ELS Flashcards

1
Q

Define the following features of a constitution:
1. Written/codified
2. Republican
3. Monarchical
4. Federal
5. Unitary
6. Rigid
7. Flexibile

A
  1. Constitution is written out in a single document
  2. Usually has a president as its head of state
  3. Unelected monarch as head of state
  4. Will have a division of power between the central and regional government
  5. Has a single, sovereign legislative body
  6. Constitution can be said to be entrenched; can change only following special procedures
  7. Constitution is comparatively flexible and no special procedures need to be followed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What would the UK and American constitutions be described as?

A

UK:
- Unwritten
- Unitary
- Monarchical
- Parliamentary executive

American:
- Written
- Federal
- Republican
- Presidential executive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the procedure for getting a bill through Parliament?

A
  1. First reading
  2. Second reading
  3. Committee stage
  4. Third reading
  5. Proceedings in HoL (and goes through all 3 readings before being passed back to HoC with any amendments made)
  6. Royal assent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define the Salisbury Convention

A

HoL will not reject a bill giving effect to a major part of the democratically elected government’s manifesto

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define the Enrolled Act rule

A

Once an Act of Parliament has been entered into the Parliamentary role, the courts will not question the validity of the Act or hold the Act to be void

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the implication of the unlimited legislative competence of Parliament?

A

Statute may override international law and constitutional conventions

Statute may alter the constitution

Statute may operate retrospectively

Statute may abolish or curtail aspects of the royal prerogative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define implied repeal with regards to an Act of Parliament

A

Where there are any inconsistencies between two Acts of Parliament, the later Act will repeal the provisions of the former Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What limitation has been suggested for implied repeal of an Act of Parliament?

A

Has been suggested that constitutional statutes cannot be impliedly repealed

Test for constitutional statutes:
1. The statute must condition the legal relationship between citizen and state in some general, overarching manner; or
2. The statute must change the scope of fundamental constitutional rights

Can be repealed by express words or words so specific that make Parliament’s intention to repeal very clear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the effect of HRA 1998 on Parliamentary Sovereignty?

A

Gives the court the power to:

  1. Interpret UK law in a way that is compatible with the ECHR
  2. Declare legislature incompatible with the ECHR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the 2 main Parliamentary privileges? Define them

A

Freedom of speech = aim is to allow Parliamentarians to carry out their function without fear of civil proceedings or criminal prosecutions
- Also applies to parliamentary officials and non-members (eg: witness before a committee of one of the Houses)
- Extends to official reports of proceedings and to committee proceedings

Exclusive cognisance = Parliament has sole control over all aspects of its own affairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define the Sewel Convention

A

Westminster will not normally legislate on devolved matters without the consent of Scottish/Welsh/Irish Parliament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What falls outside of the legislative competence of the Scottish Parliament?

A
  • Those that would form part of the law of any territory other than Scotland
  • Reserved matters (foreign policy and defence)
  • Those that modify certain enactments (eg: EU(W)A 2018, HRA 1998 etc.)
  • Those that are incompatible with ECHR and, until transition period ends, with EU law
  • Those that would remove the Lord Advocate from their position as head of the systems of criminal prosecutions and investigations of deaths
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Devolution: Who can refer a bill/its provisions to the Supreme Court on the grounds of legislative comeptence?

A

Advocate General

Lord Advocate (Scotland)

Attorney General (UK)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What was a consequence of the Wales Act 2017?

A

Senedd has the power to pass legislation on all matters that are not explicitly reserved to the Westminster model

Reserved to Westminster model:
- Defence
- Foreign affairs
- Immigration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What were the 3 main outcomes of the Good Friday Agreement?

A
  1. A democratically elected assembly with a power-sharing executive
  2. North/South Ministerial Council
    - Co-operates and develops policies on matters of mutual interest within Ireland
  3. British-Irish Council
    - Comprises representatives from the devolved administrations, the Isle of Man, Guernsey and Jersey
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the main features of the rule of law?

A

Legal certainty
Personal liberty
Due process of law
Equality before the law
Courts are the protectors of the law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define Henry VIII powers

A

Enables ministers to amend/repeal the relevant statute by delegated legislation

Excessive use of these powers risks undermining parliamentary sovereignty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the literal rule?

A

Words are to be given their plain and ordinary meaning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the golden rule?

A

Narrow = when there are 2 meanings to one word, you can choose between them

Wider = can be used to avoid a result which is obnoxious to principles of public policy, even where words only have one meaning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the mischief rule?

A

Court looks at the defect in the existing law that the statute was intended to remedy

What was the legislator’s intention when passing the Act?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the purposive approach?

A

Court looks at why the statute was passed and its purpose

They will interpret the statute on that basis

Questions of wider economic or social nature should be considered by the courts when assessing the impact of legislation on disputes

Widely used when interpreting (retained) EU law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The Court of Appeal and the High Court are bound by its own decisions. What are the exceptions to this?

A
  1. Where its own previous decisions conflict
  2. Where its previous decision has been implicitly overruled by the SC
  3. Where its previous decision was made through carelessness (per incuriam)
  4. Where it is an interim decision
  5. Where its previous decision is inconsistent with a subsequent decision of ECHR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Is the Crown Court bound by its previous decisions?

A

No

For criminal matters, it is strongly persuaded by them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define:
a) Overruling
b) Departing
c) Reversing

A

a) A principle laid down by a lower court is declared incorrect and not followed by a higher court in a different case

b) Court can depart from an earlier case from the same court

c) A decision of a court in the same case is altered by a higher court on appeal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define the difference between direct effect and directly applicable in relation to retained EU law

A

Direct effect = EU law gives rights to individuals which they can then enforce in their national courts
- Vertical = EU law can be enforced against the state/government/public sector
- Horizontal = EU law can be enforced against a private organisation

Directly applicable = EU law automatically forms part of national law without the member states having to do anything

25
Q

What are the 3 main categories of retained EU law?

A
  1. EU-derived domestic legislation = includes Acts of Parliament and secondary legislation, enacted to implement the UK’s EU obligations
  2. Direct EU legislation = converts direct EU legislation into domestic legislation at IP completion day
  3. Rights arising under s 2(1) ECA 1972 = ensures any remaining EU rights and obligations become part of retained EU law
    - Directives, as a general rule, are excluded from the scope of retained EU law
26
Q

What are the 2 categories of direct EU legislation?

A
  1. Retained direct ‘principal’ legislation = can only be amended/repealed by primary legislation
    - Cannot be declared invalid under HRA 1998
    - Can be repealed by secondary legislation if:
    a) Primary legislation has granted Henry VIII powers
    b) Where ministers are using their powers under EU(W)A 2018 to correct deficiencies in retained EU law
  2. Retained direct ‘minor’ EU legislation = can be repealed or amended in the same way as ordinary domestic secondary legislation
27
Q

Is retained EU case law binding?

A

CJEU judgements from pre-IP completion day remain binding on all UK courts below the level of CoA

Can have regard to post-IP completion day case law, but the UK courts are not bound by it

28
Q

How were deficiencies in retained EU law corrected?

A

UK government ministers and devolved administrations were granted temporary powers to make secondary legislation that corrects ‘deficiencies’ in retained EU law

Can only correct deficiencies arising from UK’s withdrawal from EU, not a power to make changes to the substance of retained EU law

Power expired 31 December 2022

29
Q

Describe the supremacy of retained EU law

A

A provision of retained EU law will prevail over a piece of pre-IP completion day legislation that is not retained EU law

Legislation enacted after IP completion day will prevail over retained EU law

30
Q

Define the constitutional conventions of individual and collective ministerial responsibility

A

Individual ministerial responsibility = government ministers are responsible for the proper administration of their department and for their own personal conduct

Collective ministerial responsibility = all government ministers must support government policy in public
- If they cannot do so, they should resign

31
Q

What happens if Parliament uses the procedures set out in the Parliament Acts 1911 and 1949?

A

These Acts enable the House of Commons to override the House of Lords when enacting legislation

32
Q

What is the relationship/overlap between the executive and legislature?

A

Certain members cannot be MPs
- Eg: civil servants, armed forces, police

Checks on executive’s exercise of power through PM questions, debates, select committees etc.

33
Q

What is the relationship/overlap between the executive and the judiciary?

A

Independence of judiciary
- Ministers should not seek to influence particular decisions

34
Q

What is the relationship/overlap between the legislature and the judiciary?

A

Article 9 Bill of Rights (and parliamentary privilege) secures freedom of speech in Parliament

Judiciary accepts that statute takes precedent over common law

Judiciary is unable to prevent Parliament from legislating in any given area

35
Q

Define the sub-judice rule

A

Prevents discussions of ongoing Court proceedings by either House of Parliament

36
Q

Define the doctrine of habeas corpus

A

The doctrine that no one can be detained without lawful reason

37
Q

Define the rule noscitur a sociis

A

Recognition from associated words

Word derives their meaning from surrounding words

38
Q

Define the rule eiusdem generis

A

If a general word follows 2 or more specific words, the general word will only apply to items of the same type as the specific words

39
Q

Define the rule expression unius est exclusion alterius

A

The mention of one or more specific thing may be taken to exclude others of the same type

40
Q

Define the presumption against the alteration of common law

A

Unless the statute expressly states an intention to alter the common law, the interpretation which does not alter the existing law will be preferred

41
Q

Define the presumption against the operation of retrospective statutes

A

When an Act of Parliament becomes law, there is a presumption that it will only apply to future actions

42
Q

Define the presumption against the deprivation of the liberty of the individual

A

Any ambiguity in a penal or criminal statute will be interpreted in favour of the citizen

43
Q

Define the presumption against binding the Crown

A

Unless there is a clear statement to the contrary, legislation is presumed not to apply the Crown

44
Q

Is the High Court bound by their own decisions?

A

In the appellate jurisdiction, they are bound by their own decisions
- Same exceptions in the CoA apply

Decisions of individual High Court judges in first instance are binding on the County Courts, but are not binding on the High Court

45
Q

The High Court has 3 divisions. What types of cases are suited for each division?

A

Kings Bench Division = contractual and tort matters (eg: PI, landlord and tenant disputes, clinical negligence claims etc)

Chancery = IP matters, wills and trusts, property loans and mortgages, partnership and business disputes

Family Division

46
Q

Criminal court: what is a defendant’s right of appeal from the MC to CC?

A

D has an automatic right of appeal to the Crown Court

Pleads guilty = can only appeal against sentence

Pleads not guilty = can appeal against conviction and sentence

47
Q

Civil court: how can a defendant appeal from the County Court?

A

There is no automatic right of appeal, but they must obtain permission

Permission will be granted if:

  1. There is reasonable prospect of success; or
  2. There is some other compelling reason for the case to be heard

Permission can normally be sought:
a) At the end of trial; or
b) Can apply for permission from the appeal court within 21 days

48
Q

Civil court: where and how can a leapfrog appeal be made?

A

Can be made from the High Court to the Supreme Court where the appeal is on a point of law of general public importance

49
Q

Criminal court: how can a defendant appeal by way of case stated/on a point of law from the MC?

A

The appeal is made to the Administrative (Divisional) Court of KBD of the High Court

Application to the MC must be made within 21 days
- If the MC refuse, D can still apply to the High Court for a mandatory order for the case to be stated

50
Q

Criminal court: how can a defendant appeal from the CC to the CoA

A
  1. CC grants leave of appeal
  2. Trial judge grants a certificate that the case is fit for appeal

D should serve notice of appeal within 28 days of conviction/sentence

Conviction = need to show that conviction is unsafe

Sentence = need to show that it is manifestly excessive

If appealing against sentence, the appeal is confined to legal submissions

51
Q

Criminal court: how can an appeal be made to the Supreme Court?

A

Can be made from:

  1. CoA
  2. Administrative Court

Appellate has 28 days to apply for an appeal

Right of appeal = it must be a case of exceptional public importance

52
Q

When was IP Completion Day?

A

31st December 2020

53
Q

What does the exclusion of state liability from retained EU law mean?

A

EU law gives individuals the right to claim damages from Member States for their failure to implement a Directive within the time limit/at all

This has been excluded by retained EU law

Claims were able to be brought within 2 years of IP completion day, if the claim related to something before IP completion day

54
Q

What are the general principles that form part of retained EU law and to what extent are they binding?

A
  1. Proportionality
  2. Equality
  3. Fundamental rights
  4. Subsidiarity

While these general principles are retained, failure to comply with them does not give rise to a right of action

European Charter of Fundamental Rights does not form part of retained EU law

55
Q

What does the EU Withdrawal Agreement 2019 set out?

A

Sets out the terms of the UK’s exist from the EU

Legally binding in international law

Protects citizens’ rights = EU citizens living in the UK and UK citizens living in the EU

These provisions have direct effect
=> Citizens will be able to rely on them in UK courts

56
Q

Criminal court: from the CC, where can D make an appeal to?

A
  1. Summary only offence = High Court, as of right, on a point of law
  2. Triable on indictment = CoA, with permission, on a point of law
57
Q

Define the right of audience

A

The right to appear before a court and to address the court
- eg: the right to call and examine witnesses

This is a reserved legal activity

Barristers have the right of audience in all courts

Solicitors have the right of audience in the magistrates and County courts
- To have the right of audience in higher courts they must have completed the appropriate higher courts advocacy qualification
- Exception: Can represent clients in the Crown Court if they are appealing from the MC and they represented them in the MC

58
Q

What are the requirements of a district judge in the magistrates?

A

5 years of right of audience

Typically have served as a deputy district judge for 30 days

59
Q

What are the requirements to be a circuit judge in the High Court?

A

Right of audience for 10 years

Should also have either served:

  1. Part-time as a recorder; or
  2. Full time as a district judge
60
Q

What is a recorder?

A

Most junior level of circuit judge, usually to reside on a part-time basis