If only bailor benefits -> low standard of care
If only bailee benefits -> high standard of care
If mutual benefit -> ordinary standard of care

123
Q

What are the duties owed by a bailor?

A

Depends on who benefits from the bailment.
If bailment for hire -> bailor must inform bailee of defects that they know or should know about the property
If only bailee benefits -> must inform bailee of known dangerous defects in the property

124
Q

What is the duty owed by someone acting in an emergency?

A

Must act as a reasonably prudent person under similar emergency circumstances BUT the emergency is not considered if D created the emergency

125
Q

What are the 3 categories of NIED case?

A

1) Near Miss case
2) Bystander Case
3) Special relationship case

126
Q

What is necessary to establish NIED in a near miss case?

A

D IS NEGLIGENT AND creates a foreseeable risk of physical injury to P and

  • P is in the “zone of danger” (high risk of physical harm)
  • [majority view] P suffers physical symptoms from the distress (minority view does not require physical symptoms)
127
Q

What is required to establish NIED in a bystander case? What is a bystander case

A

A bystander case when P (the bystander) is outside of the zone of danger and sees D negligently injure another. P (bystander) can recover IF:

  • P and person physically injured are closely related (parent/minor child/spouse)
  • P was present at the scene and personally observed/perceived the event

(No physical symptoms required)

128
Q

What is necessary to establish NIED in a special relationship case?

A

If P and D are in a special (usually commercial) relationship where it is highly foreseeable that D’s negligence will cause emotional distress (e.g. negligent misdiagnosis of terminal illness negligent cremation) (No physical symptoms required)

129
Q

What is common to all NIED cases?

A

There is no direct physical injury. If there was direct physical injury then it would be a regular negligence case and emotional distress could be tacked onto the physical injury.

130
Q

What is required for a breach of duty? Who decides?

A

D’s conduct must fall short of the level required by the applicable standard of care. This is a fact question for the jury.

131
Q

A driver with no history of heart problems is driving down the road and has a heart attack and swerves into on coming traffic causing another car to crash trying to avoid him. Is the driver who had the heart attack liable for negligence?

A

No - D did not breach his duty because he had no history of heart problems.

132
Q

What are some of the theories used to show breach of duty?

A

Customary practice (if reasonable person standard of care; custom is not conclusive because everyone might be acting negligently)
Feasibility of Precautions
Negligence per se (this is conclusive)
Res Ipsa Loquitur (not conclusive)

133
Q

What are the red flags for Res Ipsa on the exam?

A

Breach is established if:
- the accident causing the injury is normally product of negligence
- this type of accident usually results from the negligence of someone in D’s position (often shown by exclusive control over the thing that caused the injury)
———–
Res ipsa is only the issue of there is uncertainly about how the breach occurred, who breached, or when the breach occurred

134
Q

Res Ipsa loquitur has been established by P does P win?

A

Not necessarily. P has made a prima facie case and thus cannot lose on directed verdict but can still lose if the jury doesn’t buy the inference of negligence (i.e. accident occurred->negligence somewhere->negligent D).
Res ipsa does NOT shift the burden of proof and does NOT create a presumption of negligence

Also P cannot win on directed verdict because there is still a factual question on breach with res ipsa

135
Q

What does P have to prove to avoid a directed verdict by D in a negligence case?

A

P has to prove duty and breach

136
Q

What does negligence per se accomplish and what does res ipsa loquitur accomplish?

A

Negligence per se conclusively establishes duty and breach (must still prove causation and damages)
Res ipsa may establish breach if the jury agrees with the inference of negligence

137
Q

What is required by the causation prong of negligence?

A

The defendant’s negligent conduct caused the injury.

Must be cause in fact and proximate cause

138
Q

When does the but for test for cause in fact apply?

What is it?

A

But for test applies when several acts (each of which alone would not cause the injury) combine to cause an injury

An act/omission is a factual cause when the injury would not have occurred “but for” the act or omission. Imagine an alternative universe where D was not negligent - in this world would P still have been injured? (there are an infinite number of but for causes)

139
Q

What is a defendant’s likely rebuttal to a but for cause argument?

A

Starts with “Even if”

EVEN IF D hadn’t been negligent would P still have been injured?

140
Q

When does the substantial factor test for cause in fact apply?

What is it?

A

The substantial factor test applies when 2 defendants and “multiple sufficient causes” or “merged causes” exist (each cause alone would cause the injury).

The defendant’s conduct is a cause in fact if it was a substantial factor in causing the injury. If a breach would have been able to cause the harm all by itself it’s definitely a substantial factor but beyond that the doctrine is unclear

141
Q

What is the result if P can prove multiple sufficient negligent causes by multiple D’s resulting in a single indivisible injury?

A

Joint and several liability. Can sue either or both and collect all or part from either.

142
Q

When does the unascertainable causes approach to cause in fact apply?

What is it?

A

Unascertainable causes approach applies when 2 defendants and 2 acts BOTH of which were negligent but only one of which actually causes the injury but it is not known which one. (remember >1 act must be negligent for this - casserole question)

The burden of proof shifts to the defendants and each must show that their negligent conduct is not the actual cause. Joint and several liability among the defendants who cannot meet this burden.

143
Q

What is the general rule for proximate cause? What’s its purpose?

A

A defendant is generally liable for all the foreseeable harms. If a particular harmful result was foreseeable, an unusual manner or timing of how the injury was caused does not make a difference.
The purpose is to ensure it is fair to make the defendant pay (usually satisfied)

144
Q

Who decides foreseeability for proximate cause?

A

The jury so if there is any question of proximate cause summary judgment should be denied

145
Q

When is defendant’s conduct a proximate cause?

A

Defendant’s negligence is a proximate cause if the outcome was one of the foreseeable risks associated with the breach.

Pause at the moment of the breach and ask what kind of injuries you’re worried about.

146
Q

What is the rule about intervening forces in proximate cause?

Can intervening forces occur before or after D’s act?

A

If D’s conduct increased the risk of harm from an intervening force OR the intervening force was foreseeable the conduct is a proximate cause.

Intervening causes occur only after D’s negligent act

147
Q

What are common foreseeable intervening forces?

A

Natural reactions to the situation created by D’s conduct
1) Medical malpractice
2) Negligence of rescuers
3) Efforts taken to protect person or property in response to D’s conduct
4) Disease or accident following from the original injury (e.g. break guys leg guy trips while on crutches and breaks his arm)
OR
If D’s conduct increased the risk of:
- negligence of a third party
- crimes and intentional torts of third parties
- acts of God

148
Q

What is a superseding force?

What is the effect of a superseding force on proximate cause?

A

A superseding force is an intervening force that creates a harm that is not within the risk increased by D’s conduct.
Superseding forces break the causal chain and defeat proximate cause

149
Q

Are nominal damages available in a negligence cause of action?

A

No - P has to prove damages

150
Q

What is the eggshell-skull plaintiff rule?

A

The rule that a negligent defendant takes the plaintiff as they are with all of their preexisting conditions and delicacies. NOT LIMITED TO NEGLIGENCE - applies to all torts.

151
Q

Can a plaintiff who has been personally injured by D’s negligence recover their economic harm? Noneconomic harm

A

Yes can recover medical expenses lost wages etc. (economic) and damages for pain and suffering including emotional distress (noneconomic)

P does have a duty to mitigate damages (e.g. by seeking appropriate medical treatment)

152
Q

Can a plaintiff whose property has been negligently destroyed recover economic damages? Noneconomic damages?

A

Can recover cost of repair or FMV of property at time of accident (economic)

Can NOT recover emotional distress resulting from negligently caused property damages including killing a pet

P does have a duty to mitigate damages (e.g. by replacing the property promptly)

153
Q

What is the standard for punitive damages awards for negligence?

A

P may recover punitive damages if D’s conduct is “wanton and willful” reckless or malicious

154
Q

What are the two important classes of items that cannot be recovered from negligent defendants?

A

1) pre-judgment interest from the date of damage in a personal injury action
2) attorney’s fees

155
Q

If P suffers personal injury from D’s negligence and P has health insurance can P still recover from D for damages?

A

Yes - the “Collateral Source Rule” says that damages are not reduced just because P received benefits from other sources

156
Q

What is contributory negligence?

What is the standard for contributory negligence?

A

Negligence by P tat contributes to the P’s injuries
Contributory negligence is judged on the same standard as ordinary negligence (so a the standard of care for a rescuer is adjusted for the circumstances requiring the rescue and P’s violation of a statute can be use to help establish contributory negligence)

157
Q

What is the interaction of contributory negligence and defendant’s negligence per se under a statute?

A

Contributory negligence is a defense UNLESS the statute was meant to protect this class of plaintiff from their own negligence (e.g. speeding in a school zone and child darting into the street)

158
Q

If D is a special kind of negligent is P’s negligence still a defense?

A

If Defendant is wanton or reckless in a contributory negligence regime P’s negligence is not a defense

BUT if D is wanton or reckless in a comparative negligence regime. P’s negligence IS a defense

159
Q

What is the common law rule regarding contributory negligence?

A

Common law says that if P is at all contributorily negligent then P has no right to recover

160
Q

What is the “Last Clear Chance” rule? When does it apply?

A

It is a rule that allows P to recover despite being contributorily negligent if the person with the last clear chance to avoid an accident negligently fails to do so.

Last Clear Chance NEVER applies in comparative negligence jurisdictions

161
Q

When can contributory negligence of a third party be imputed to P?

A

Only when a court could find P vicariously liable for the third party’s negligence (e.g. employer-employee partner joint venturers - NOT parent-child spouses car owner/driver)

162
Q

When can P be denied recovery under a negligence COA because they assumed the risk of damages caused by D?

A

P must have KNOWN* the risk and VOLUNTARILY proceeded in the face of the risk

*knowledge can be implied where the risk is one that an average person would clearly appreciate

163
Q

What is the difference in analysis of express vs implied assumption of risk?

A

Express assumption of risk = a complete defense
Implied assumption of risk = probably a limitation on duty owed to P (e.g. D has no duty to prevent P from being hit by a foul ball at a baseball game)

164
Q

What is required by the “voluntary” requirement for P to assume the risk of D’s negligence?

A

P cannot be said to voluntarily assume the risk when P has no alternative but to accept it
P also cannot be said to voluntarily assume the risk in cases of fraud force emergency

165
Q

What are two special classes of plaintiff that can never be said to have assumed the risk of D’ negligence

A
Users of common carriers and public utilities
Members of a class protected by statute

But P can assume the risk of harm from an inherently dangerous activity (and allow D to dodge liability)

166
Q

Can assumption of risk be a defense to an intentional tort?

A

No - assumption of risk is NEVER a defense to an intentional tort

167
Q

Contributory negligence and Comparative negligence

Which is the important modern rule and which is the out of date common law rule?

A

Comparative negligence is the modern majority rule

Contributory negligence is the old outdated rule

168
Q

How does a comparative negligence regime operate?

Can a party that is willfully or wantonly negligent still recover part of their losses under a comparative negligence regime?

A

Yes, subject to partial comparative negligence limitations. Just because a party is willfully/wantonly negligent does not preclude recovery entirely.

169
Q

Which should you assume applies on the bar exam?

A

Partial comparative negligence [Majority] = bars P’s recovery if their negligence is >50% at fault compared to the negligence of ALL defendants. If D counterclaims they can recover their damages reduced by the % of THEIR fault (not the aggregate fault of all Ds) as long as their negligence is less than 50%.
Pure comparative negligence [Minority] = P can recover regardless what % at fault they are but their recovery is reduced by their % fault
———-
Assume pure comparative negligence applies unless the question states otherwise

170
Q

Are parents liable for the negligent acts of their children?

A

No

171
Q

Is an owner of a domesticated animal (pets farm animals) strictly liable for injuries caused by it?

A

No unless the owner has knowledge of that animal’s dangerous propensity that is not common to the species (if abnormally dangerous then strict liability)

injuries caused by normally dangerous characteristics of domestic animals (e.g. bulls bees) does not create strict liability

(but remember vicious watch dogs can create intentional tort liability)

172
Q

Is an animal owner liable for damage caused by a trespassing animal?

A

Yes - owner is strictly liable for reasonably foreseeable damage of a trespassing animal. If the trespass is not foreseeable, then not liable

173
Q

Is an owner of a wild animal (kept as a pet or otherwise) liable to those injured by the animal?

Is the commonality of the wild animal in the community important to determining if strict liability applies?

A

Yes - owner is strictly liable for injuries to licensees and invitees but owner must be negligent to be liable or injuries to trespassers.
Injuries caused by those fleeing from the animal are part of the dangerous propensity of the animal.

No - commonality in the community is only a factor in abnormally dangerous activities

174
Q

What standard of liability the owner of an abnormally dangerous domesticated animal held to ?

A

Same standard as the owner of a wild animal

  • strict liability to licensees and invitees
  • liable on a negligence standard to trespassers
175
Q

What is required for an activity to be considered “abnormally dangerous”?

Who decides?

A

1) The activity can’t be made safe even if due care exercised
AND
2) The activity is uncommon in the community where it is conducted

The court decides

176
Q

What is the standard for imposing liability on those involved in an abnormally dangerous activity?

What are the rules for actual and proximate cause under strict liability?

A

Strict liability BUT the plaintiff must be foreseeable and the harm must result from the kind of danger that makes the activity dangerous (including harm caused by those fleeing from the perceived danger)

The same causation rules that apply to negligence also apply to strict liability (e.g. superseding forces cut off liability)

177
Q

What are the common abnormally dangerous activities?

A

1) Explosives
2) Dangerous chemicals/biological agents
3) nuclear energy/high dose radiation

178
Q

What are the theories of liability that a plaintiff can use in a products liability action?

What plaintiffs can sue under these theories?

A

1) Intent
2) Negligence
3) Implied warranty of merchantability or fitness for a particular purpose
4) Representation theories (express warranty or misrepresentation)
5) Strict liability
Beware that a plaintiff may have more than one cause of action - read the question and do not assume strict liability

Only foreseeable plaintiffs can sue - so this includes more than just the buyer and less than everyone

179
Q

What are the required elements for a strict liability products case?

A

1) Defendant is a MERCHANT (commercial supplier of the product)
2) Product is DEFECTIVE
3) Product was NOT SUBSTANTIALLY ALTERED since leaving D’s control
4) P was making a FORESEEABLE USE of the product at the time of injury

180
Q

What are classic examples of non-merchants who are not strictly liable for product defects?

A

1) casual seller (especially a seller of used goods)

2) Service providers providing products incidentally to the service

181
Q

Does strict liability for products extend to services?

A

No even when the product is provided incident to a service there is no strict liability (e.g. blood in an operation) - but P can sue for negligence

182
Q

Does strict liability for products extend to commercial lessors of products?

A

Yes (e.g. rental car company)

183
Q

Is privity required for a strict liability products claim?

A

NO - customers, bystanders, users (foreseeable plaintiffs) can sue manufacturers wholesalers and retailers

184
Q

What are the 4 types of defect in a products liability case?

A

1) Manufacturing defects
2) Design defects
3) Noncompliance with Government safety Standards
4) Information/Warning defects

185
Q

P misuses a product gets hurt and sues based on a manufacturing defect. What result?

A

A manufacturing defect can exist even if P misused the product because the defendant must be able to anticipate reasonable misuse

186
Q

What is considered a manufacturing defect for products liability purposes?

A

If the product is made differently from those that were made properly and is more dangerous than an ordinary customer would expect.

187
Q

What is considered a design defect for products liability purposes?

A

P must be able to prove there was a “feasible alternative” where D could have made the product safer without serious impact on the product’s utility or price

Manufacturers will not be held liable for some dangerous products if the danger is apparent and there is no safer way to make the product.

Simply putting a warning label on a defectively designed product is not good enough

188
Q

Noncompliance with government safety standards establishes a product as defective. Does compliance with government safety standards make the product not defective?

A

No - product can comply with government safety standards and still be defective

189
Q

What is considered an informational defect?

A

Manufacturer failed to give ADEQUATE instructions or warnings as to the risks involved where those risks may not be apparent to users.

Not all warnings are adequate - warnings should be prominent understandable might need to provide information about how to mitigate the risk

190
Q

How can informational defects be solved in the context of pharmaceuticals?

A

Sufficient warnings given to “learned intermediaries” (like the prescribing doctor) will be sufficient instead of warning the patient

191
Q

How is the element of a strict liability products case that a product has not been substantially altered since it left D’s control usually established?

A defect is difficult to establish because the product was destroyed - are there any presumptions that can help P out?

A

There is a presumption that if the product moved in ordinary channels of distribution it has not been substantially altered

P can rely on an inference that such a product failure ordinarily would occur only as a result of a defect (similar to res ipsa but not)

192
Q

P sues Mfg on a strict liability products COA - does P still have to prove proximate cause?

What kind of damages can be recovered in a strict liability products case?

A

Yes - P does have to prove proximate cause

Personal injury and property damage. Economic loss alone is not sufficient for recovery

193
Q

What does a disclaimer accomplish in a strict liability products case?

A

Nothing. Disclaimers are irrelevant in strict liability cases if personal injury or property damage result

194
Q

What is the twist to the element that requires P to make a foreseeable use of the product for a strict liability products case?

A

Foreseeable uses are not always intended/appropriate uses (e.g. eating cookie dough standing on a chair)

195
Q

If a plaintiff sues based on negligence who should they sue: manufacturer wholesaler or retailer?

A

Should sue manufacturer because retailer and wholesaler can usually satisfy their duty through cursory inspection of the good

In contrast, strict liability products cases can succeed against wholesalers and retailers even if they had no opportunity to inspect

196
Q

Under a negligence products case does a wholesaler or retailer’s negligent failure to discover a defect cut off liability for the manufacturer?

A

No - not unless the wholesaler or retailer’s conduct exceeds ordinary foreseeable negligence

197
Q

Who can sue in a negligence products case?

A

Any foreseeable plaintiff - no privity required

198
Q

What types of damages are recoverable in a negligence products case?

A

Physical injury property damage. No recovery for pure economic loss

199
Q

What does a disclaimer accomplish in a negligence products case?

A

Nothing - disclaimers are irrelevant in negligence products cases

200
Q

When does a product breach the implied warranty of merchantability?

A

Goods that are likely to injure users even when used properly

201
Q

When does a product breach the implied warranty of fitness for a particular purpose?

A

When the seller knows or has reason to know the particular purpose for which the goods are required and that the buyer is relying on the seller’s skill and judgment in selecting the goods

202
Q

Who can sue on a breach of implied warranty of merchantability or fitness for a particular purpose?

A

the buyer (or lessee) family household guests

203
Q

If a product breaches a contractual warrant (express or implied) does P have to prove fault on the part of D?

A

NO - D could have acted perfectly responsibly and still be liable

204
Q

Do the concepts of causation applicable in negligence also apply in contractual breach of warranty cases?

A

Yes - actual and proximate cause must be satisfied

205
Q

What kinds of damages are recoverable for a breach of warranty of fitness for a particular purpose or warranty of merchantability?

A

Personal injury property damage AND pure economic injury

ability to recover for pure economic injury is unique to breach of contractual warranties

206
Q

What are some defenses to contractual breach of warranty?

A

1) assumption of risk (e.g. using a product while knowing of breach of warranty
2) contributory negligence
3) failure to give notice of breach under the UCC

207
Q

What does a disclaimer accomplish in a breach of contractual warranty products case?

A

Disclaimers are not effective as a defense to personal injury but are effective for pure economic loss

208
Q

If a seller of goods represents that a product does certain things or has certain safety features and the product fails to do those things what are the two theories for P to recover?

A

1) Express Warranty

2) Misrepresentation of fact

209
Q

For a products liability case based on a breach of an express warranty what must be established?
Does fault have to be shown?

A

A representation was made concerning goods that was part of the basis of the bargain.
If someone other than the buyer sues they don’t have to have relied on the express warranty as long as someone did
Fault does not have to be shown

210
Q

What are the causation damages and defense rules for a products liability case based on a breach of express warranty?

A

Same as for implied warranties

211
Q

P sues on a products liability case based on misrepresentation of fact what does P have to prove?

A

There was a statement of material fact concerning quality/uses of the goods
The seller intended to induce reliance by the buyer in a particular transaction

then liability is usually based on strict liability but can also be for intentional or negligent misrepresentations

212
Q

If P is suing on a products liability case based on misrepresentation of fact does P have to prove that they relied on the misrepresentation?

A

Yes - if buyer is suing they must prove they relied on the misrep. If someone other than buyer is suing they must prove that someone relied on the misrep.

213
Q

What are the rules for proximate cause and damages for a products liability case based on misrepresentation of fact?

A

Same as for strict liability

214
Q

What is the traditional rule for an affirmative defense if P knowingly encounters a dangerous situation?

A

if P knowingly encounters a dangerous situation P is barred from all recovery (applies in all strict liability cases wild animal products abnormally dangerous activities cases)

This is an old rule - only apply it if the case says the state follows the traditional rule

215
Q

Is assumption of risk a defense in a strict liability case?

A

Yes

216
Q

Is comparative negligence a (at least partial) defense in strict liability cases?

A

Yes - but P must have known of the defect/danger and acted unreasonably in response to that knowledge

217
Q

What are the elements of private nuisance?

A

Substantial and unreasonable interference with a private individual’s enjoyment of their land

  • The private individual must actually possess the land or have right to immediate possession
  • Ds intent (awareness establishes intent) or negligence is required
218
Q

What is the bar for “substantial interference” with a private individual’s enjoyment of their land for private nuisance purposes?

A

Must be offensive inconvenient or annoying to the AVERAGE person

If the plaintiff is just hypersensitive the interference is not substantial

219
Q

What is the bar for “unreasonable interference” with a private individual’s enjoyment of their land for private nuisance purposes?

A

The severity of P’s injury must be weighed against the utility of D’s conduct.

Court’s balance interests looking at the location property values and alternative courses of conduct available to D

220
Q

What are the key differences between private nuisance and trespass?

A

Private nuisance is a nonphysical invasion that interferes with use or enjoyment

Trespass is a physical invasion that interferes with the owner’s right to exclusive possession

221
Q

What are the elements of public nuisance?

A

An act that unreasonably interferes with the health safety or property rights of the community.
- private parties can only recover if they suffer a harm that is unique from the damage suffered by the public at large

222
Q

What are the possible remedies for a plaintiff in a public nuisance case?

A

1) Usually damages
2) if damages are unavailable or inadequate injunctive relief can be granted (court will balance relative hardships unless D’s conduct is willful)

223
Q

What are possible defenses to nuisance?

A

1) legislative authority for nuisance activity (not an absolute defense but is persuasive)
2) No one actor is liable for all damage caused by the concurrence of their acts and others (e.g. I polluted the stream but so did 100 others. I can’t be held liable for all of the damage)

224
Q

Is coming to the nuisance a valid defense?

A

Generally no - unless P bought the property for the specific purpose of bringing a harassing lawsuit

225
Q

When is an employer liable for torts committed by employees?

A

If the tort occurs in the scope of their employment (“respondeat superior”)

226
Q

If employee makes a “frolic or detour” is the employer still responsible for torts caused by the employee?

A

If it is a minor detour yes

If the deviation from the scope of employment is substantial in time or geography (frolic) then no

227
Q

Is an employer liable for the intentional torts of an employee?

A

Generally no but the exceptions are:

1) employee furthering the business of the employer
2) Force is authorized in the employment (e.g. bouncer)
3) friction/tension is generated by the employment (e.g. bill collector)

228
Q

Is the person who hires an independent contractor (principal) liable for torts committed by the contractor (agent)?

A

No - unless EITHER:

  • contractor is engaged in inherently dangerous activities OR
  • the duty is nondelegable for public policy reasons (e.g. contractor working on the business premises and hurts a customer - the duty to keep its premises safe for customers is non delegable)
229
Q

Is a partner (or joint venturer) liable for torts committed by a co-partner (joint venturer)?

A

Each partner is vicariously liable for the torts of other partners that were committed in the SCOPE AND COURSE of the partnership

230
Q

Is the owner of a car vicariously liable for torts committed by others driving the car?

A

Generally no but some states have changed this by statute under some circumstances such as…

  • Family Car Doctrine (owner liable for driving torts of family members that use the car with express/implied permission)
  • Permissive Use (owners liable for all drivers they permit to drive their car)

this is all separate from the non-vicarious liability of negligent entrustment and absent an agency relationship (e.g. driver is running an errand for owner)

231
Q

Is a bailor vicariously liable for the negligent acts of a bailee?

A

Generally no - but bailor can be liable for their own negligence in entrusting the bailed object

232
Q

Is a parent vicariously liable for the negligent acts of their child?

How is a parent more likely liable for the acts of their child?

A

Generally no - but most states make parents vicariously liable for intentional torts of children up to a certain dollar amount
This assumes that the child is not acting as agent for the parent

Parents are more likely liable for their own direct negligence in allowing the child to do something (or if they know the child has a propensity to do something failing to supervise it)

233
Q

Is a tavernkeeper vicariously liable for harms resulting from drunkenness of a patron at common law?

A

At common law NO - regardless if the injuries were sustained by the patron or by a third person as a result of the patron’s conduct

234
Q

Is a tavernkeeper vicariously liable for harms resulting from drunkenness of a patron under modern law?

A

Yes - most states have Dramshop Acts which usually create a cause of action in favor of any third parties injured by the drunk patron.

Dramshop acts operate through vicarious liability but some courts have found bars directly negligent under ordinary principles

235
Q

There are multiple negligent defendants responsible for injuring plaintiff.
Under common law…
When does joint and several liability result?

A

Joint and Several Liability when two or more negligent acts combine to proximately cause an indivisible injury (both Ds joint and severally liable for it).

When the injury is divisible each D liable only for their portion UNLESS they acted in concert then they are jointly and severally liable even if the injury is divisible

236
Q

There are multiple negligent defendants responsible for injuring plaintiff.
Under modern law…
When does joint and several liability result?

A

Some states have modified the common law rule such that there is no joint and several liability for…

  • those Ds judged to be less at fault than P or
  • all Ds regarding noneconomic damages
237
Q

What is satisfaction and release?

A

Satisfaction is recovery of full payment (until satisfaction can proceed against all jointly liable parties)

Release is when P agrees not to pursue one D. A release of one D does not discharge other Ds unless it expressly says so

238
Q

What is the purpose of contribution and indemnity in tort law?

A

These doctrines determine how jointly liable defendants allocate damages between them

239
Q

What is the doctrine of Contribution?

What are the two theories?

A

Allows a defendant who pays more than their share to P to recover from other jointly liable parties.

1) Comparative Contribution (Majority) : contribution imposed in proportion to relative fault
2) Equal shares (Minority): Equal shares regardless of relative fault

240
Q

What are prerequisites for the D who paid P to recover via contribution from jointly liable Ds?

A

1) The party from whom contribution is sought must have been jointly liable to P. If the contribution defendant has a defense that would bar liability to the original P they cannot be liable for contribution
2) NOT available for intentional torts

241
Q

What is the doctrine of indemnification?

When is it available?

A

When one D is fully reimbursed by another D
Indemnification available:
- in vicarious liability situations (vicariously liable party can seek indemnity from the tort feasor)
- under strict products liability for the non-manufacturer (retailer seeks indemnity from manufacturer)

242
Q

What happens to indemnification in a comparative contribution jurisdiction?

A

Comparative contribution supplants indemnification

243
Q

When P is injured and P is married what should you automatically think of?

A

Loss of consortium. It grants the spouse/parent a “derivative” cause of action against the same defendants (where these Ds can assert all the same defenses as they have to the original claim) for loss of consortium.

244
Q

When is loss of consortium of a spouse available?

A

When P was injured (INTENTIONALLY OR NEGLIGENTLY) and P was married and P’s spouse lost out on 1) household services 2) companionship or 3) sex

245
Q

When is loss of consortium of a child available?

A

When a child (P) was injured (INTENTIONALLY OR NEGLIGENTLY) and P’s parent loses out on 1) child’s services 2) consortium
BUT child does not have a COA for loss of consortium if parent is injured

246
Q

What do Survival Acts do?

To what causes of action do they apply?

A

Allow a COA to survive the death of P

Apply to personal injury. Do not apply to torts invading intangible personal interests (defamation invasion of right of privacy malicious prosecution)

247
Q

What do Wrongful Death Acts do?

A

Grant recovery for financial injury to the spouse/next of kin instead of the estate so the decedent’s creditors have no claim to it.
Recovery allowed only to the extent the decedent would have recovered if they had lived.

248
Q

What are the tort immunities that you should know (some of which may be abolished)?

A

1) Intra-family tort immunities
2) Governmental tort immunity
3) Charitable immunity

249
Q

Describe intra-family tort immunities

A

Old Rule: family members could not sue another in tort for personal injury Now:
Spouses can usually sue each other
Some states allow children to sue parents (but never for negligent supervision). But all states allow children to sue parents for intentional torts and in car accident cases to the extent of insurance coverage

250
Q

Describe governmental tort immunity

A

Immunity exists only when the government performs governmental and not proprietary functions
Under Federal Tort Claims Act USA has waived tort immunity for torts except for most intentional torts and discretionary acts involving political policy. States an most municipalities have done the same
Public officials are immune from tort liability for discretionary acts done without malice/improper purpose

251
Q

What is the “public duty” rule?

A

When a municipality has waived its immunity to tort liability a duty owed to the public at large is not owed to any individual absent a special relationship between government and citizen

252
Q

Describe charitable immunity to tort liability?

A

Most jurisdictions have abolished it

253
Q

What are the elements of defamation?

A

DPDPD

1) Defamatory statement (falsity)
2) Published to a third party
3) Damage to p’s reputation (need special (financial) damages unless slander per se or libel)
4) specifically identifies P (also consider type of P: public fig, private fig public concern, private fig private concern)
5) Defenses (truth/privilege)

254
Q

When is a statement defamatory?

When are statements of opinion actionable as defamation?

A

A factual claim that adversely affects P’s reputation. Name calling not good enough

only if the opinion implies a basis in specific facts and if those facts were said directly they would be defamatory

255
Q

What is a theory to establish a statement as defamatory if the statement is not defamatory on its face?

A

P can plead additional facts as “inducement” to establish defamatory meaning by “innuendo”

256
Q

Can a dead person be defamed?

Can a corporation or partnership be defamed?

A

A dead person cannot be defamed - person must be alive at the time the statement is made.

A corp/partnership can be defamed if defamatory statements are made about its financial condition honesty etc.)

257
Q

What is required to satisfy the “specifically identifies P” requirement of defamation?

A

P must prove that a reasonable reader/listener/viewer would understand that the statement referred to P

If the statement does not facially implicate P P can introduce extra information (pleading “colloquium”) to establish that the statement applies to them.

258
Q

What are the rules when groups are defamed for purposes of satisfying the “specifically identifies P” requirement of defamation?

A

If statement refers to all members of a small group-> each member satisfies the requirement by alleging that they are a member of the group

If the statement refers to some members of a small group -> each member satisfies the requirement by alleging that a reasonable person would view the statement as referring to them

If the statement refers to members of a large group -> the members of the group cannot satisfy the requirement

259
Q

What is required by the “published to a third party” requirement of defamation?

Is intent required?

What if a publication is repeated?

A

The defamation must be communicated to a THIRD PARTY that understands it. Can’t harm reputation with a communication only from D to P but if one third party is looped in it’s defamation

Can be made intentionally or negligently (negligence to publish is what matters not negligence to defame)

Usually each repetition is a separate publishing but most states have provided that if defamation is in newspaper etc. all copies are treated as one publication (“single publication” rule)

260
Q

Who can be liable for defamation?

A

1) speaker
2) primary publishers (newspapers Tv stations etc.) to the same extent as the speaker
3) those who repeat the defamation (even if repeater states the source and says they don’t believe it)
4) Secondary publishers that play audiofiles or sell newspapers are liable only if they know or should know of the defamatory content (ISP is never treated as a secondary publisher of a user’s posts)

261
Q

What kind of damages must a plaintiff in a defamation case prove?

A

If Libel -> general damages (nonfinancial reputational) presumed

If Slander -> P must prove “special damages” (some FINANCIAL loss) unless it’s slander per se. But if P can prove special damages they can recover general damages also

262
Q

What is libel?

What is slander?

A

Libel is defamation in permanent form (written/printed) including TV and radio. Any repetition of libel (oral or written) is also libel

Slander is spoken defamation

263
Q

What are the categories of slander per se? What is the effect of one of these categories?

A

LUMP

1) State that P has some loathsome disease
2) Statement/implication that P has engaged in serious sexual misconduct
3) Statement that P has committed a serious crime
4) Statement adversely reflects on Ps business or profession

The effect is that there is no need to prove special damages as a prerequisite to general damages

264
Q

Who has to prove the “falsity” requirement of defamation?

A
Under common law: P did not have to prove falsity instead D could prove truth as a defense
Modern View (and as required by the Constitution): P must prove falsity as part of their case
265
Q

What level of fault must be proven when P is a public official or figure? Who is public figure?

A

Public figure = achieving pervasive fame or notoriety OR by voluntarily assuming a central role in public controversy
Limited Public Figure = private figures thrown into the public eye because of some newsworthy development (crime etc.) are considered public figures only if the statement relates to the reason they are in the public eye

Must prove actual malice (knowledge of falsity or reckless disregard for falsity). This is a subjective test

266
Q

Does altering a quote constitute actual malice for the purpose of a defamation suit by a public figure?

A

Only if the alteration causes a material change in the meaning conveyed by the quote

267
Q

What level of fault must be proven when P is a private person and D was speaking on a matter of public concern?
How do courts determine what is a matter of public concern?
What kind of damages can a private person P recover from D’s statement on a matter of public concern

A

P must prove that D was negligent in publishing the false statement

Public concern is determined by content form and context

Can only recover for “actual injury” (economic damage + damage to reputation and humiliation if those are supported by evidence)
But if there is actual malice then damages are presumed and punitive damages are allowed.

268
Q

What are the headline differences between the following:

  • Public figure plaintiff
  • Private plaintiff on matter of public concern
  • Private plaintiff on private concern
A

Differences in the degree of fault required of D

  • Public figure plaintiff - must prove malice (knowledge of falsity or reckless disregard)
  • Private P Public concern - must prove negligence
  • Private P Private Concern - only need to prove publication
269
Q

What are defenses to malice in the context of defamation?

A

1) Consent (same rules as intentional torts apply)
2) Truth (in cases where P is not already obligated to prove falsity)
3) Privilege (can be absolute or qualified)

270
Q

When is there an absolute privilege defense to defamation?

What is absolute privilege?

A

1) communications between spouses
2) statements during judicial proceedings by legislators during proceedings (even if not related to the proceedings) federal executive officials

Absolute privilege is privilege that is never lost

271
Q

When is there a qualified privilege defense to defamation?

A

When D proves there is a public interest in encouraging candor. Whether a particular speaker has privilege is determined case by case. (common situation is references/recommendations and the “common interest” privilege for statements made to colleagues in the same org)

Privilege is lost if the statement is not in the scope of the privilege or if the speaker acted with actual malice

272
Q

What are common mitigating factors that can be considered by a jury and reduce defamation damage awards?

A

No malice retraction anger provoked by P

Mitigating factors (not defenses but can be considered by the jury to reduce damages)

273
Q

Does a cause of action for invasion of privacy survive death?

A

No

274
Q

Does P have to prove special damages to recover on a privacy tort?

A

No (emotional and mental distress are enough)

275
Q
What are the 4 kinds of wrongs included in invasion of privacy?
--------
When is publication required?
-----------
What kind of damages are required?
-------------
Is truth a defense?
A

CLIP
1) Commercial appropriation of P’s picture or name
2) false Light
3) Intrusion on seclusion
4) Public disclosure of private facts
———-
Publication is required for CLI but not for Public disclosure of private facts
————
Special (financial) damages are not required - reputational damages or emotional damage can be enough
————-
NO- except for false light

276
Q

What is required to prove the privacy tort of appropriation of P’s picture or name?

A

P’s picture/name must be used without authorization to D’s commercial advantage
Putting someone on a newspaper doesn’t count (newsworthiness exception)
Does not have to be a celebrity.

277
Q

What is the key difference in appropriation of picture or name privacy tort and the right of publicity?

A

The goal of appropriation is to compensate for emotional damages
The goal of the right of publicity is for P to recover the economic damages

278
Q

What is required to prove the privacy tort of intrusion on seclusion?

A

Must be an intrusion on P’s PRIVATE affairs (not in public place) that is highly offensive to a reasonable person

e.g. eavesdropping spying interception of phone calls etc.

279
Q

What is required to prove the privacy tort of false light?

A

IF:

  • D with knowledge of falsity or reckless disregard to truth
  • attributes views/actions to P that P does not actually hold/take
  • The matter must be highly offensive to a reasonable person
  • The defendant must circulate the statement widely (one or a few people is not enough)
280
Q

What is the key difference between defamation and false light

A

The same behavior can be defamation and false light but
Defamation->economic damages
False Light -> Emotional damages

281
Q

What is a key limitation on false light?

A

Under the first amendment if the matter is of public concern then P must prove D acted with actual malice

282
Q

What is required to prove the privacy tort of public disclosure of private facts?

A

Must prove:
D must have disclosed private information about P that is highly offensive to a reasonable person and not of legitimate concern to the public

(but if you have shared the info with some people it’s not truly confidential)

(tabloids reporting on celebrities is not public disclosure of private facts because they are of legit public concern - but might be false light if not true)
*liability may attach even if the statement is true

283
Q

What is a key limitation on public disclosure of private facts?

A

Under the first amendment if the matter is of public concern then P must prove D acted with actual malice

284
Q

What are defenses to the privacy torts?

A

1) Consent (same rules as intentional torts apply)
2) Privilege (can be absolute or qualified - same as defamation)

*Truth is usually not a good defense!
Good faith/lack of malice/inadvertence are also not usually good defenses!

285
Q

What are other names for the tort of intentional misrepresentation?

A

Fraud or Deceit

286
Q

What are the elements of the prima facie case for the tort of fraud/deceit?

A

1) Misrepresentation of a material fact (past or present)
2) Scienter (D knew or believed a statement was false when it was made or had no basis for it)
3) Intent to induce P’s reliance
4) Actual reliance/causation
5) Justifiable reliance
6) Damages (p must show actual financial loss)

287
Q

What are the defenses to intentional misrepresentation?

A

None

288
Q

There is generally no duty to disclose - what are the exceptions?

A

1) D is in a fiduciary relationship with P
2) D is selling real property and knows P is unaware and cannot reasonably discover material info about the transaction
3) D has spoken and their utterance has deceived P
4) Physical concealment of a material fact

289
Q

If D intentionally misrepresents a fact to person A and person B relies on it can person B sue D for fraud/deceit?

A

Only if B’s reliance on the statement was foreseeable to D

290
Q

Does P’s reliance on D’s opinion ever justify reliance for purposes of fraud/deceit?

A

Only if the D offering the opinion has superior knowledge of the subject matter

291
Q

What are the elements of the prima facie case for the tort of negligent misrepresentation?

A

1) Misrepresentation by D in a business or professional capacity (COMMERCIAL SETTING)
2) breach of duty toward a PARTICULAR P
3) actual reliance/causation
4) justifiable reliance
5) damages

The statement must be made TO P (even foreseeable retransmission not actionable) and it must be foreseeable that P would rely

292
Q

What is the prima facie case for interference with business relations?

A

1) Existence of a valid contractual relationship between P and a third party OR a valid business expectancy of the plaintiff
2) D’s knowledge of that relationship or expectancy
3) Intentional interference by D with that relationship or expectancy (e.g. inducing breach)
4) Damages

293
Q

When is D’s interference with business relations of another privileged?

A

If it is a proper attempt to obtain business for itself or to protect its own interests which is usually the case IF….

  • interference is only with P’s prospective business (rather than an existing contract)
  • commercially accepted means were used rather than illegal/threatening tactics
  • D is a competitor of P seeking the same customers
  • D has a financial stake or other responsibility for the third party or the third party requested their advice
294
Q

Beware of the product liability case that is based on a negligence theory

A

If you see one of these, they are probably testing you on your recognition of the fact that reasonableness is a defense and that normal negligence concepts apply

295
Q

How are breach questions usually tested?

A

By asking about directed verdict.
If the plaintiff has presented no evidence of breach and there is no res ipsa, defendant gets a directed verdict.
P never gets a directed verdict unless there is negligence per se and no issue of causation.

296
Q

Is landscaping flora a natural or artificial condition?

A

Weeds are natural - hedges are artificial

297
Q

A manufacturer sells product to a retailer who then rebrands the product as its own (packaging, naming, etc) before selling - does this cut off liability for the manufacturer?

A

No - does not cut off liability for the manufacturer

298
Q

How is actual cause established in a strict liability products case?

A

P must prove that the defect existed when the product left D’s control

299
Q

P sues retailer, wholesaler, and mfg on a strict liability products theory and P proves his case. Who is liable? Indemnity options?

A

All three are liable to P, BUT the defendants can seek indemnity from anyone up the chain from them until the liability comes to rest with the manufacturer

However, even if retailer negligently failed to inspect, mfg cannot seek indemnity from retailer because retailer is down the chain

300
Q

Do comparative negligence and assumption of the risk apply in the context of strict liability?

A

YES