Civil Procedure Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the two step analysis for personal jurisdiction?

In what courts does this analysis apply

A

Step 1) PJ must fall within a state statute
Step 2) PJ must satisfy the Constitution

This analysis applies in state and federal courts

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2
Q

What is a long arm statute? What are the two drafting styles?

A

A statute granting PJ over nonresidents who do or cause certain things within the state.

May go to the fund extent of the Constitution or list a bunch of activities

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3
Q

What is the core question of the Constitutional step in the personal jurisdiction analysis?

What do you consider to answer that question?

A

Does the defendant have minimum contacts with the forum so that jurisdiction does not offend traditional notions of fair play and substantial justice?

Consider 1) Contacts 2) Relatedness 3) Fairness

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4
Q

When evaluating the Contacts factor in the constitutional step in the PJ analysis, what do you consider?

A

Purposeful availment and Foreseeability

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5
Q

What do you consider in evaluating purposeful availment under the contacts factor in the constitutional step of the PJ analysis?

What do you consider in the foreseeability element?

A

Are the contacts from D’s purposeful availment? Can purposefully avail without ever setting foot in the state by causing an effect in the forum.
e.g.
Market a product in the forum
Create a market in a forum (by servicing product, accepting returns, etc)
Use roads in a forum
establish domicile in a forum
travel in the forum
send tortious email into the forum
maintain an interactive website within the forum (if targeting the forum’s customers)

Is it foreseeable that the defendant could get sued in the forum?

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6
Q

When evaluating the Relatedness factor in the constitutional step in the PJ analysis, what do you consider?

A

Does the contact that is the subject of Plaintiff’s claim “arise from or relate to” D’s purposeful contact with the forum?
~ It definitely “arises out of” D’s contact if D’s contact caused harm to P.
~ Even if D’s contact did not cause harm to P, if D has substantial contact with the forum, relatedness is satisfied if the claim merely “relates to” D’s contacts with the forum. BUT if a tort is committed in another state under the performance of a contract formed in a state, the tort does not arise out of the state where the contract is formed (remember the airline ticket essay)

If yes, specific jurisdiction

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7
Q

If the claim does not arise out of or relate to D’s contact with the forum state, what is the other way to satisfy the relatedness prong of the PJ analysis?

A

General PJ. If D is at home in the forum state, D can be sued there regardless where the claim arose

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8
Q

Where is a human always “at home” for general personal jurisdiction purposes?

A

Where they are domiciled

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9
Q

If D is served with process in the forum state, what kind of personal jurisdiction does the court have over them?

A

General personal jurisdiction

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10
Q

Where is a corporation always “at home” for general personal jurisdiction purposes?

A

In the state where it is incorporated and the state where it has its principal place of business

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11
Q

When is the Fairness factor in the constitutional step of the the PJ analysis used? What do you consider when it is used?

A

The fairness factor only applies in specific jurisdiction

Look at:
1) Burden on the defendant and the witnesses (travel is not a problem unless D can show that it puts her at a severe disadvantage - wealth/poverty not considered)
2) State’s interest (in providing a forum for its residents to protect themselves against out of state wrongdoers)
3) P’s interest (might be injured and would find it difficult to go to D’s home state)
(+efficiency and public policy)

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12
Q

What is the constitutional standard for proper notice?

A

Notice must be “reasonably calculated under all the circumstances to apprise interested parties of the action”

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13
Q

What are the two documents required to be delivered for notice? What are they known together as?

A

Need (1) a summons (court notice of the suit and timing for response) and (2) copy of the complaint

Together they are called “process”

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14
Q

Who can serve process?

A

Anyone over 18 who is not a party to the action (does not have to be appointed by the court)

The party’s lawyer is not a party and thus can serve process

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15
Q

When must a defendant be served with process?

A

within 90 days of the filing of the complaint (but the period may be extended for good cause)

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16
Q

How can process be served on an individual in the United States?

A

1) for personal service, process is given to D personally anywhere
2) Substituted service at (a) D’s usual place of abode (2) with someone of “suitable age and discretion” (3) who resides there
3) service on D’s agent (if receiving service is in scope of agency)
4) Method permitted by the law of the state where the federal court sits or state where service is made (esp by mail)

D does not have to reside at the usual place of abode every day of the year but must be usual at that time of year, and the person given the substitute service does not have to be related to D but must live there

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17
Q

How can process be served on a business or organization in the United States?

A

1) Delivery to an officer or managing/general agent

2) Method permitted by the law of the state where the federal court sits or state where service is made

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18
Q

How can process be served on a minor or incompetent person int he United States?

A

Only by a method permitted by the law of the state in which service is to be made

(NOT ALWAYS the law of the state in which the court sits)

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19
Q

How can process be served on parties in a foreign country?

A

1) Method allowed by international agreement
2) If reasonably calculated to give notice: (a) as directed by an American court, (b) method allowed by the foreign country’s law, (c) method directed by foreign official in response to a letter rogatory (request) from an American court, (d) personal service, (e) (big one) mail sent BY THE CLERK of the American court requiring a signed receipt

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20
Q

How can P request that D waive service?

A

P mails D a notice and request to waive. Must include a copy of the complaint, two copies of the waiver form, prepaid means of returning the waiver form.

If D completes the waiver form and returns it within 30 days (60 if outside of the US), then D waives service of process. Waiver not effective until P files the waiver with the court (so for timing purposes we act as if D was served with process on the day P filed the waiver)

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21
Q

What legal effect does waiving service of process have on D’s ability to defend.

A

D does not waive any defense including lack of PJ

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22
Q

Can D waive or not waive service of process with no repercussions?

A

No. If D fails to waive and forces P to serve personally or via substitute service, D must pay the costs of service unless D can show good cause

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23
Q

How does P prove service of process?

What happens if fails to do this?

A

Process server files an affidavit (sworn statement under oath) with the court detailing how service was made

If the process server fails to file the report, the service is still valid

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24
Q

When is D immune from service of process even though they are physically present in the forum state?

A

If D is in court in the state defending a different action

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25
Q

What does service of documents other than process look like?

A

Less formal. Delivery or mailing is fine. Email is also fine if the parties agree.

Service is deemed complete when mailed, but add 3 days to the response time if mailed

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26
Q

Where can process be served for federal court?

A

In the state in which the federal court sits and outside that state IF STATE LAW ALLOWS. It’s the exact same analysis in state and federal court.

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27
Q

What cases do state courts have SMJ over?

A

All cases unless it’s exclusive federal jurisdiction (patent infringement, bankruptcy, federal securities and antitrust claims)

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28
Q

What are the three ways that a federal court has SMJ?

A

1) Federal Question
2) Diversity
3) Supplemental

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29
Q

What happens if parties consent to a court’s lack of SMJ and judgment is entered by that court?

A

Consent makes no difference. The judgment is void

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30
Q

What are the two requirements for diversity cases?

A

1) COMPLETE DIVERSITY between citizens of different US states or between citizen of a US state and citizen of a foreign country (MEMORIZE THIS PHRASING not good enough to have two foreigners)
2) the amount in controversy exceeds $75K

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31
Q

When is diversity judged as of in the procedure of the case?

A

Judged as of when the case is filed

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32
Q

What is the mechanical process for determining complete diversity?

A

Write states of all P’s and states of all D’s, draw a line through the V and if there is the same state on both sides of the line, it’s ruined.

Two defendants from the same state is not a problem.

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33
Q

Is a lawful permanent resident of a state (green card holder) who is not a citizen considered to be a citizen of that state for diversity/alienage jurisdiction purposes?

A

NO (but might get alienage jurisdiction as an alien)

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34
Q

What is the rule or diversity jurisdiction with green card holders?

A

By STATUTE, diversity/alienage jurisdiction is withdrawn if the greencard holder is from the same state as a party on the other side of the case

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35
Q

What is the status of a US citizen living abroad for purposes of alienage/diversity jurisdiction?

A

The US citizen living abroad is NOT an alien and is NOT a citizen of any US state, so if US citizen abroad sued by a foreign or domestic plaintiff, there is no alienage (because no citizen of a US state) and no diversity (because the parties are not citizens of different US states)

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36
Q

In what state is a US citizen a citizen of that state?

A

In the state where the person is domiciled. Can only have one domicile and every citizen has a domicile. Domcile is retained until changed. Domicile is changed based on:

1) physical presence in the new domicile
2) subjective intent to make that place your home for the indefinite future (judged by all relevant factors)

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37
Q

In what state is a corporation a citizen of that state?

A

A corp is a citizen of

1) any state/country of inc
2) one state/country in which it has PPB

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38
Q

What is the corporation’s PPB?

A

The place where the corp’s managers direct and control business activities (the “nerve center”)

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39
Q

In what state is a partnership or unincorporated association a citizen of that state?

A

An unincorporated association takes on the citizenships of its members

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40
Q

In what state is a limited partnership a citizen of that state?

A

Wherever a general or limited partner lives

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41
Q

In a suit against a decedent, a minor, or an incompetent person what state matters for diversity?

A

Even though you have to sue them through a representative, it is the decedent/minor/incompetent person’s citizenship that matters.

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42
Q

In a class action whose citizenship is used for diversity purposes?

A

the named class representatives

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43
Q

What is the minimum amount in controversy for diversity jurisdiction?

A

Must EXCEED 75000

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44
Q

What is included in the amount in controversy?

A

Only the claim itself - not litigation costs of expenses.

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45
Q

Is interest included in the amount in controversy calculation?

A

Only if it is part of the claim.
Interest on the claim from delay in payment from the litigation is not part of the claim
Interest that is part of the loan agreement or contract is included in the claim

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46
Q

How is the amount of the claim estimated for purposes of the amount in controversy?

A

Whatever the plaintiff claims in good faith unless it is clear “to a legal certainty” that she cannot recover more than 75000

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47
Q

Can claimed punitive damages be added to the amount in controversy?

A

Yes (as long as the COA allows for the collection of punitive damages

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48
Q

What are the aggregation rules for amount in controversy in 1v1 context

A

single plaintiff can aggregate all of her claims against a single defendant - REGARDLESS if they are related

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49
Q

What are the aggregation rules for amount in controversy in the 2v1 context?

What are the aggregation rules for AIC in the class action context?

A

CANNOT aggregate the claims of multiple plaintiffs against a single defendant. UNLESS they seek to enforce a single right in which they have a common or undivided interest (if the claims are separate, no aggregation)

In a class action, one class rep’s claim must exceed $75K and the court will have supp j over the remaining

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50
Q

What are the aggregation rules for amount in controversy for a joint claim?

A

Use the total value of the joint claim - the number of parties subject to the joint claim is irrelevant

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51
Q

How is seeking equitable/injunctive relief translated into an amount in controversy?

A

Must meet at least one of the below tests:

1) P’s Viewpoint: If granted, does the relief requested have a value of >75K to P?
2) D’s Viewpoint: If granted, will the relief requested have a cost to D of >75K?

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52
Q

When do federal courts decline diversity jurisdiction EVEN IF the amount in controversy and diversity/alienage requirements are met?

A

Divorce, alimony, child custody, actions to probate an estate.

Be precise - not all family related cases are excluded

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53
Q

Can a party scheme to create diversity by assigning their claim to another party for purposes of collection?

Can a party change their state of citizenship after a COA has arisen and still get diversity

A

No, scheme will be ignored and no diversity

Yes, as long as it’s a genuine change of citizenship

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54
Q

When does a court have federal question jurisdiction?

A

Plaintiff’s CLAIM must “arise under” federal law and be on the face of P’s “well pleaded complaint.” Look only at the CLAIM.

P must be enforcing a federal right

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55
Q

Is a defense involving federal law sufficient to get federal question jurisdiction?

A

NO - plaintiff’s claim must arise under federal law.

P must be enforcing a federal right

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56
Q

How can a federal court undo D’s improper removal of a case from state to federal court?

A

The federal court can “remand” the case back to the state court

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57
Q

When can a defendant remove a case to federal court?

A

D can remove an action to federal court if P could have originally filed an action there.

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58
Q

What are the mechanics of D removing a case to federal court?

A

D must do 3 things:

1) file a notice of removal in the FEDERAL COURT stating the grounds for removal (ie grounds for SMJ) and attach all documents that were served on them in the state action.
2) D must “promptly” serve a notice of renewal on adverse parties
3) D must file a copy of the notice of removal in state court

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59
Q

How long does D have to remove a case to federal court?

A

30 days after service (not filing) of the first paper that shows the case is removable

Not always the service of process.

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60
Q

If there is more than one defendant, who has to agree to the removal?

A

ALL OF THEM - must be unanimous.

They can file separate notices of removal.

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61
Q

What if there is more than one defendant and the earlier defendant’s 30 day removal window has already passed and a later joined defendant wants to remove. Can the earlier D join to meet the unanimity requirement?

A

YES - earlier D can join later D’s removal even though her own 30 day window has expired.

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62
Q

When can a plaintiff remove a case?

A

NEVER - even if there is a counterclaim and even if D agrees

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63
Q

What are the limitations on cases can be removed from state to federal court?

A

All cases where the federal court has SMJ BUT if removing based on diversity of citizenship, the case should not be removed if EITHER

1) ANY D is a citizen of the forum state OR
2) removal would be >1 year after the case was filed in state court

These limitations don’t apply in Fed Q cases or in cases where P joined a non-diverse party/concealed true AIC in bad faith to prevent removal

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64
Q

At the outset, a case cannot be removed to federal court because the federal court would only have diversity SMJ and one of the defendants is a citizen of the forum state. The D that is a citizen of the forum later drops out of the case. Can the case now be removed by the remaining defendants?

A

If D is voluntarily dismissed from the case, and the removal would occur within one year after the case was filed in state court, then the case can be removed.

Same thing works if you get rid of the one non-diverse defendant

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65
Q

What is the interaction of the 30 day and 1 year limitations on removal?

A

The one year limitation only applies to cases removed where the federal court has SMJ because of diversity of citizenship.

D has 30 days from when D learned that the case became removable (relevant order/info served on them) to remove the case (not always when case was filed) BUT D in a diversity case can never remove a case more than one year after the case is filed

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66
Q

What is the exception to the one year limitation on removal?

A

Only if D can show that P joined the non-diverse or home state D only to prevent removal

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67
Q

What is the venue limitation on removal?

A

Defendant must remove to the federal district court “embracing” the state court where the case was filed.

It does not matter if this venue would have been proper under the venue statutes.

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68
Q

How long does P have to move to remand the case that D has just removed?

A

If based on SMJ -> no time limit
If not based on SMJ -> 30 days from the filing of the notice of removal (the in state defendant limitation is not based on SMJ)

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69
Q

What is supplemental jurisdiction and how is it different from diversity and federal question jurisdiction?

A

Supplemental jurisdiction is a form of SMJ BUT Supp J gets claims into federal court and not cases.

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70
Q

What is the analysis in deciding if you need to invoke supplemental jurisdiction?

[it’s important to trace the steps on an essay question]

A

1) Must have a case with Fed Q or Diversity jurisdiction
2) Check to see if the additional claim has Fed Q or diversity jurisdiction on its own
3) Check for Supplemental jurisdiction (if no diversity or Fed Q)
3A) Common Nucleus Test
3B) P cannot use supp j to bolt a claim onto a diversity case unless there are multiple Ps and supp j used to dodge the AIC requirement
4) Consider court’s discretion to decline Supplemental jurisdiction

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71
Q

Does a federal court have to have jurisdiction over counter claims and cross claims?

A

Yes - the federal court must have SMJ over every single claim in the case

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72
Q

What if the $25K claim is out of the same t/o?

A

If the counterclaim is mandatory, it would not need to meet the AIC requirement

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73
Q

What is the analysis for invoking supplemental jurisdiction?

A

Supplemental claim shares “common nucleus of operative fact” with the claim that has SMJ. This test is always met if the claims arise from the same “transaction or occurrence” as the underlying case, but there might be a common nucleus of operative fact even if not from the same t/o.

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74
Q

What is the limitation on the use of supplemental jurisdiction?

P1 sues D under diversity SMJ, can P2 sue D with <75K claim and no fed Q if P1 and P2’s claims come out of a common nucleus of operative fact?

A

Plaintiffs cannot use supplemental jurisdiction to bolt a claim onto a DIVERSITY case UNLESS there are multiple plaintiffs and supp J is being used to help another P dodge the AIC requirement.

Defendants and other non plaintiffs may use supp j but court has discretion to decline it.

Yes, a Co-P with an insufficient AIC can use supp j to bring their claim as long as the co-p does not destroy the complete diversity

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75
Q

When is a court likely to decline to exercise supplemental jurisdiction?

A

1) state law claim is complex
2) state law issues would predominate
3) the claim with federal SMJ supporting the supp j was dismissed early in the case.

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76
Q

A a diversity case brought in federal court, what law applies?

A

3 Step in Erie Analysis

1) Is there a federal law that directly conflicts with state law? If so apply federal law b/c supremacy clause (so if there’s an FRCP and it’s arguably procedural, that’s what applies)
2) If there’s no federal law on point, apply state law if in one of the 5 clearly “substantive” categories
3) If no federal law on point and not in one of the categories, must determine if the issue is substantive according to the three balancing factors

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77
Q

When is a state law clearly substantive for erie purposes?

A

1) Conflict or choice of law rules
2) elements of a claim or defense
3) SoL
4) Rules for tolling SoL
5) standard for granting a new trial because the jury’s damages award was excessive or inadequate

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78
Q

What is important to remember about SoL in the erie context?

A

SoL are substantive for Erie purposes, so the judge applies state law SoL, but the judge must also apply state choice of law rules to determine which state law

Some states have decided from a choice of law perspective that SoL is procedural (and so its own SoL applies and not that of another state). Federal judges respect this decision from a choice of law perspective because choice of law is substantive.

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79
Q

What are the Erie factors to consider If there is no federal law on point and the law is not in one of the 5 clear categories?

A

3 Balancing Factors

1) Outcome determinative (if outcome determinative, probably substantive)
2) Balance of Interests (does either the federal or state system have a strong interest in having its rule applied)?
3) Avoid Forum shopping (if ignoring state law on the issue would increase litigation in federal court, apply state law)

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80
Q

True or false: Erie says there is no federal common law.

A

False. Erie says there is no GENERAL federal common law, so federal courts apply state substantive law for torts, contracts, property, etc. BUT federal courts can make up their own common law where there is no state law corollary (like international relations, admiralty)

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81
Q

What is the most important area to remember that is subject to federal common law?

A

Federal common law governs for claim/issue preclusion unless it’s a diversity case. In a diversity case, federal common law follows state law on claim/issue preclusion.

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82
Q

What is the purpose of venue?

A

Tells you in what federal court you should bring a case.

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83
Q

Where can plaintiff lay venue?

A

If initially filed in federal court, venue proper in any district where:
1) Residential Venue- any district where all D’s reside
2) Transactional Venue- A substantial part of the claim arose or a substantial part of the property involved in the lawsuit is located
If neither of these [rare], then can file in any district where D is subject to PJ

But remember, if the case is removed, the venue is in the federal court that embraces the state court from which the case was removed.

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84
Q

If all Ds live in the same state but different judicial districts within that state, where is venue proper under the residential venue route?

A

Residential venue is proper in any district in which one of the Ds resides

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85
Q

Where does a “substantial part” of a claim “arise” for purposes of transactional venue?

A

a substantial part of the claim might arise in more than one district.

e. g. in tort, where the defective product was made and where the plaintiff was injured
e. g. in contract, where the contract was entered into and where it was to be performed

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86
Q

For venue purposes do we care about where the plaintiff lives? Where the defendant lives?

A

We only care about where D lives - NOT where P lives.

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87
Q

What are the differences in the venue rules for diversity and federal question cases?

A

They are the same.

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88
Q

What venue is proper if one of the defendants lives outside of the US?

A

If the only defendant lives outside of the US, then venue is proper in any district, but if there is more than one D and one D lives inside the US, venue must be proper as to them.

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89
Q

Where does a human defendant reside for venue purposes?

Where does an entity defendant reside for venue purposes?

A

Human resides in the federal district where she is domiciled.

Entity resides in all districts where it is subject to PJ

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90
Q

When is transfer of venue proper?

A

When the transferee court has proper venue and PJ over the defendant without any kind of waiver by the defendant.

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91
Q

What is the statutory rule for transfer from a proper venue?

A
  • If the transferor court has proper venue and D seeks transfer to another venue, court can order transfer based on the interests of justice and public and private factors (if seeking transfer to an improper venue, all parties must consent)
  • Burden is on the party seeking the transfer
  • This can be done at any time even after venue objections have been waived (b/c transfer is not an objection to improper venue)
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92
Q

Under the statutory rule for transfer from a proper venue, what factors does the court consider in evaluating a motion?

A
Court considers public and private to determine if the other venue is the "center of gravity" for the case:
Public Factors (what law applies, what community would be burdened with jury servicesand desire to keep a local controversy in a local court) and 
Private factors (convenience based on where parties and evidence are located)
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93
Q

If a transfer of venue is granted under the rule from a court where venue was proper, what are the choice of law implications?

A

The transferee court must apply the choice of law rules of the transferor court (unless the transfer is to give effect to a valid forum selection clause) - this is only relevant in diversity cases

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94
Q

What is a forum selection clause?

A

A provision in which parties agree that a dispute between them will be litigated in a particular place. Can be enforced via a motion to transfer ASSUMING the forum selection clause called for litigation in a proper federal district

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95
Q

What law governs the enforcement of a forum selection clause?

What is different about enforcing a forum selection clause compared to an ordinary transfer out of a proper venue?

A

In federal court federal law governs. Federal law enforces forum selection clauses as long as they are not unreasonable. Only public interest factors are considered in the transfer. Transferee court applies its own choice of law rules

State courts might not be so deferential

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96
Q

What is the statutory standard for transfer of venue out of a venue that is improper?

What choice of law rules apply in this instance?

A

If the original district is an improper venue, the judge can transfer in the interest of justice or dismiss. (but if it’s a valid claim that’s just in the wrong venue, should probably transfer rather than dismiss)

The choice of law rules of the transferee court apply

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97
Q

What is forum non conveniens?

A

If there is another court that is the center of gravity of the case but it is not in the same judicial system.

If FNC is invoked, the transferor court will hold the case in abeyance or dismiss it so that P can then sue in the better forum. The court invoking FNC might impose conditions on the party invoking FNC like requiring them to waive service of process

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98
Q

What are the factors considered in invoking forum non conveniens

A

Another court must be available and “adequate,” but the forum will be adequate unless the plaintiff cannot get any remedy at all there (even if the remedy is much less)

The same public and private factors considered in a transfer of venue out of a proper venue INCLUDING the existence of a valid forum selection clause

Public Factors (what law applies, what community would be burdened with jury servicesand desire to keep a local controversy in a local court) and 
Private factors (convenience based on where parties and evidence are located)
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99
Q

What must be included in a complaint?

A

1 – grounds for subject matter jurisdiction
2 – short and plain statement of the claim showing that plaintiff is entitled to relief
3 – demand for relief sought
4 - allege sufficient facts to support a plausible claim (judge uses their judgment)

(notice how don’t have to allege grounds for PJ or venue)

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100
Q

What COAs require extra detail to be included in the pleading? What is the standard for the extra level of detail required?

A

Fraud, mistake, special damages

particularity and specificity

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101
Q

What are the two ways that a defendant can respond to a complaint?

A

1) by motion

2) by answer

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102
Q

How long does D have to respond to a complaint?

A

21 days after being served with process

If D waived service, 60 days from the date when P mailed the waiver form

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103
Q

What are motions?

A

Motions are not pleadings. They request an order of the court.

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104
Q

What commences an action?

A

Filing the complaint

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105
Q

What are the two rule 12 motions addressing issues of form in the pleading?

A

12(e) motion is a motion for a more definite statement when the complaint is so vague the defendant cannot respond (must make this motion before answer)

12(f) motion to strike asks the court to remove redundant or immaterial things from the pleading

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106
Q

Which party can move to strike under rule 12(f)

A

Either party.
For example, P might move to strike an affirmative defense from D’s answer or D might move to strike an allegation of fraud

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107
Q

What are the waivable rule 12(b) defenses and what’s special about them?

A

3Ps and a V
lack of PJ, improper venue, improper process, improper service

These are waived if they are not put in the FIRST rule 12 response (MOTION OR ANSWER)
(so if you have a 12b1 MTD for lack of SMJ without also raising PJ, you waive even if you make the PJ motion right after - amendment of answer as of right to add PJ objection works if there were no 12b motion)

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108
Q

What are the 12(b) defenses that can be raised later? How late can they be raised?

A

1) Failure to state a claim
2) Failure to join an indispensable party

Can be raised as late as at trial (but can’t be raised for the first time on appeal)

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109
Q

What happens if a Defendant’s rule 12 motion to dismiss is denied

A

Defendant must answer no later than 14 days after notice of denial

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110
Q

What kind of motions do 12(b) defenses serve as the basis for?

A

motions to dismiss

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111
Q

What is an answer?

A

The pleading where the defendant responds to the allegations to the complaint (admit or deny or state insufficient knowledge) and raises affirmative defenses

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112
Q

When can a defendant respond to an allegation by stating insufficient knowledge?

What is the effect of stating insufficient knowledge?

A

Anytime as long as the answer to the allegation is not in her control.

Effect is the same as a denial

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113
Q

What happens if a defendant fails to admit, deny or state insufficient knowledge as to an allegation?

A

The allegation is deemed to be admitted (except regarding the amount of damages)

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114
Q

What can be pled as affirmative defenses?

A

Classic affirmative defenses like SoF and self defense as well as any 12)(b) defense

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115
Q

What does a plaintiff have to do in response to a defendant’s assertion of an affirmative defense?

A

Nothing - all allegations in the defendant’s answer are deemed denied without action on the plaintiff’s part

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116
Q

If D fails to assert an affirmative defense in the answer, what’s the risk?

A

The court might treat it as a waiver

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117
Q

What is plaintiff’s right to amend the complaint?

A

P can amend the complaint once no later than 21 days after D serves their first Rule 12 response (could be motion or answer)

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118
Q

What is defendant’s right to amend the answer?

A

Can amend once within 21 days after serving the answer.

If D’s first response was an answer, D can include a forgotten rule 12(b) waivable defense or a forgotten affirmative defense in the amendment

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119
Q

If P or D wants to amend their pleading after the period to amend as of right, can they?

A

They must seek a leave of court or get the written consent of the opposing party.

Court grants if justice so requires (look at length of delay, prejudice to the other party, futility of amendment)

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120
Q

What is variance?

What should a party do of they notice a variance at trial.

A

When the evidence at trial does not match what was pleaded

If a party notices a variance at trial, they must object at trial. If the party does not object to the variance, the party may move to amend the complaint to conform to the evidence. The party can move to amend the complaint even after the verdict if the other party has not objected to the variance at trial.

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121
Q

What are the 4 fact patterns for amending pleadings?

A

1 and 2) P or D wants to amend they pleading AS OF RIGHT

3) Party wants to amend a pleading to assert a new claim after the SoL has run
4) Party wants to amend a pleading to change a defendant after the SoL has run

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122
Q

When does an amended pleading “relate back” and when is this important?

A

Relating back is important if the amendment is after the SoL has run.

An amended pleading “relates back” if it concerns the same conduct, transaction, or occurrence as the original pleading

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123
Q

What must be shown to amend a pleading (not as of right) to add a new defendant after the SoL has passed such that it relates back?

When is an action deemed commenced for SOL purposes?

A

1) [Same t/o] Amd must concern the same conduct, transaction or occurrence as the original pleading
2) [knew of suit] New D must have had such knowledge of the case that she will be able to avoid prejudice
3) [knew of mistake] New D knew or should have known that but for a mistake, she would have been named originally

*Knowledge under 2 and 3 must have come within the period for service of process (90 days after filing of the complaint)

Action deemed commenced in a Fed Q case when the complaint is filed but in a diversity case, action deemed commenced at time determined by state law

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124
Q

What are supplemental pleadings? When can one be filed?

A

Set forth things that happened after the pleadings were filed. (can add claims, details, etc)

There is no right to file a supplemental pleading, must make a motion and the court hs discretion to grant or deny

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125
Q

When does Rule 11 apply?

A

Rule 11 applies to all motions/pleadings except for discovery or when a party presents a position to the court (“continuing certification”) every time you present the position you are re certifying that Rule 11 requirements have been met

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126
Q

What does a Rule 11 signature certify?

A

Certifies that to the best of the signor’s knowledge or belief, after reasonable inquiry…

1) the paper is not for an improper purpose
2) the legal contentions are warranted by law or a nonfrivolous argument for a change of law
3) factual contentions and denials of factual contentions have evidentiary support or are likely to after further investigation

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127
Q

Against whom may Rule 11 sanctions be imposed? What’s the purpose?

A

Can be imposed against the party, the lawyer and/or the lawyers firm.

The purpose is to deter a repeat of the conduct (not to punish)

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128
Q

Who can suggest that sanctions be imposed?

What is required before sanctions are imposed?

A

The opposing party by motion OR the court itself with an order to show cause why sanctions should not be imposed.

The party about to be sanctioned must have an opportunity to be heard (regardless who raised the issue)

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129
Q

What kinds of punishments can be imposed under Rule 11?

A

non monetary sanctions (e.g. requiring the lawyer to take a professionalism class)

or monetary sanctions paid to the court (not the other party)

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130
Q

What is the Rule 11 safe harbor

A

Before bringing a motion for Rule 11 sanctions to the court, a party must serve the opposing party and the party in violation has 21 days to fix the problem and avoid sanctions, then the motion can be filed with the court.

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131
Q

What two things govern how many claims and parties can be added to a case (joinder)?

A

1) Joinder must be allowed by the FRCP

2) There must be SMJ over the case

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132
Q

What are the FRCP’s rules for claim joinder by the plaintiff?

A

Under the FRCP, P can join any claim that they have against the adverse party, but you need SMJ

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133
Q

When can a case be brought by multiple plaintiffs or against multiple defendants (or equivalently when can P join a party to the case)?

A

The claims by multiple P’s or against multiple D’s must:

1) arise from the same transaction or occurrence AND
2) raise at least one common question of law or fact

(then joinder allowed but not required)

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134
Q

What is the analysis for when a necessary/indispensable party needs to be joined?

A

1) Is the absentee necessary/required?
2) If the absentee is necessary, is joinder feasible? and
3) If the absentee can’t be joined, can the case proceed anyway?

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135
Q

When is a party necessary or required to be joined to the case?

A

Usually raised on motion of D
Either:
1) W/o absentee, the court can’t accord complete relief among the parties (concern about multiple suits)
2) Absentee’s interests prejudiced if not joined [Most common on the exam]
3) Absentee claims an interest that subjects a party (usually D) to a risk of multiple/inconsistent obligations

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136
Q

Are joint tortfeasors necessary or required parties that must be joined to a case?

A

Never

137
Q

When can a necessary absentee be joined? [Feasibility]

A

Joinder is feasible if:

1) court has PJ over that party
2) court has SMJ over the claim by/against that party (to determine if there is diversity, the court “aligns” the absentee as P or D based on absentee’s interest)

138
Q

What does a court do when joinder of a necessary or required party is not feasible?

A

Court must decide if it will proceed without them or dismiss the entire case. Court considers the following:

1) Is there an alternative forum available? (st ct?)
2) What is the actual likelihood of harm to the absentee?
3) Can court shape relief to avoid harm to the absentee?

139
Q

If a court decides to dismiss a case rather than proceed without the absentee, what is the absentee party called?

A

An indispensable party.
(remember in rule 12, failure to join an indispensable party is a basis for an MTD)

You can proceed without a “necessary” party if joinder not feasible, you just can’t proceed without an indispensable party

140
Q

What is a counterclaim?

A

A claim against an opposing party.

Once one party asserts a claim against another, they are opposing parties, so any claim by an opposing party is a counterclaim

141
Q

What are the mechanics of D making a counterclaim?

A

Counterclaim is part of D’s answer

142
Q

How long does P have to respond if D counterclaims against them?

A

P must respond under Rule 12 within 21 days of service of the counterclaim/answer

143
Q

What is a compulsory counterclaim?

A

A counterclaim that arises from the same t/o as the plaintiff’s claim.
Unless the counterclaimant has already filed the claim in another case, they must file it in this case or else it is waived.

This is the only compulsory claim in federal court

144
Q

When exactly is a counterclaim waived if it is not asserted?

A

If D has to answer and fails to include the counter claim in the answer.

So if you can get the case dismissed under Rule 12 without ever having to answer, compulsory counterclaims are not waived

145
Q

What is a permissive counterclaim?

A

Any counterclaim that does not arise from the same t/o as P’s claim.

The party can choose to sue on these claims in a separate case

146
Q

Besides arising from the same t/o, what is another factor that must be considered in deciding if a counterclaim is permissive or compulsory?

A

Must consider if the court has SMJ over the claim

147
Q

What is a crossclaim?

What is required of valid crossclaims?

Are crossclaims compulsory?

A

A claim against a co-party (someone on the same side of the v)

Crossclaim must arise from the same t/o as the underlying action.

Crossclaims are not compulsory

148
Q

If P sues D1 and D2 under diversity SMJ and D2 cross claims against D1 and needs supplemental SMJ, does the limitation apply?

A

No, the limitation on supplemental jurisdiction in a diversity case only applies if the PLAINTIFF is seeking supp j. Here the claim is by a defendant.

149
Q

If Co-D1 files a crossclaim against Co-D2 and Co-D2 wants to file a claim against Co-D1, what kind of claim would that be?

If Co-D1 has a valid cross claim, can Co-D1 sue Co-D2 on a claim unrelated to P’s claim against D and unrelated the crossclaim?

A

Counterclaim because it’s against an opposing party

Yes, once a cross claimant has a valid cross claim (a claim that arises from the same t/o as the underlying action), then the cross claimant MAY assert any other claims against the defendant in the cross claim REGARDLESS if they’re related.

150
Q

Beware - as soon as there are a new set of opposing parties, what should they worry about?

A

Compulsory counter claims.

e.g. Co-D1 cross claims Co-D2. they are not opposing parties and Co-D2 must assert any compulsory counterclaims it has against Co-D1

151
Q

If the joinder type (cross claim and counter claim) starts with C, what does that tell you?

A

Those are by people who are already in the Case!

152
Q

If a joinder type starts with the letter I (Impleader, Intervention, Interpleader), what does that tell you?

A

We are joining someone new Into the case.

153
Q

What is a synonym for an impleader claim?

A

A third party claim

154
Q

What is an impleader claim?

A

When a defending party brings in a new party.
The defending party is looking for indemnity/contribution - to shift the liability that D will owe P to the impleaded party

Saying “I’m not liable, he’s liable” is not seeking indemnity. Saying “I’m liable, but he’s liable to me” is seeking indemnity

155
Q

What is the party bringing an impleader claim called?

What is the party being brought in under the impleader called?

A

a third party plaintiff

A third party defendant

156
Q

What is the difference in indemnity and contribution?

A

Indemnity shifts liability completely

Contribution shifts liability pro rata

157
Q

Is impleader ever compulsory?

A

No - the only compulsory claim is a compulsory counterclaim

158
Q

What are the mechanics for impleading a third party defendant into the case?

A

1) Must file a third party complaint naming the TPD

2) Must have the complaint formally served (like an original complaint) on the TPD

159
Q

Is permission of the court needed to implead?

A

If the party impleads within 14 days of serving the answer, no premission is needed.

After 14 days, court permission is required

160
Q

After a third party defendant is impleaded into the case, who can assert what claims?

A

P can assert claims against TPD and TPD can assert claims against P, but these claims must arise out of the same t/o and be supported by SMJ

161
Q

P sues D using diversity SMJ.
D impleads TPD with diversity or Fed Q SMJ
TPD and P now sue each other and want to use supp j - does the limitation apply?

A

The limitation on supp J is only a concern for the claims made by P against TPD.

The limitation only applies when a plaintiff in a diversity case seeks to invoke supp J

162
Q

P (TX) sues D (CA) and D impleads TPD (TX). If AIC is met, does the impleader have diversity SMJ?

What if TPD makes a claim against P - is there diversity SMJ?

A

Yes - for impleader, look at the TPP and TPD, draw the line as if there was another “v” and evaluate for complete diversity. The original P is not a party to the impleader claim

No, but the supp J limitation would not apply because the claim is being made by TPD and not by P

163
Q

What are the requirements for intervention?

A

Intervention must be:

1) timely and
2) As of Right or permissive

164
Q

When is intervention as of right?

A

When the intervening party’s interests may be harmed if not joined and their interest is not adequately represented by current parties (same test as one of the tests for necessary party joinder)

Then the court MUST allow the intervention.

165
Q

When can a court grant permissive intervention?

A

If the intervening party’s claim/defense and the pending case have at least one common question of law or fact.

Court usually grants unless it would cause delay or prejudice to someone

166
Q

If an intervenor comes in as a plaintiff and starts asserting claims, does the limitation on supplemental jurisdiction apply?

A

Yes because plaintiffs in diversity cases can only use supp j to dodge the AIC requirement.

167
Q

What is interpleader?

A

An interpleader suit permits some person/stakeholder to require two or more adverse claimants to litigate amongst themselves as to who has a valid claim to some property.

Is used when separate actions might result in double liability against a stakeholder

168
Q

What are the two types of interpleader? What are the elements?

A

Rule 22 Interpleader requires complete diversity between the stakeholder and all adverse claimants and >75K AIC OR a federal Q. Normal venue/service rules.

Statutory Interpleader requires only diversity between any two adverse CLAIMANTS (if stakeholder makes no claim on the property, they are not a claimant) and $500 to be in issue. Service can be nation wide and venue is proper where any claimant resides

169
Q

What are the two types of interpleader? What are the elements?

A

Rule 22 Interpleader requires complete diversity between the stakeholder and all adverse claimants (imagine it’s stakeholder v defendants and draw the line) and >75K AIC OR a federal Q. Normal venue/service rules.

Statutory Interpleader requires only diversity between any two adverse CLAIMANTS (if stakeholder makes no claim on the property, they are not a claimant) and $500 to be in issue. Service can be nation wide and venue is proper where any claimant resides

170
Q

Insurance Co from state A asserts to claim to the property and files interpleader with claimants all from state B, what kind of interpleader can this be?

A

Can be Rule 22 because there is complete diversity between stakeholder and claimants (does not have to be diversity among claimants - imagine a “v” and draw the line like normal)

Cannot be statutory because there is no diversity between at least two claimants. Ins co is not a claimant.

171
Q

What are the two steps to a class action analysis?

A

1) Evaluate the 4 requirements for a valid class

2) Look for one of the 3 types of class action

172
Q

What are the 4 requirements for a class action?

A

1) Numerosity (too many class members fo joinder to be practicable)
2) Commonality (Must be some common issue among class members)
3) Typicality (rep’s claims re typical of the claims of the class)
4) Representative Adequate (Class rep will fairly and adequately represent the class(

173
Q

What are the 3 types of class actions?

A

1) Class treatment is necessary to avoid prejudice to either the class members or the non class party (limited funds case -rare)
2) Injunctive/declaratory relief where D treated the class alike (can’t seek damages)
3) Common questions predominate over individual questions and class action is the superior method to handle the dispute (damages case)

174
Q

When must notice and an opportunity to opt out be given to all class members?

A

Only in the third type of class action (damages case where common questions predominate over individual questions and class action is the superior method of resolving the dispute)

175
Q

When does a case become a real class action?

A

When the court…

1) certifies the class
2) defines the class and the class claims/issues/defenses
3) Judge appoints class counsel who will fairly and adequately represent the interests of the class

176
Q

If a class certification is denied/granted, can the losing party appeal?

A

Yes, court of appeals has discretion to grant review

177
Q

Describe the notice that is required to the class members in a damages case.

A

1) Individual notice to all reasonably identifiable class members
2) Notice is paid for by the class rep
3) Notice states that the class members (a) can opt out, (b) can be bound by the judgment if they don’t opt out, and (c) that they can enter a separate appearance through counsel

178
Q

Describe the notice that is required in a limited funds or injunctive relief case?

A

No notice required

179
Q

When are class members bound by a judgment in a class action?

A

Class members are bound unless they opt out, and class members can only opt out in a damages class action (not in limited funds or injunction class actions)

180
Q

Describe the settlement process of a class action and how does it vary depending on the types of class action.

A

Only a certified class can settle

For all types, the court must approve the settlement and must give notice to the class members to get their feedback on if the case should be settled or dismissed.

If it’s a damages class action, court might condition its approval on giving members a second chance to opt out

181
Q

What does an SMJ analysis for a class action require (absent CAFA)?

A

1) Fed Q (usual rules)
2) Diversity (only the citizenship of the class rep considered and only the AIC on the class rep’s claim considered - other claims are ignored)

182
Q

What is required for SMJ under CAFA?

What about removal under CAFA

A

Federal court can hear a class action if

  • At least 100 members
  • ANY class member (not just the class rep) is diverse from ANY defendant
  • The aggregated claims of the class exceed $5M
  • certain restrictions for keeping local class actions local

Any one D (EVEN AN IN STATE D) may remove the case from state to federal court

183
Q

What are initial required disclosures?

A

Information that must be disclosed even though a party has not asked for it.
This includes:
- Identities and contact info for people with discoverable info and the topics of discoverable info that the disclosing party may use to support claims/defenses
- Docs and items that disclosing party may use to support claims/defenses IF these are in the party’s custody or control
- Computation of relief + supporting documentation
- Insurance coverage

*Notice how this only includes items that the party may use to SUPPORT ITS OWN claims/defenses. No need to disclose info harmful to your case or beneficial to the other party’s case at this stage or if the only use is for impeachment

184
Q

What is the deadline for submitting initial required disclosures?

A

14 days after the Rule 26(f) conference

185
Q

What is the penalty for failure to disclose material that should have been disclosed?

A

The party cannot use the undisclosed material in the case unless the failure to disclose was “substantially justified” or harmless

186
Q

When are disclosures regarding expert witnesses due?

A

Time set by the court

187
Q

What must a party disclose regarding expert witnesses?

A

Must:

  • identify expert witnesses that may provide testimony at trial
  • Disclose a written report by the expert witness
  • AFTER disclosure provided, opposing party may depose the expert (best practice is to subpoena the expert) Deposing party bears the cost.
188
Q

What must be disclosed in the expert’s written report given to the opposing party?

Can the opposing party discover drafts of these reports?

A

Opinions that the expert witness will express,
bases for the opinions, and
facts used to form the opinions,
qualifications of the expert,
how much the expert is being paid
————
No, drafts and discussions between expert and counsel about the reports are work product

189
Q

What is the difference between an expert witness and a consulting expert?

Are draft reports or discussions of expert witnesses and consulting experts protected as work product?

A

Expert witnesses that may provide testimony at trial
Consulting experts do not testify but helped with preparing the case.

Yes, draft reports and discussions (about anything other than comp or what facts or data the atty provides to the expert) of expert witnesses and consulting experts are protected as work product

190
Q

What is the penalty for failure to disclose required material related to an expert?

A

Can’t use the expert witness unless the failure was justified or harmless

191
Q

What must be included in pretrial disclosures?

A
  • Info about trial evidence
  • identify of the witnesses who will (or might) testify live or via deposition
  • documents and things to be introduced at trial
192
Q

When are pretrial disclosures required?

A

No later than 30 days before trial

193
Q

When can parties request discovery information from each other?

A

After the Rule 26(f) conference and after the initial disclosures have been made.

Requests to Produce (that’s a discovery tool - not a general phrase) can be served after 21 days from the service of process and the request is treated as if it was served at the Rule 26(f) conference

194
Q

What is a deposition?

A

A person gives live testimony under oath in response to questions by counsel. Questions can be oral or written

195
Q

Who can be deposed?

Who can pose questions to the deponent?

A

Parties and nonparties

All parties can question

196
Q

Must the deponent review their records before the deposition?

A

No - no requirement to review records to prepare - testimony is from present recollection

197
Q

Does a party have to be served with a subpoena to be compelled to appear at a deposition?

What about a nonparty?

A

A notice of deposition is sufficient to require a party to appear at a deposition.

A nonparty must be served with a subpoena

198
Q

The party that is supposed to provide notice to the deponent fails to provide the correct kind of notice (subpoena for nonparty) and the deponent fails to show up, what is the result?

A

The party that provided the poor/defective notice is liable for the costs of the other parties that showed up

199
Q

What is a subpoena duces tecum?

A

Requires the deponent to bring requested materials with her to the deposition

200
Q

If a non-party is being deposed and they object to answering a question but the requesting party insists, what can they do?

A

They can move for a protective order in the district court where the deposition is taken

201
Q

What does a deposition of a defendant organization look like?

A

When a party is suing an organization, she may give notice (specifying a subject area or a particular person that they don’t know the name of) to the organization as a whole and the organization must then designate the person(s) to testify on that matter

202
Q

Is there any harm to not objecting to something at a deposition?
——
Against whom can a deposition be used at trial?

A

Cannot take more than 10 depositions or depose the same person twice without court approval or stipulation.

Errors which could have been obviated if promptly raised at the deposition are waived at trial
————-
Deposition could be used against any party who was present at the deposition or had notice of it either to impeach the deponent as a W at trial (PICS) or for any purpose if the court finds the deponent is unable to testify or >100mi from trial (Former testimony)
Can also use for any purpose if the deponent is an adverse party (admission)

203
Q

How can depositions be used at trial?

A

1) To impeach
2) For any purpose if deponent is an adverse party
3) for any purpose if the deponent is unavailable at trial (unless the absence was procured by the party seeking to introduce the evidence)

204
Q

What are interrogatories?

A

written questions to be answered in writing under oath

205
Q

What are the limitations on interrogatories?

A
  • Can only be sent to parties - never nonparties

- The maximum number of questions (absent court order/stipulation) is 25 including subparts

206
Q

What are the obligations of a party responding to an interrogatory?

A
  • Interrogatories are to be answered within 30 days from service
  • Party must answer based upon information reasonably available
207
Q

Can the party responding to an interrogatory respond to a question by providing access to records and saying “find it yourself”?

A

Only if the answer is in business records and the burden of finding the answer would be about the same for either party.

208
Q

What are contention interrogatories? Are they allowed?

A

Contention interrogatories are about legal contentions. They are permitted

209
Q

What is a request to produce?

A

A request to produce asks a party to make available for review and copying documents or things or to permit entry to inspect/measure/etc

210
Q

In what form can requests to produce electronically stored information be provided?

A

In the form designated by the requesting party, but the responding party may object.

211
Q

How long does a party have to respond to requests to produce with the information or with a statement of objection?

A

30 days from the date of service

212
Q

Who can be served with a request to produce?

A

Only parties to the case, but a nonparty can be served with a subpoena to require disclosure of the same kind of information

213
Q

What is required to get a medical exam of a party or a person in the party’s custody and control?
Who gets to choose the doctor?

Custody and control is narrow (employee is not in employers custody and control)

A

Court order is required and will only be given IF BOTH:

1) the person’s health is in actual controversy AND
2) good cause shown

The requesting party gets to choose the doctor

214
Q

Can the person examined get a copy of the medical report?

A

Yes, but then the requesting person must produce all medical reports by her own doctors about the same medical condition and she waives any dr-patient privilege that might have applied

215
Q

What is a request for admission?

How long does the request have to respond?

What is the sanction if a party fails to admit a fact that later is proven true?

A

A written request that someone admit certain matters

30 days to either specifically deny or object in writing. Can also state don’t know if have made reasonable inquiry and cannot find enough info to admit or deny. Failure to deny = admission

The party requesting the admission can move that the party pay additional costs/attys fees incurred

216
Q

What is the common use for requests for admission?

Are admissions good against the party in other proceedings?

A

often used to authenticate documents

No, admissions are only good against a party in the proceeding in which they are given.

217
Q

What is the signature requirement for discovery?

A

Every substantive answer to a discovery request must be signed under oath

218
Q

Does Rule 11 apply to discovery requests?

A

No, but under another rule, every discovery request and response is signed by counsel certifying

1) it is warranted,
2) not interposed for an improper purpose and
3) is not unduly burdensome

219
Q

What must a party do if new facts come to light after responding to a discovery request?

What’s the sanction to keep people honest?

A

Must supplement the response. (self-policed)

If a party fails to provide info or identify a witness, the party is not allowed to use that info/witness unless the failure was substantially justified or harmless. The court can also shift additional costs/fees caused by the failure, inform the jury, or impose other sanctions

220
Q

What is the scope of discovery?

If a party objects to a discovery request, and the court grants the other side’s motion to compel, what’s the result?

A

A party can discover anything RELEVANT to ANY PARTY’S claim or defense and PROPORTIONAL to the needs of the case. Info need not be admissible to be discoverable

The court can require the objecting/non-producing party to pay the other side’s costs of making the motion including attys fees (but no merits sanctions - those are only for violations of the court’s order compelling production or total nonresponses to an entire discovery request)

221
Q

If a party believes that a discovery request is not relevant or proportional or is not warranted/for an improper purpose/unduly burdensome, what can they do?

A

1) Move for a protective order from the court OR

2) object to discovery and the opposing party will have to move to compel discovery from he court

222
Q

Party 1 requests X from Party 2. Party 2 says X is not accessible without undue burden or cost. The court then agrees with Party 2 - what can Party 1 do now?

A

Party 1 can try to show good cause for discovery - the court could then order production of X and allocate the expenses of production between the parties

223
Q

What is work product protection from discovery?

A

Work product is material prepared in anticipation of litigation.
(does not have to be created by a lawyer and could be created by the party themselves or their agent)

224
Q

What is absolute work product

A

Work product that can never be discovered (mental impressions, conclusions, opinions, legal theories of the case)

225
Q

What is absolute/opinion work product

A

Work product that can never be discovered (mental impressions, conclusions, opinions, legal theories of the case)

226
Q

If a memo is generated solely because the state/business needs require it, is the memo work product?

A

No because not prepared in anticipation of litigation, so not work product

227
Q

If one party obtains information to be used in preparing their case at substantial expense (identify of witnesses), can the opposing party request that same information via an interrogatory?

A

Yes - the identify of witnesses/people with discoverable info is discoverable and not work product

228
Q

Can a party’s own statement be work product?

A

No - a party has a right to demand discovery of any previous statement that the opposing party has made about the case

229
Q

What action can a court take in response to a party seeking a protective order?

A

1) deny discovery
2) limit discovery
3) permit discovery on specified terms

230
Q

What is the effect of inadvertent disclosure of privileged or protected material?

A

If the inadvertently disclosing party notifies the other party promptly, the other party must return, sequester, or destroy the material pending a decision by the court about whether there has been a waiver of privilege or WP

231
Q

What are the 3 ways in which courts get involved in discovery disputes?

A

1) Party seeks a protective order
2) Party responds with an answer to some of the questions (and objects or ignores to some others)
3) Party does not respond at all to a discovery request

232
Q

When can a party successfully seek a protective order

What is required for a motion to compel?

A

1) If the discovery request results in annoyance, embarrassment, undue burden or expense and
2) the party requesting the protective order certifies that she has tried in good faith to resolve the issue without court involvement (asked the other party to “meet and confer”)
- —–
1) Party must have failed to provide a discovery request
2) Requesting party must certify that they have made good faith attempt to confer with the opponent

233
Q

What is a merits sanction?

When are they imposed?

A

Judge can pick any of the following
1) Establish certain facts as true
2) Strike pleadings of the disobeying party
3) Disallow evidence from the disobeying party
4) dismiss the plaintiffs case (if bad faith shown)
5) Enter default judgment against D (if bad faith shown)
———–
Merits sanctions are only for violations of the court’s order compelling production or total nonresponses to an entire discovery request)

234
Q

When can a party seek costs from another in discovery?

A

Failure to appear at a deposition, fails to respond to requests in full or part, or objects subjects the party to costs.
Party seeking sanctions must certify that tried in good faith to get the info without court involvement (asked to “meet and confer”)
If make a successful/unsuccessful motion to compel, costs/fees of the opposing party are shifted (court MUST shift costs unless opposing party responded and refusal was substantially justified)

235
Q

What is the process for seeking merits sanctions against a party that responds in part but not fully?
(partial failure to comply)

A

Step 1: Requesting party moves for an order compelling the party to answer the unanswered questions plus the costs of bringing the motion.
Step 2: the producing party violates the order compelling her to answer. Merits sanction + costs and attys fees of bringing the motion are available. Violating party could be held in contempt (but there’s never contempt for failure to submit to a medical exam)

236
Q

What’s the process for seeking merits sanctions against a party who fails to respond at all?
(total failure to comply)

A

Court can enter a merits sanction plus costs and attys fees for the motion.

No need to get an order compelling answers - just go directly to merits sanction

237
Q

What are the special rules applicable to the preservation of discoverable ESI?

A

If ESI has been truly lost (cannot be restored) due to failure to take reasonable steps to preserve, the court may enter measures to cure the harm caused the adverse party.

Can also enter an adverse inference order, merits sanction, default against bad faith D ONLY IF the party who lost the ESI failed to take reasonable steps with the intent to deprive the other party of the ESI.

238
Q

What are the 3 types of required disclosures (even though no body asked for them) in discovery?

A

1) Initial Disclosures
2) Expert Witness Reports
3) Pretrial Disclosures

239
Q

If a party claims privilege or work product to withhold a piece of information, what do they have to do?

A

Must disclose the existence of the material in sufficient detail to the opposing party so that they can assess the claim of privilege

240
Q

What is required for a motion to compel discovery?

A

1) Movant must certify that he has in good faith conferred or attempted to confer with the party failing to make discovery
2) If the discovery is from a party, file with the court where the action is pending. If the discovery is from a nonparty, file with the court in which the discovery will be taken.

241
Q

What is the difference in a Temporary Restraining Order and a Preliminary Injunction?

A

Temporary Restraining Order is an order to maintain the status quo until the hearing on the preliminary injunction

Preliminary injunction is an order that maintains the status quo until trial

242
Q

When can a temporary restraining order be issued?

A

Can be issued ex parte (without notice to the other party)
TRO issued ONLY IF:
1) Applicant files a paper under oath clearly showing that if a TRO is not issued, she will suffer immediate irreparable harm if she must wait until the other side is heard
2) The applicant’s lawyer certifies in writing regarding her efforts to give oral or written notice to the defendant or defendant’s lawyer (or why notice should not be required/why notice is impossible)
3) Applicant provides bond/security to compensate the other party if wrongfully enjoined

243
Q

What must the TRO applicant do if the court grants the TRO?

A

Must post a bond to cover the other side’s costs and damages caused if it turns out the restraint is wrongful.
If the court issues the TRO, the order must be served on the defendant as soon as possible (a party without notice of a TRO cannot be punished for violating it)

244
Q

Can a grant/denial of a TRO be appealed?

A

No

245
Q

What must be stated in the TRO?

A

Must specifically describe (in detail) what the defendant must do, state why it was issued and state why the threatened injury to the plaintiff was irreparable

246
Q

How long is a TRO good for?

A

No more than 14 days (or lesser time stated by the court), but the restrained party may move to dissolve or modify it earlier

If applicant shows good cause, it can be extended for 14 more days but no more than that. (if TRO >28 days, it can be treated as a PI)

247
Q

What must the applicant for a PI show?

A

Cannot be granted ex parte. The burden is on the applicant to show:

1) likelihood of irreparable harm
2) likely success on the merits
3) balance of hardships favors applicant
4) injunction is in the public interest

*PIs are in the court’s discretion - there is no right to a PI

248
Q

What must an applicant do if the PI is granted?

A

Applicant must post a bond

249
Q

What must be stated in the PI?

A

Must state the terms of the TRO with specificity, describe in detail what the defendant must do or refrain from doing and state why it was issued.
Court must make specific findings of fact and conclusions of law (required for PI but not for TRO - help facilitate appeal)

250
Q

Can a grant/denial of a PI be appealed?

A

Yes - appeal as of right

251
Q

When can a plaintiff withdraw a case without the court’s permission?

A

If P withdraws the case by filing a notice of dismissal before D makes an answer or a motion for summary judgment.

P and D can also stipulate to a voluntary dismissal without the court’s permission (e.g. when the case is settled)

252
Q

When must a plaintiff seek the court’s permission to dismiss a case?

A

Court permission is required absent a stipulation if after answer or motion of SJ.

P must make a motion fo voluntary dismissal which the court has discretion to grant. If a counterclaim has been filed in the meantime, the court will only grant the dismissal if that counterclaim can remain pending.

253
Q

Can a plaintiff voluntarily dismiss a case as many times as he wants?

A

No - the first voluntary dismissal is without prejudice and the second voluntary dismissal is with prejudice (which is treated as a dismissal on the merits).

Second voluntary dismissal is with prejudice even if the first dismissal was in state court

254
Q

What is an entry of default?

When is it made?

A

A notation by the court clerk on the docket sheet in the case after plaintiff’s motion for entry of default.
P must demonstrate that defendant failed to respond within the 21 days alotted to respond with motion/answer after service of the complaint.

D can reply with motion/answer even after the 21 day deadline until default is actually entered

255
Q

What is the effect of an entry of default?

A

Cuts off D’s right to respond, but does not automatically entitle P to relief. To get relief, P must seek a default judgment

256
Q

How can a plaintiff get a default judgment from the clerk of court?

A

Clerk of court can enter a default judgment IF:

1) D has made no response at all (has not appeared. continued settlement negotiations include an appearance)
2) Claim itself is for a certain sum of money
3) P gives a sworn affidavit of the sum owed
4) D is not a minor or incompetent

^If any of the above is not satisfied, P must apply to the court for default judgment.

257
Q

What will a judge do in reviewing a request for default judgment?

A

Judge will hold a hearing and has discretion whether to enter the judgment.
D is entitled to notice of the hearing if she has appeared in some fashion in the case

P’s recovery is limited to what is in the complaint (unlike at trial)

258
Q

P sues D. D files a MTD for lack of PJ. Motion denied. 14 days passes and D does not file an answer. P gets clerk to make a entry of default and then seeks default judgment. Does D get notice of the hearing for default judgment?

A

If the suit is for damages, D gets notice of hearing D has made an appearance

P can also not get a different kind (or greater amount) of relief from what is pleaded in the complaint

259
Q

When can D move the court to set aside an entry of default or a default judgment?

A

1) Good cause (like excusable neglect) AND

2) a viable defense

260
Q

What is the difference in a 12(b)(6) MTD for failure to state a claim and a motion for judgment on the pleadings?

A

a 12(b)(6) MTD for failure to state a claim is made before D has filed an answer

The same motion after D has answered is a motion for judgment on the pleadings

261
Q

What does a judge consider in ruling on a 12(b)(6) motion or motion on the pleadings?

A

Court ignores P’s legal conclusions and takes all of P’s allegations of fact as true. “Taking all of the alleged facts as true, is there a plausible claim?”
Judge uses experience and common sense in evaluating plausibility

262
Q

Does the judge have to allow P to amend their complaint if they have failed to allege facts sufficient to support a plausible claim?

A

No - does not have to allow but can allow

263
Q

What is the standard for summary judgment

A

If the evidence is viewed in the light most favorable to the nonmovant, there is no genuine issue of material fact so movant are entitled to judgment as a matter of law. SJ is based on ADMISSIBLE evidence only - inadmissible evidence ignored.
Here evidence is anything provided under oath - pleadings are not considered here unless made under oath (“verified pleading”). And if D failed to deny an allegation in the complaint, it can be considered as admitted in SJ

Can be partial (e.g. SJ on liability and trial on damages)

264
Q

How is the denial of SJ reviewed on appeal?

A

Even if there is no issue of material fact, a court does not absolutely have to grant SJ.

Reviewed on Abuse of discretion

265
Q

When can a party move for SJ?

A

No later than 30 days after the close of discovery but can move for SJ as early as the initial response to the complaint (even before the answer)

266
Q

What can a party do if responding to a motion for SJ and needs more time to gather evidence to oppose the motion?

A

The party may file an affidavit or declaration with the court STATING WHAT THE EVIDENCE WOULD BE and the court may allow more time for the party to obtain the evidence

267
Q

What takes place at a Rule 26(f) conference? When must it take place?

A

Parties must “meet and confer” to discuss the production of required initial disclosures, claims, defenses, settlement, and preservation of discoverable information

Must occur at least 21 days before the court’s scheduling order

268
Q

What must result from the Rule 26(f) conference?

A

No later than 14 days after the Rule 26(f) conference, the parties must present the court with a detailed discovery plan that includes views and proposals on timing, issues/plans regarding the discovery of ESI

269
Q

What is a scheduling order?

A

A court order that sets cutoffs for joinder, amendment, motions, completion of discovery, etc as a setup for trial

270
Q

How does a judge oversee the case?

A

Via pretrial conferences

271
Q

What is decided at the final pretrial conference?

A

Determines the issues to be tried and evidence to be proffered at trial.
The result is recorded in the pretrial conference order which supercedes the pleadings
The pretrial conference order is a roadmap of issues to be tried, evidence to be presented at trial, witnesses, etc so that there are no surprises at trial

272
Q

What is the 7th amd?

A

Provides the right to a jury trial in civil actions at law - but not for suits in equity.
7th amd only applies in FEDERAL court - not state court

273
Q

What is decided at the final pretrial conference?

When can the pretrial conference order be modified?

A

Determines the issues to be tried and evidence to be proffered at trial.
The result is recorded in the pretrial conference order which SUPERCEDES THE PLEADINGS
The pretrial conference order is a roadmap of issues to be tried, evidence to be presented at trial, witnesses, etc so that there are no surprises at trial

Can be modified even after the trial has begun

274
Q

What is the 7th amd?

A

Provides the right to a jury trial in civil actions at law - but not for suits in equity.
7th amd only applies in FEDERAL court - not state court

275
Q

How does the 7th amd apply if the case asks for legal and equitable remedies?

A

First, the jury generally decides the fact questions relevant to the issues of law and then judge decides any questions remaining for the equity issues

If a fact is in common, the jury decides it

276
Q

What must a party do to assert their 7th amd right?

A

Must demand a trial by jury in writing no later than 14 days after service of the last pleading addressing a jury triable issue (usually the answer).

If demand is not made, the right is waived

Demand must be served on all parties to the case

But even if the deadline is missed, SCOTUS says that absent compelling reasons the court should grant the demand even after the deadline if the issue is normally tried by jury

277
Q

What is the jury selection process called?

A

Voir dire

278
Q

What are the kinds of challenges to jurors?

A

For cause challenges - unlimited number of challenges if the juror will not be impartial

Peremptory Challenges - can be used in any race/gender neutral manner with no explanation (jury selection is state action)

279
Q

How many jurors are on the jury?
What % agreement is required to reach a verdict?
How many jurors participate in the verdict?

A

Min 6 max 12 UNLESS THE PARTIES AGREE OTHERWISE. If there are 6 and one drops out (even for good cause) the jury cannot return a verdict

Verdict must be unanimous

All of them unless a juror is excused for good cause

280
Q

When do the parties submit suggested jury instructions to the judge?
How does the judge decide which jury instruction to offer?

A

At the close of all evidence

Judge may hold an off the record conference with the parties to discuss the proposed instructions, but before final argument and instructing the jury, judge must on the record inform the parties of what instructions it will give and what proposed jury instructions it rejected. Parties must be allowed to object on the record and out of the jury’s hearing. Objections that are not made on the record before the jury is charged are waived

281
Q

When can a court revisit a jury instruction if no objection was made?

A

For clear error that affected a party’s rights

282
Q

What form of verdict is allowed? Who gets to pick

A

The judge picks

1) General verdict (who wins and what the relief is)
2) Special verdict (jury answers in writing specific questions about the facts but does not say who wins or loses)
3) General verdict with written questions (jury says who wins, what the relief is, and answer specific questions - ensures the jury stays focused)

283
Q

How is a verdict turned into a judgment?

A

If the jury returns a general verdict, the clerk enters judgment

If the jury returns a special verdict or a general verdict with written questions, and the answers are consistent with each other and with the verdict, then the judge approves the judgment and the clerk enters it

284
Q

What happens if the jury returns a general verdict with written questions or a special verdict with answers that are…
A) consistent with each other but inconsistent with the verdict
B) inconsistent with each other and with the verdict

A

A) judge can enter judgment consistent with the answers to the questions, ask the jury to reconsider, or order a new trial

B) No judgment may be entered (can ask jury to reconsider or order new trial)

285
Q

When does juror misconduct invalidate a verdict?

A

A verdict can be “impeached” only with external matters (bribery, given evidence improperly), but the verdict will not be set aside if the taint was harmless

286
Q

What is the replacement for a verdict in a bench trial?

A

Judge must record findings of fact and conclusions of law (separately) orally on the record or in writing
The judgment is then entered (very short saying who wins and what relief is granted)

287
Q

When is a judgment as a matter of law motion?

A

After the other side’s evidence has been presented to the jury at trial, a party can move for JMOL and the judge grants and enters judgment IF reasonable people could not disagree with the result.
e.g. D could move for JMOL after P presents their case but before D has defended

288
Q

When is a renewed judgment as a matter of law motion?

A

After trial and after the jury has returned the verdict. Court views the evidence in the light most favorable to the nonmoving party

289
Q

When is the deadline for a party to move for RJMOL?

A

RJMOL must be made within 28 days after entry of judgment.

290
Q

What is a prerequisite for moving for RJMOL?

A

The party must have moved for JMOL at the proper time at trial on the same grounds that RJMOL is raised after trial

291
Q

When can a judge grant a new trial?

A

Any non-harmless reason in the discretion of the judge. For example…

  • judge gave an erroneous jury instruction, - new evidence was discovered that could not have been discovered before with due diligence
  • misconduct by jury/party/lawyer
  • judgment is against the weight of the evidence
  • damages excessive or inadequate

New trial is a less drastic remedy than RJMOL and might be granted if a party should have gotten JMOL/RJOML but forgot to raise it

292
Q

When is the deadline for a party to move for a new trial?

A

28 days after judgment is entered (same as RJMOL)

293
Q

What is remittur?

A

if the damages figure “shocks the conscience” the court can give P the choice between a new trial and remitting part of the damages award (court can’t simply lower the figure because that would violate the 7th amd)

294
Q

What is additur?

A

if the damages figure “shocks the conscience” the court can give the defendant a choice between paying a higher amount in damages and a new trial. NOT ALLOWED IN FEDERAL COURT B/C 7th AMD - ONLY STATE COURT

295
Q

What is an offer of judgment?

A

D can submit formal offer to settle the case up to 14 days before trial (if accepted, judgment entered for that act), and if D does and P does not do that well at trial, P is liable to D for D’s litigation costs after the offer was made

296
Q

What are the grounds for obtaining relief from a judgment or order and the timing for raising them (Motion to set aside)?

A

Clerical error (any time)

Judgment is void e.g. b/c court lacked SMJ (reasonable time)

Mistake/excusable neglect (reasonable time that is never longer than a year)

Fraud/misrep/misconduct by opposing party (Reasonable time never longer than a year)

Newly discovered evidence that could not have been discovered with due diligence in time for a new trial motion (28 days post judgment) and the newly discovered facts existed at the time of trial (reasonable time need more than year)

297
Q

What is the final judgment rule?

A

The losing party has the right to appeal only after the court’s final judgment.
A final judgment is a judgment that determines the entire case.
To determine if an order is a final judgment ask if the court has anything left to do on the merits of the case

298
Q

Are remand orders reviewable on appeal?

A

No

299
Q

IF the judgment is final, when and where is the notice of appeal filed?

A

Notice of appeal filed with the district court within 30 days after entry of the judgment that is being appealed

300
Q

What is an appeal before final judgment called?

A

Interlocutory appeal

301
Q

What doctrines can be used to pursue interlocutory appeal (despite the final judgment rule)?

A

1) Appeal of preliminary or permanent injunctions as of right (but not TROs)
2) Interlocutory Appeals Act
3) Collateral Order Doctrine
4) District court jumps to final judgment
5) Class certification
6) Writ of Mandamus/Prohibition

302
Q

When is appeal allowed under the Interlocutory Appeals Act?

A

Interlocutory Appeals Act allows appeal IF a) district judge certifies it involves a controlling issue of law

b) as to which there is substantial ground for difference of opinion and
c) the court of appeals agrees to hear it

303
Q

When is appeal allowed under the Interlocutory Appeals Act?

A

Interlocutory Appeals Act allows appeal IF

a) district judge certifies it involves a controlling issue of law
b) as to which there is substantial ground for difference of opinion and
c) the court of appeals agrees to hear it

304
Q

When is an appeal allowed under the Collateral Order Doctrine?

A

The appellate court has discretion to hear an appeal on an issue if that issue:

1) is distinct from the merits of the case
2) involves an important legal question and
3) is essentially unreviewable if parties await a final judgment.

This is rare, but state immunity from suit (not just damages) in federal court under the 11th amd might be an application

305
Q

When can a court just jump to final judgment?

A

If:
1) there are multiple claims or multiple parties in a case and
2) the court makes an express finding that there is no just reason for delay,
the district court can expressly direct entry of final judgment as to one or more of the claims/parties

306
Q

What are the rules of interlocutory appeal of class certification?

A

A court of appeals has discretion to grant review or not
Party seeking appeal must fille AT THE CT OF APP within 14 days of the order.
Appeal does not stay the proceedings unless ct of app or district court says so

307
Q

What is the standard of review for questions of fact on a bench trial?

A

clearly erroneous

308
Q

What is the standard of review for questions of fact on a jury trial?

A

affirm unless reasonable people could not have made the finding

309
Q

Does an error always lead to reversal on appeal?

A

No. No reversal if the error is harmless

310
Q

Matters of discretion are reviewed for abuse of discretion. What is a surprising instance of discretion?

A

Whether to give a particular jury instruction.

but the contents of jury instructions given are reviewed de novo

311
Q

What preclusion law applies if the later case is in a different court system than the first case?

A

The court in the later case applies the preclusion law in effect in the judicial system that decided the earlier case

312
Q

What is a prerequisite for preclusion?

A

There must be a judgment already entered in an earlier case.

It’s not when the cases start that matters, its when the case yielded a judgment

313
Q

What steps of analysis should you follow when looking at a preclusion issue?

A

First look at if claim preclusion applies

If no claim preclusion, then look at issue preclusion

314
Q

What is another name for claim preclusion?

A

Res Judicata

315
Q

What must be true for a claim to be precluded?

A

1) Must be the same claimant suing the same defendant (not just the same parties)
2) Must be a prior valid final judgment on the merits.
3) the earlier and instant case are on the same claim

316
Q

When is a prior judgment “on the merits for purposes of claim preclusion?

A

A judgment is on the merits unless:

1) the court said the judgment was not on the merits
2) the court lacked PJ or SMJ
3) Venue was improper
4) failure to join an indispensable party
* This is true even if there was no adjudication in Case (like default)
* *be mechanical here

317
Q

What does it mean for the earlier and instant case to be on the same “claim”

A

Majority View: Same t/o
Minority Primary Rights View: Separate claims for personal injury and property damage are allowed even if they arise from the same event

318
Q

It is possible for a case to be dismissed under compulsory counter claim rule but not claim preclusion.

A

be very mechanical about following the claim preclusion rules. See pg 106 for ex

319
Q

What another name for issue preclusion?

A

collateral estoppel

320
Q

What is the effect of issue preclusion?

A

If issue 1 was litigated in Case 1 and it appears again in Case 2, it is not relitigated and is deemed established (streamlines the scope of case 2)

321
Q

What are the 5 requirements for issue preclusion?

A

1) Must be a prior valid final judgment on the merits.
2) The same issue must have been actually litigated and determined in Case 1
3) the issue must have been essential to the judgment in Case 1
4) Party against whom preculsion is asserted was a party or in privity with a party in the earlier case (Due Process Concern)
5) Mutuality Rules (rules about the party asserting preclusion)

322
Q

What does it mean for the issue to be essential to the judgment?

A

The finding on that issue is the reason for the judgment

323
Q

AGAINST whom can issue preclusion be used?

A

Issue preclusion can be used only against somebody who was a party to Case 1 or in privity with a party. Privity means a party to Case 1 represented a nonparty (e.g. class members represented by a class rep)

The requirement that the party against whom issue preclusion is asserted either be a party in Case q or be in privity with a party in Case 1 comes from Due Process - everyone is entitled to their day in court before their rights are taken

324
Q

BY whom can issue preclusion be used?

A

Can be used by:

1) anyone that was a party to Case 1
2) anyone in privity with a party in Case 1
3) If used by someone who was not a party to Case 1, it’s called nonmutual issue preclusion - rules differ for offensive an defensive use

325
Q

When can nonmutual defensive issue preclusion be used?

A

Nonmutual defensive issue preclusion is by someone who was not a party in Case 1 and is a DEFENDANT in case 2.

This is ok under federal law and most states as long as the party against whom it is being asserted had a full chance to litigate in case 1.

326
Q

When can nonmutual offensive issue preclusion be used?

A

Nonmutual offensive issue preclusion is by someone who was not a party in Case 1 and is a PLAINTIFF in case 2.

Nonmutual offensive issue preclusion is generally not available but might be allowed based on the following fairness factors:

1) Party to be bound had a full and fair opportunity to litigate in Case 1
2) The party to be bound had a strong incentive to litigate case 1 (not present if for small sum or less incentive unless foreseeable that larger cases forthcoming)
3) Party asserting issue preclusion could have easily joined in case 1 (discourage sideline sitting)
4) No inconsistent findings on this issue across multiple cases looking at the same issue(might be the most important)

327
Q

What law applies to a court considering a motion for a new trial based on the excessiveness of a verdict?

A

If diversity case -> apply state law

If it’s a fed Q case -> apply federal law

328
Q

If a party disagrees with a jury instruction given at trial but fails to object, what is the standard of review on appeal?

A

Plain error - this is very rare and it is more likely that the court of appeals will refuse to hear the case. An error is only plain error when it is so bantantly incorrect that it calls into question the competence or partiality of the judge.
(would be de novo if the issue was objected to and the issue thus preserved)

329
Q

What is the standard of review for a RJMOL denial on appeal?

A

De novo

330
Q

What is the standard of review for the denial of a new trial motion?

A

Abuse of discretion

331
Q

What will a trial court do when a party makes a RJMOL and new trial motions simultaneously after trial? What are the standards of review for these motions?

A

If the court grants the RJOML, it will also rule hypothetically on the new trial motion so that no remand is required if the RJOML is reversed on appeal (RJMOL reviewed de novo and new trial reviewed for abuse of discretion)

332
Q

Can a court remove a case from state to federal court on its own motion?

A

No

333
Q

When D removes a case from state to federal court, does the state court have to have SMJ over the case?

A

No

334
Q

Is it possible to remove a case from federal court to state court?

A

No. Never even if both parties agree.

335
Q

When claim preclusion applies and D won the earlier case, any precluded claims are said to have been _____.

When claim preclusion applies and P won the earlier case, any precluded claims are said to have been _____.

A

barred by the prior judgment

merged into the prior judgment

336
Q

Time Periods Rapid Fire

A

14 Days: (a) expiration of TRO, (b) Time to file demand for jury trial after last pleading directed to a jury triable issue is served, (c) time to appeal class action cert/denial

21 Days: (a) Time after complaint to answer or file rule 12 motion, (b) time to amd pleading after service or after responsive pleading/motion served, (c) time to withdraw pleading after Rule 11 notice

28 Days: (a) Time after judgment to file motion for RJMOL, (b) time after judgment to file new trial motion

30 days: Time for initial removal, time for remand, time to return process waiver, time for appeal

60 days: Time (starting from time P mailed waiver to D) for D to answer complaint or file 12(b) motion if D waived service of process (+30 if outside US)

90 days: general time limit on service of process

1 year: outer time limit for removal based on diversity

337
Q

If P sues D1 and D1 impleads D2, when can D2 assert claims it has against P?

A

D2 can assert any claims against P that arise out of the same transaction or occurrence

Claim is permissive - D2 can bring in a separate action if it wants to

338
Q

Over what topic will a federal court not exercise diversity jurisdiction?

A

Probate matters (actually probating a will)