Tort Law Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Caparo test for duty of care?

A
  1. Foreseeability: the damage must be reasonably foreseeable
  2. Proximity: must be sufficient proximity between the defendant and claimant
  3. It must be fair just and reasonable to impose a duty
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2
Q

What is the 2-stage test for breach of a duty of care?

A
  1. How the defendant ought to have behaved (what standard of care should the defendant have exercised?)
  2. Whether the defendant’s conduct fell below the required standard (question of fact)
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3
Q

What factors should be considered when assessing whether there has been a breach of duty?

A
  1. Seriousness of the potential harm
  2. Magnitude of the risk (reasonable man takes precautions about things that are likely to happen, not every risk)
  3. Social benefit/utility of the activity
  4. Level of precautions taken (no requirement to mitigate against very unlikely situations)
  5. Practicality of taking precautions
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4
Q

Define reasonable person standard and professional standard of care

A

Reasonable person standard = objective test of how an ordinary, reasonable person would have acted in the same situation

Professional standard = (1) standard of a reasonable person exercising and professing to have a special skill (2) they have acted in accordance with a practice accepted by a professional body of opinion (can be overruled if illogical)

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5
Q

If a claimant is injured more than once, how does this affect causation?

A

Defendant shall only be liable to the extent that they made the claimant’s harm worse

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6
Q

Explain legal causation

A

Is there an unforeseeable intervening act that breaks the chain of causation?

Actions of third parties:
- Instinctive intervention = does NOT break the chain
- Negligent intervention = DOES break the chain

Negligent medical treatment does not break the chain - has to be grossly negligent

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7
Q

Define the remoteness test

A
  1. Similar in type rule = provided the injury is reasonably foreseeable, it is not necessary to foresee the way in which the injury was caused
  2. Egg-shell skull rule = take your victims as you find them
  • As long as the injury is foreseeable, it does not matter that the [take your victim as you find them effect] is unforeseeable
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8
Q

What are the 3 types of damages?

A

Special = capable of being calculated at the time of the trial

General = not capable of being calculated precisely (eg: pain/suffering etc.)

Nominal = where the claimant proves a case but has not suffered a loss

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9
Q

What is the difference between pecuniary and non-pecuniary losses in non-fatal claims?
How are such losses calculated?

A

Pecuniary = losses capable of mathematic calculation
- Method: Multiplicand (net annual salary) X Multiplier (how long the claimant will lose this money - need to add discount rate of -0.25)

Non-pecuniary = not capable of being calculated
- Method: subjective test for awarding a sum for pain and suffering; objective test for loss of amenity

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10
Q

Explain what deductions will be made for non-fatal claims

A

For tax and NI contributions

NEVER for other insurance payments/money given to charity/family

Pecuniary losses will be reduced if state benefits are received, where compensation is sought for:
1. Loss of earnings
2. Cost of care
3. Loss of mobility

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11
Q

Under LR(MP)A 1934, what claims can be made by a deceased’s estate?

A

All causes of action survive death UNLESS they are claims in (a) defamation or (b) bereavement damages

Funeral expenses can be claimed, provided they have been paid for by the estate

Claim can cover pecuniary, non-pecuniary and loss of income (up until date of death)

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12
Q

Under the Fatal Accidents Act 1976, what claims can a dependant of the deceased make?

A
  1. Loss of dependency (if claimant is within class of dependants and was financially dependant on deceased)
  2. Damages for bereavement (for spouse/civil partner, parents (mother if illegitimate) of a minor who was never married/had a civil partner)
  3. Funeral expenses

Only provides compensation for pecuniary losses

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13
Q

Define the general rule for pure economic loss and its exception

A

General rule = are not recoverable/defendant does not owe a duty of care to a claimant not to cause PEL

Exception = (1) there is an assumption of responsibility by the defendant (2) there is reasonable reliance by the claimant

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14
Q

What are the 4 criteria that need to be satisfied for a defendant to have assumed responsibility (PEL)?

A
  1. Adviser knew the purpose for which the advice was required
  2. Adviser knew that the advice would be communicated to the advisee
  3. Adviser knew that the advisee was likely to act on the advice without independent inquiry
  4. Advice was acted on by the advisee to their detriment
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15
Q

What is the general rule for pure psychiatric harm and what are the exceptions to the rule?

A

General rule = no duty is owed for PPH

Exceptions:
1. Harm is caused by a sudden shock and it is either (a) a medically recognised psychiatric illness or (b) a shock-induced physical condition (miscarriage, heart attack etc.); and
2. Claimant must be a primary or a secondary victim

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16
Q

What is the difference between a primary and secondary victim in PPH?

A

Primary = in actual area of danger/believed that they were in danger
- Owed a duty provided the risk of injury was foreseeable (does not need to be the risk of psychiatric harm)

Secondary = witnessed injury to someone else/feared for the safety of someone else

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17
Q

What requirements are needed for a secondary victim to be owed a duty of care (PPH)?

A
  1. Foreseeability of psychiatric harm: would a person of normal fortitude in claimant’s position suffer PH
  2. Proximity of relationship: close relationship of love and affection with the person who is endangered
  3. Proximity in time and space: must be present at the incident/its immediate aftermath
  4. Proximity of perception: must see/hear the incident/its aftermath with their own senses
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18
Q

What common law duties do employers owe to employees?

A

To provide:
1. Competent staff
2. Adequate material
3. Proper system of work and supervision
4. Safe system of work

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19
Q

What are the elements of vicarious liability?

A
  1. A tort was committed
  2. By an employee
  3. In the course of an employment
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20
Q

What is the test for employment relationship (vicarious liability)?

A
  1. Tort was committed due to an activity undertaken by the employee
  2. Employee’s activity is likely to be an ordinary part of the business activity of the employer
  3. In employing the employee, the employer created the risk of the tort being committed
  4. The employee will be under the control of the employer
21
Q

An employee will be in the course of employment if the wrongful act is…

A
  1. Expressly/impliedly authorised by the employer; or
  2. Incidental to the carrying out of the employee’s proper duties; or
  3. An unauthorised way of doing something authorised by the employer
22
Q

Explain the voluntary assumption of risk defence

A
  1. Full knowledge of the nature and extent of the risk; and
  2. Claimant willingly consented to accept the risk of being injured

NOT effective for an exclusion of liability for death/PI

23
Q

Explain the partial defence of contributory negligence

A
  1. Was the claimant acting negligently (will not apply to emergency situations, unless they were acting unreasonably)
  2. Did the claimant’s actions contribute to the damage suffered?
  3. To what extent should the claimant’s damages be reduced?

Injuries would have been avoided = 25% reduction
Injuries would have been less severe = 15% reduction

24
Q

Who is a visitor under the Occupiers’ Liability Act 1957

A

Those with express, implied or contractual permission to be on the occupiers’ land

25
Q

What duty of care is expected under the Occupiers’ Liability Act 1957 (visitors)? Does this duty differ for children?

A

To take such care as is reasonable in all circumstances to see that the visitor is reasonably safe in using the premises for the purposes which they are invited/permitted to be there

A higher degree of care is expected for children, but the occupier is entitled to assume that the child will be accompanied by an adult
=> must be reasonably safe if they are accompanied by an adult

26
Q

Explain breach of duty under the Occupiers’ Liability Act 1957 (visitors)

A

Escaping breach by warnings: must be adequate and courts will consider:
1. Nature of the warning
2. Nature of the danger
3. Type of visitor

No obligation to warn of danger that would be obvious

Independent contractors: must be reasonable for the occupier to engage the contractor and they must take reasonable steps to satisfy themselves that the contractor is competent (as well as take reasonable steps to check the contractor’s work)

27
Q

What defences are available under the Occupiers’ Liability Act 1957 (visitors)?

A
  1. Volenti = visitor must be aware of the risk and have a genuine, free choice as to whether or not to assume the risk
  2. Contributory negligence
  3. Exclusion clauses = CANNOT exclude liability for (1) the common duty of care (2) death/PI arising from negligence, but CAN exclude liability for property damage
28
Q

What is a trespasser under the Occupiers’ Liability Act 1984?

A

One who goes upon the land without invitation of any sort and whose presence is either unknown to the proprietor, or, if known, is practically objected to

29
Q

What 3 conditions must be met for a duty to be owed under the Occupiers’ Liability Act 1984 (trespassers)?

A
  1. Occupier must be aware of the danger or have reasonable grounds to believe it exists
  2. Must know/have reasonable grounds to believe that the person is in the vicinity of the danger/may come into the vicinity of the danger
  3. Risk must be one against which they may be reasonably expected to offer the person some protection
30
Q

What defences are available under the Occupiers’ Liability Act 1984 (trespassing)?

A
  1. Volenti
  2. Contributory Negligence
  3. Exclusion: warning signs and discouragement may be sufficient to discharge duty of care, particularly if they specify the thing likely to cause harm

NOT illegality

31
Q

What 3 causes of action does a claimant have if they have been affected by a defective product?

A
  1. Breach of contract
  2. Claim under the Consumer Protection Act 1987
  3. Negligence (only for PI and property damage - not for PEL)
32
Q

What must a claimant show to have a cause of action under the Consumer Protection Act 1987?

A

They have suffered damage caused by the defect in the product.
- Strict liability

Damage = death/PI or damage to property exceeding £275

Caused by the defect = but for and remoteness test (liable for all direct consequences of tort, even if unforeseeable)

Defective = usually means unsafe

Product = any goods/electricity, raw materials, including blood

33
Q

Who can be defendants for a claim under the Consumer Protection Act 1987?

A
  1. Producer of the product
  2. ‘Own-branders’
  3. Importer
  4. A ‘forgetful’ supplier (only if they refuse/cannot identify the importers, branders or producers)
34
Q

What defences are available for a claim under the Consumer Protection Act 1987?

A
  1. Contributory Negligence
  2. Defect was attributable to compliance with legal requirements
  3. Defendant did not supply the product in the course of business (eg: gift to a friend)
  4. Defendant did not supply the product to another (theft)
  5. Defect arose as a result of ordinary wear and tear
  6. Developmental risks/state of the art
35
Q

Product liability: for a claim in negligence, when will a duty exist?

A

Manufacturers have a duty to take reasonable care to the ultimate consumer of their products.

Duty will exists if:
a) Defendant is a manufacturer
b) Item causing the damage is a product
c) Claimant is a consumer; and
d) The product reached the consumer in a form in which it left the manufacturer with no reasonable possibility of intermediate examination

36
Q

Product liability: What defences are available for a claim in negligence?

A
  1. Volenti
  2. Contributory negligence
  3. Exclusion of liability (only for loss/damage other than PI/death as long as reasonableness test is satisfied)
37
Q

What is a private nuisance?

A

An unlawful interference with a person’s use/enjoyment of land

38
Q

What conditions must be met for there to be a claim in private nuisance?

A

There must be an (1) indirect interference (2) causing damage (3) which is unlawful

  1. Types of indirect interference = (a) encroachment onto a neighbour’s land (b) direct damage to a neighbour’s land (c) interference with a neighbour’s enjoyment of land
  2. Causing damage = only damage which is reasonably foreseeable; (a) property damage (b) sensible personal discomfort
  3. Unlawful = substantial and unreasonable, objectively assessed
    - Strict liability
    - Relevant factors: (a) duration and frequency (b) excessiveness of conduct/extent of harm (c) character of neighbourhood (d) public benefit (e) malice
39
Q

What defences and remedies are available for a private and public nuisance claim?

A

Defences:
1. Prescription (20+ years)
2. Statutory authority
3. Contributory negligence
4. Volenti
5. Act of God
6. Necessity

Remedies:
1. Injunctions (prohibitory, mandatory and quia timet)
2. Damages in lieu of an injunction
3. Abatement (self-help)

40
Q

Define public nuisance and list the elements of the tort.

A

An act/omission that endangers life, health, property or comfort of the public/obstructs the public in the exercise/enjoyment of rights common to His Majesty’s subjects

Elements of tort:
1. Unreasonable conduct that materially affects the reasonable comfort and convenience of a class of people
2. Claimant has suffered that particular harm (including loss of profit, property damage and PI)

41
Q

Explain the rule in Rylands v Fletcher and list the elements of the tort.

A

Covers damage caused as a result of the escape in the course of a non-natural use of land

Elements of tort:
1. Defendant brings onto their land something that is likely to do mischief
2. It escapes
3. Representing a non-natural use of the land
4. Causing foreseeable damage

42
Q

What defences are available under the Rylands v Fletcher rule?

A
  1. Escape was caused by an unforeseeable act of a stranger
  2. Escape was caused by an Act of God which could not have been reasonably foreseen
  3. Statutory authority
  4. Volenti
  5. Contributory negligence
43
Q

What are the exceptions to the general rule of no liability for omissions?

A
  1. Duty not to make the situation worse
  2. Occasions where there is a duty to act positively
    - This happens if the person has some sort of control or power over the other person (eg: parents and children)
44
Q

When is the maxim res ipsa loquitur (the thing speaks for itself) available to a claimant in proving breach of duty?

A
  1. The thing causing damage was under the control of the defendant/someone under the defendant’s control
  2. Accident is one that would not normally happen without negligence
  3. Cause of the accident is unknown to the claimant
45
Q

What is the factual test for causation where there are separate tortious acts, which cause simultaneous injury to the claimant?

A

Material contribution to the risk of harm

46
Q

When does a duty not to cause consequential economic loss arise?

A

If the defendant owes a duty of care not to cause the claimant physical injury or property damage

47
Q

Product liability: under the CPA, what damage is recoverable?

A

Damage caused by the defect in the product is recoverable

Not recoverable:
- The defective product
- PEL
- Business property = employer’s property/property which they use for their business

48
Q

Product liability: under a claim for negligence, what damage is recoverable?

A

All losses that are reasonably foreseeable/not too remote, except PEL
- Eg: the defective product itself is not recoverable, but the damage that it caused is