Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SQE 1 - FLK 1 > Contract Law > Flashcards

Contract Law Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 essential elements required to form a legally binding contract

A
  1. Agreement (offer and acceptance)
  2. Intention to create legal relations
  3. Consideration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

An offer must be…

A
  1. Clear and certain
  2. Communicated to the offeree
  3. Demonstrate an intention to enter into a legal relationship
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 3 ways in which an offer can be terminated? Define each of these.

A
  1. Revocation = can happen anytime before acceptance; must be communicated; will be effective on receipt where it is reasonable to expect a person to read the notice
  2. Rejection = can be done impliedly (eg: counter offer) or expressly; querying method of payment DOES NOT constitute a counter offer
  3. Lapse of time = can be after a reasonable period or the passing of an express deadline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define acceptance

A

It must be a complete, unqualified acceptance of all the terms of the offer
It CANNOT be inferred by silence, but CAN be inferred by conduct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Explain the postal rule and its limitations

A

Explanation: A letter of acceptance which is complete on posting, forming a contract
Limitations:
1. Must be properly stamped, addressed and posted
2. Only applies to acceptances
3. Only applies where it is reasonable for acceptance to be sent via post
4. If the postal rule is ousted by offeror expressly or impliedly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define the two presumptions to create legal relations

A

Domestic/social agreements = presumption there is NO intention to create legal relations
Commercial agreements = STRONG presumption parties intended to create legal relations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Are minors bound by contracts they have entered into? Exceptions?

A

No
Exception: contracts for necessities bind minors (eg: supply of goods and services for a minor’s benefit)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define privity of contract

A

A third party cannot:
1. Enforce
2. Acquire rights under; or
3. Be liable for a contract to which that person is not a party

Third party may be able to acquire a benefit under the contract if it was clearly intended that they should be able to enforce it and was identified as name/member of a particular class

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the 3 conditions for agency by estoppel

A
  1. The principal represented that the agent has authority by words/conduct
  2. The third party relied on the principal’s representation AND believes agent has authority
  3. The third party alters their position (enters into a contract)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the general rule for past consideration and what are the exceptions?

A

General rule = past consideration is no consideration
Exceptions:
1. It was at the request of the promisor
2. The parties understood from the outset that the act was to be rewarded in some way
3. If the payment had been made in advance, would it have otherwise been legally enforceable (offer and acceptance issues? etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the 3 main methods of incorporation?

A
  1. Signature = binding unless there has been a fraudulent misrepresentation
  2. Reasonable notice/unsigned document = (a) document must be contractual in nature (b) innocent party must either know of the clause or the party relying on the clause must have taken reasonable steps to bring it to the other’s notice (c) timing of reasonable steps must be before the contract is finalised
  3. Consistent and regular course of dealings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define conditions, warranties and innominate terms

A

Conditions = goes to the root of the contract; use of the word ‘condition’ is not definitive

Warranties = term of less importance, not going to the root of the contract

Innominate term = neither conditions nor warranties, but are innominate by nature; does the breach deprive the innocent party of substantially the whole benefit of the contract? yes = treat breach as that of a condition, no = treat breach as that of a warranty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Identify the remedies for breaches of conditions, warranties and innominate terms

A

Conditions = choose to terminate or affirm contract and to claim damages
Warranties = can only sue for damages
Innominate term = depends on whether the breach deprives the innocent party of substantially the whole benefit of the contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is needed for a valid exemption clause?

A
  1. Incorporation
  2. Construction = exemption clause must cover the alleged breach and loss/damage
  3. Unfair terms = term must not be prohibited by any legislation on unfair contractual terms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

List the main Unfair Contract Terms with a B2B

A
  1. Cannot exclude liability for negligence that results in death/PI (s 2(1))
  2. Can only exclude liability for any other loss/damage resulting from negligence if the clause passes the reasonableness test (s 2(2))
  3. For a businesses’ standard written terms of business, excluding/restricting liability for breach of contract must pass reasonableness test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the reasonableness test for Unfair Contract Terms B2B

A

Term shall have been a fair and reasonable one to be included having regard to what was/ought to have been in the contemplation of the parties when the contract was made

a) Strength of bargaining positions of parties
b) Was there an inducement to agree to the exemption clause?
c) Did the consumer know or ought reasonably to have known of the existence and extent of the clause
d) Was it reasonable at the time of the contract to expect that compliance with the condition would be practicable
e) Whether the goods were manufactured/processed/adapted to the special order of the customer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

List all the elements misrepresentation

A

An (a) unambiguous, false (b) statement of fact (c) made to the claimant (d) which induces the claimant to enter into a contractual relationship with the statement-maker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define the general rule and exceptions for false statement of fact in relation to misrepresentation

A

General rule = silence will not amount to misrepresentation

Exceptions = (1) where there is a fiduciary relationship between the parties (2) where the contract is one of the utmost good faith (3) where there has been a half-truth (4) statement of fact is made but a change of circumstances occurs before the contract is formed making the statement untrue, where such a change is not disclosed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Define the general rule and exception of statement of fact in relation to misrepresentation

A

General rule = cannot be opinion

Exception = unless that opinion can be construed as a false statement of fact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define ‘induces the claimant’ in relation to misrepresentation

A

Claimant must rely on statement for it to be actionable
Does not need to be sole reason
Claimant has NO general duty to check statements made by the defendant
Can claim if claimant relied on misrepresentation as well as their own investigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the two types of misrepresentation

A
  1. Fraudulent misrepresentation = representation made knowingly, without any belief in its truth, or recklessly as to whether it is true or false
  2. Negligent misrepresentation = made carelessly or without reasonable grounds for believing in its truth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the remedies that are available for misrepresentation and what are the exceptions/bars to them?

A
  1. Rescission = aim is to restore both parties as far as possible to their pre-contract positions
    - Bars to rescission: (a) innocent purchaser acquires an interest in the property before the contract is rescinded (b) affirmation (c) undue delay (d) it is impossible for party to substantially restore goods/property to the other
  2. Damages for fraudulent misrepresentation = sue for damages in tort of deceit
    - All consequential losses are recoverable
  3. Damages for non-fraudulent misrepresentation = claimant has to show misrepresentation caused loss
    - All consequential losses are recoverable
    - Exception: defendant has reasonable grounds to believe and did honestly believe up until the time of the contract was made that the facts represented were true
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define 3 different types of mistake

A
  1. Common mistake = both parties have made the same fundamental mistake; neither party is at fault
  2. Cross-purpose mistake = parties are at cross-purposes about crucial aspects of the contract/objectively impossible to resolve ambiguity over what was agreed
  3. Unilateral mistake = only one party was mistaken; must be a genuine mistake (normally of identity)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the remedies for a mistake

A

Recission as mistake renders the contract void
Damages are not available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the general rule and exception for an illegal contract

A

General rule = contracts are void and courts will not allow recovery of benefits

Exception = where one party did not know of the illegal performance of the contract by the other party, the contract can be enforced

26
Q

What are the requirements for economic duress

A
  1. Pressure whose practical effect is that there is compulsion on, or lack of practical choice for, the victim
  2. Is illegitimate
  3. And is a significant cause in inducing the claimant to enter into the contract
27
Q

What are the remedies for duress

A

Makes the contract voidable
Only remedy is rescission, the effect of which is that parties are released from their future obligations and they should return money/property transferred under the contract

28
Q

Define actual undue influence

A

Claimant must prove the defendant did actually exert undue influence on them - very difficult to prove

29
Q

Define presumed undue influence

A

Can be presumed where:
1. There is a relationship of trust and confidence; and
2. The transaction is not readily explicable between them

30
Q

Explain the effect of O’Brien in relation to undue influence

A

Third parties need to have taken reasonable steps to ensure that the more vulnerable party’s consent was properly obtained

Banks should often not proceed until they have explained to the disadvantageous party the full extent of their transaction and should not follow through with the transaction until they have sought independent legal advice

31
Q

What are the remedies for undue influence

A

Contract is rendered voidable
Only remedy is rescission

32
Q

Define restitution

A

Represents the interest a claimant has in the restoration of benefits which the defaulting party has acquired illegitimately at the claimant’s expense

Available if there has been:
1. Total failure of consideration
- Payee has not performed any part of the contract OR what had been done was completely useless
2. Compensation for work done/goods supplied
- Can bring a claim for reasonable work done/goods supplied as an alternative claim for damages (can still happen even if there was never a contract)

33
Q

Define guarantees as a remedy for breach of contract

A

One person (guarantor) guarantees that if another person (debtor) does not pay back money owed then the guarantor will pay the money instead

Must be evidenced in writing, not necessarily a written contract

34
Q

Define indemnity as a remedy for breach of contract

A

It creates a primary obligation on one party to reimburse the other in respect of a particular loss arising under the contract

Does NOT need to be in writing

35
Q

Define frustration

A
  1. A supervening event occurring between agreement and performance
  2. Which is unforeseeable (and not dealt with by a force majeure clause)
  3. Which is not within the control of the parties
36
Q

What are the 4 types of frustration?

A
  1. Impossibility = unavailability of a specific thing or person vital to the contract
  2. Frustration of purpose = non-occurrence of an event
  3. Delay = necessary to ascertain (a) length of delay (b) whether the contract specified a time limit for performance (c) if the delay radically changed the contract
  4. Illegality
37
Q

What are 3 restrictions on frustration?

A
  1. No frustration where the event is self-induced
  2. No frustration where the event is foreseeable
  3. No frustration because of Brexit
38
Q

What is the effect of frustration at common law?

A

Automatically comes to an end at the time of the frustrating event
Money already paid can be recovered and money due and payable before frustrating event does not need to be paid

39
Q

What is the effect of frustration under LR(FC)A 1943?

A

Payee can recover some/all of expenses in following circumstances:
1. Payee has incurred expenses for the purpose of the performance of the contract
2. Money that should have been paid before the event need not be paid
3. Court may allow payee to retain/recover expenses incurred out of money paid/payable before the event

If one party has obtained a non-monetary valuable benefit, they may be required to pay a just sum for it

40
Q

Explain the doctrine of complete performance and the exceptions to the rule

A

General rule: one will not be entitled to any payment if they have not fully completed the contract

Exceptions:
1. Wrongful prevention of performance by the other party
2. Voluntary acceptance of partial performance by the other party
3. Substantial performance (work finished but slightly defective)
4. Divisible obligations = parties have agreed payments for distinct stages of the work

41
Q

Damages: define expectation loss and its exception

A

Claimant will be able to recover loss of benefit which they would have enjoyed had the contract been performed properly

Exception: where the reward would not recover compensation loss but be a very gratuitous benefit

42
Q

Damages: define reliance loss and its exception

A

Damages to cover expenses incurred in reliance on the contract
NOT awarded for distress or disappointment

Exception: where the contract is to provide pleasure, entertainment, enjoyment or peace of mind

43
Q

Define the remoteness rule

A

Loss must have been within the reasonable contemplation of the parties at the time of the contract as being a probable result of the breach

44
Q

Define specific performance

A

Order from the court requiring the party to perform its contractual obligations

Can be combined with damages, but this is unlikely where damages is an adequate remedy

45
Q

Define the 2 types of injunctions

A

Prohibitory = forbids the defendant from persisting in the wrongful act
Mandatory = requires positive action to rectify consequences of what they have done/put right the breach of contract (v rare)

46
Q

Under what circumstances can a party terminate a contract

A

If EITHER (a) a condition is broken or (b) an innominate term is broken AND the effects of the breach are major

47
Q

What are the elements of promissory estoppel? If rights are suspended under PE, when can they be resumed?

A
  1. A clear and unequivocal promise which was intended to affect the legal relations between the parties
  2. A change of position by the promisee in reliance on the promise
  3. The reliance need not be detrimental
  4. It must be inequitable for the promisor to go back on the promise
  5. PE is a shield not a sword

Rights can be resumed later on:
1. Following reasonable notice; or
2. When the circumstances giving rise to the estoppel cease

48
Q

When does SGA 1979 apply? What remedies are available under the Act and what are the exceptions to these?

A

Sale of goods which are made:
a) Business-to-business
b) Consumer-to-consumer
c) Consumer-to-business

Remedies:
1. Reject goods and recover money; or
2. Claim damages

Exceptions:
a) Breach is so slight, it would be unreasonable to reject; or
b) Buyer has accepted goods by keeping them beyond a reasonable time

49
Q

What implied terms are available under SGA 1979?

A
  1. Trader holds the title to the goods and is able to sell them
  2. Implied condition that goods will correspond with their description
  3. Goods will match any sample provided and be free of defects that would not be apparent on a reasonable examination
  4. Goods are of satisfactory quality and be generally fit for purpose
  5. Goods are reasonably fit for purpose which the buyer expressly or by implication makes known to the seller
50
Q

When does CRA 2015 apply? What implied terms apply under the Act? What remedies are available under the Act?

A

Sale of goods/digital content/services made between trader/business and consumer

All implied terms are available under the Act

Remedies:
1. Short-term right to reject and get a full refund (30 days) (only available to consumers who buy from traders)
2. After 30 days:
a) Right to repair/replacement
b) Right of price reduction
c) Final right to reject and get partial refund reflecting consumer’s use of goods

51
Q

When does SGSA 1982 apply?

A

Contracts for services/work and materials that are NOT made between trader and consumer

52
Q

What implied terms are available under SGSA 1982 and CRA 2015?

A

Strict liability implied conditions:

  1. Goods will correspond with description
  2. Goods are of satisfactory quality and be generally fit for purpose
  3. Goods are reasonably fit for purpose which buyer expressly or by implication makes known to the seller

Implied innominate terms:

  1. Service is carried out with reasonable care and skill
  2. In absence of express term, service will be carried out within a reasonable time
  3. In absence of an express term, party contracting with supplier will pay a reasonable price
53
Q

Define a specified damage clause

A

Genuine attempt to pre-estimate the loss which is likely to be caused by the breach

This is binding and the sum specified will be the sum paid regardless of the actual loss

54
Q

Define a penalty clause

A

Attempt to put pressure on the party to perform the contract

Test is whether the clause is out of all proportion to the legitimate interest of the party seeking to rely on the clause

55
Q

In what circumstances can negotiating damages be awarded?

A

Where there is no other financial loss other than the chance to negotiate a release fee and where it would be unfair to allow the defendant to take the full benefit of their breach of contract

56
Q

What is needed for construction of an exemption clause?

A

Needs to cover the alleged breach of contract or loss/damage

Contra proferentem rule = any ambiguity in the clause will be construed against the proferens

Limitation clauses = clauses which limit rather than exclude liability
- These are read less restrictively

57
Q

What exemption clauses are never effective in a B2C contract?

A
  1. Excluding or restricting liability for death/PI arising from negligence
  2. Clauses that purport to exclude terms implied by statute, both in relation to goods and services
58
Q

When can an exclusion clause in a B2C be effective?

A

Exclusions are only effective if they are fair

Fairness = if it is not contrary to good faith and does not cause a significant imbalance in the parties’ rights to the detriment of the consumer

59
Q

The general rule is that performance of an existing obligation is not good consideration. What is the exception to this rule and when can it apply?

A
  1. There is already a contract between A and B
  2. B has reason to doubt that A will complete
  3. B approaches A and promises to pay A extra to complete on time
  4. B obtains a practical benefit
  5. B’s promise was not given as a result of duress and fraud; and
  6. The benefit to B is capable of being consideration => it will be binding

This has NOT been extended to the part payment of debt

60
Q

The general rule is that part payment of debt is not sufficient to forgo the balance. What is the exception to this?

A

Provided the creditor gives the debtor something (other than the part payment) in return for the creditor’s promise to forgo the balance

SQE 1 - FLK 1 (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions