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Microbiology > topnotch generalities > Flashcards

topnotch generalities Flashcards

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1
Q

microorganisms

enumerate

A

bacteria
protozoa
microscopic algae
fungi

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2
Q

acellular infections agents enumerate

A

viruses
viroids
prions

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3
Q

mobile genetic elements enumerate

A

bacteriophages
plasmids
transposons

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4
Q

animal parasites enumerate

A

nematodes
trematodes
cestodes

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5
Q

roundworms

A

nematodes

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6
Q

flukes

A

trematodes

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7
Q

tapeworms

A

cestodes

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8
Q

Non-SI unit for sedimentation rate

A

Svedberg unit

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9
Q

is the rate at which particles of a given size and shape travel to the bottom of the tube under centrifugal force

A

svedberg unit

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10
Q

this reflects at which a molecule sediments under the centrifugal force

A

svedberg unit

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11
Q

svedberg is a measure of time defined exactly

A

10^-13 s (100 fs)

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12
Q

replicates through binary fission

A

bacteria

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13
Q

how does fungi replicate

A

budding or mitosis

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14
Q

how does protozoa and helminths replicate

A

mitosis

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15
Q

protein capsid

A

viruses

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16
Q

rigid wall containing peptidoglcan

A

bacteria

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17
Q

rigid wall contaning chitin

A

fungi

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18
Q

flexible membrane

A

protozoa and helminths

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19
Q

Which of the following microorganisms lack membrane sterols

A

bacteria

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20
Q

Which organism has abundant sterols in membrane, 10% of dry weight

A

yeast

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21
Q

mobile genetic elements

A

transposons

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22
Q

Jumping genes

A

transposons

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23
Q

obligate intracellular parasites of plants
acellular
with naked RNA
no human diseases known

A

viroids

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24
Q

Transposons are DNA pieces that move readily from one site to another between DNA of what type of organisms

A

bacteria
plasmids
bacteriophages

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25
Q

code for drug-resistant enzymes , toxins or metabolic enzymes

A

transposons

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26
Q

cause mutations in gene into which they insert or alter expression of nearby genes

A

transposons

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27
Q

Which of the following infectious agents lack nucleic acids?

a. viruses
b. bacteria
c. viroids
d. prions

A

d. prions

protein only

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28
Q

noncellular infectious proteins

A

prions

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29
Q

naked proteins that have the same amino sequence as certain human cell surface proteins but folded differently

A

prions

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30
Q

prions are resistant to

A

nucleases
proteases
many chemicals and
normal autoclaving

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31
Q

prions are associated with what condition

A

spongiform encephalopathies

Creutzfeldt- Jakob’s disease, kuru, fatal familial insomnia

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32
Q

What is the pathogenic mechanism of prions

A

dysfunction due to protein misfolding

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33
Q

appearance of the VACUOLATED NEURONS with loss of function and the lack of an immune response or inflammation

A

spongiform encephalopahies

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34
Q

Human prior diseases

A 
Creutzfeldt- Jakob disease
Kuru
Variant CJD
Gertsmann- Straussler- Scheinker (GSS Syndrome)
Fatal Familial Insomnia 
Sporadic fatal insomnia
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35
Q

etiology of CJD

A

infection

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36
Q

etiology of Kuru

A

cannibalism

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37
Q

difference of manifestation of CJD and Kuru

A

CJD - higher cortical dysfunction-> dementia

Kuru - cerebellar manifestation -> dysdiadochokinesia, ataxia, myoclonic jerks

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38
Q

Kuru means

A

kuria or guria -> to shake

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39
Q

clinical features of kuru

A

cerebellar ataxia
voluntary tremor
involuntary movements ( choreoathetosis, myoclonic jerks, fasciculations)
Euphoria, dementia, emotional liability, loss of grasp of reflexes

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40
Q

the most infectious organ

A

brain

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41
Q

enumerate animal prion diseases

A

scrapie (sheep and goats)
Transmissible mink encephalopathy
Bovine spongigorm encephalopathy (BSE) - mad cow disease
Chronic wasting disease (Mule, deer, elk)

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42
Q

susceptible population to prion diseases

A

women and children of the Fore tribe in New Guinea
neurosurgeons and brain surgery patients
transplant surgeons and transplant patients

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43
Q

manifestations of human prion disease

A 
loss of muscle control
shivering
myoclonic jerks and tremors
loss of coordination
rapidly progressive dementia
death
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44
Q

Treatment and prevention of prion diseases

A

no tx available
cessation of ritual cannibalism
elimination of animal products from livestock field

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45
Q

3 shapes of bacteria

A

cocci (sphere)
bacilli (rods)
spirochete (spirals)

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46
Q

cocci are arranged in 3 patterns

A

pairs (diplococci)
chains (streptococci)
clusters (staphylococci)

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47
Q

all bacteria have a cell wall composed of peptidoglycan except

A

mycoplasma - no cell wall

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48
Q

peptidoglycan is composed of glycan and peptide side chains cross-linked by

A

transpeptidase

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49
Q

structures in bacterial cell wall the facilitate passage of small, hydrophilic molecules into the cell

A

porin proteins

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50
Q

in the outer membrane of gram - bacteria this allow entry of essential substances such as sugars, amino acids and vitamins

A

channels

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51
Q

lysozymes are enzymes that kill bacteria by cleaving which part of cell wall

A

The link between the N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid is cleaved by lysozyme.

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52
Q

thicker, multilayer of peptidoglycan in cell wall

presence of teichoic acids

A

gram + cells

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53
Q

presence of thinner peptidoglycan
no teichoic acids
(+) lipopolysaccharide
(+) periplasmic space

A

gram -

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54
Q

what is the endotoxin that forms the outer membrane of gram (-) bacteria

A

lipopolysaccharide

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55
Q

All gram (+) bacteria have no exotoxin except

A

LISTERIA MONOCYTOGENES

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56
Q

procedure for gram staining

steps 1 -4

A

primary stain - crystal violet
mordant - iodine
decolorizing agent - acetone
counterstain 0 safranin

VIAS

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57
Q

enumerate all bacteria not seen in gram stain

A

Treponema

Rickettsiae

Mycobacteriae

Mycoplasma spp

Legionella spp

Chlamydiae

Spirochetes

These Rascals May Microscopically lack color S

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58
Q

why is this bacteriae not seen on gram stain and alternative approach

mycobacteria

A

too much lipid in cell wall so dye cannot penetrate

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59
Q

why is this bacteriae not seen on gram stain and alternative approach

spirocheres

A

too thin to see

darkfield microscopy

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60
Q

why is this bacteriae not seen on gram stain and alternative approach

mycoplasma

A

no cell wall
very small

none
(serologies)

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61
Q

why is this bacteriae not seen on gram stain and alternative approach

legionella

A

poor uptake of counterstain

silver stain

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62
Q

why is this bacteriae not seen on gram stain and alternative approach

chlamydiae

A

intracellular
very small

giemsa stain -> inclusion bodies

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63
Q

why is this bacteriae not seen on gram stain and alternative approach

rickettsiae

A

intracellular, very small

giemsa/ tissue stains

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64
Q

which component of the gram negativecell wall is responsible for its nonspecific endotoxin activity

A

Lipopolysaccharide

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65
Q

which of the following is the OLDEST acid- fast staining method which requires heating the specimen during procedure

A

Ziehl-Neelsen method- hot plate method

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66
Q

method of Ziehl-Neelson

A

Primary dye - Carbol fuchsin
Decolorizer- acid alcohol
Count stain - methylene blue / malachite green

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67
Q

structure of bacteria that protects against phagocytosis

A

capsule (polysaccharide)

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68
Q

space between the plasma membrane and outer membrane of bacteria

A

periplasm

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69
Q

essential components of bacteria

A 
cell wall
cytoplasmic membrane
ribosome
nucleiod
mesosome
periplasm
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70
Q

non essential components of bacteria

A 
capsule 
pilus or fimbria
glycocalyx 
flagellum
spore
plasmid 
granule
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71
Q

component of bacteria for attachment and conjugation

A

pilus or fimbria

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72
Q

structure in bacteria that mediates adherence to surfaces

A

glycocalyx

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73
Q

protein in bacteria that mediates motility

A

flagellum

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74
Q

structure in bacteria with keratin like coat and dipicolinic acid that provides resistance to head, and chemicals

A

spore

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75
Q

structure in bacteria that provides genes for antibiotic resistance and toxins

A

plasmid

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76
Q

structure in bacteria that is site of nutrients in cytoplasm

A

granule

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77
Q

extrachromosomal, double stranded, circular DNA capable of replicating independently of the bacterial chromosome

A

plasmids

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78
Q

when plasmids are integrate into the bacterial chromosome, it is called

A

episomes

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79
Q

ALL bacterial capsules are composed of polysaccharide except

A

bacillus anthracis ( polypeptide of D-glutamate)

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80
Q

spore forming bacteria are

A

gram (+) rods such as bacillus and clostridium

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81
Q

can plasmids replicate independent of bacterial
chromosome

T/F

A

T

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82
Q

toxic proteins produced by certai bacteria that are lethal for other bacteria

A

bacteriocins

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83
Q

Which of the bacterial structures necessitate the use of soap-based products over the alcohol rubs?

A

spores

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84
Q

Alcohol based hand sanitizers may be effective against the ff organisms, except

A

Spore forming bacteria such as clostridium and bacillus

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85
Q

is a coordinated process of increase in individual cell mass and size and duplication of chromosome, followed by cell division

A

bacterial growth

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86
Q

bacterial reproduction occurs via

A

binary fission

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87
Q

bacterial growth phase
zero growth rate
adaptation to new environment
vigorous metabolic activity without binary fission

A

Phase 1 - lag phase

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88
Q

bacterial growth phase
rapid cell division
constant growth rate

A

Phase 2- log or exponential phase

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89
Q

bacterial growth phase affected by beta lactam antibiotics

A

Phase 2- log or exponential phase

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90
Q

bacterial growth phase
exhaustion of nutrients or accumulation of toxic products
zero growth rate
spores are formed

A

phase 3 - stationary phase

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91
Q

most of the cells die because nutrients have been exhausted

negative growth phase

A

phase 4 - decline or death phase

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92
Q

bacterial oxygen metabolism generates toxic products such as

A

superoxide and hydrogen peroxide

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93
Q

what enzymes are needed for bacteria to survive in aerobic environments

A

superoxide dismutase
peroxidase
catalase

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94
Q

aerobic metabolism

types of bacteria

A

obligate aerobes

microaerophiles

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95
Q

anaerobic metabolism

types of bacteria

A

facultative anaerobe
aerotolerant anaerobes
obligate anaerobes

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96
Q

completely dependent on oxygen for ATP generation

A

obligate aerobes

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97
Q

use fermentation but can tolerate low amounts of oxygen because they have SOD

A

microaerophiles

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98
Q

utilize oxygen if it is present, but can use fermentation in its absence

A

facultative anaerobes

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99
Q

exclusively anaerobic but is insensitive to presence of oxygen

A

aerotolerant anaerobes

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100
Q

cannot grow in presence of oxygen because they lack SOD, peroxidase, catalase

A

obligate anaerobes

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101
Q

enumerate obligate anaerobes

A

actinomyces
bacteroides
clostridium

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102
Q

enumerate aerotolerant anaerobes

A

propionibacterium

lactobacillus

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103
Q

bacterial oxygen metabolism

nocardia

A

obligate aerobes

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104
Q

bacterial oxygen metabolism

streptococcus

A

microaerophiles

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105
Q

bacterial oxygen metabolism

staphylococcus

A

facultative anaerobic

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106
Q

bacterial oxygen metabolism

Neisseria

A

Obligate aerobes

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107
Q

bacterial oxygen metabolism

Bacillus cereus

A

obligate aerobes

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108
Q

bacterial oxygen metabolism

pseudomonas

A

Obligate aerobes

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109
Q

bacterial oxygen metabolism

Bordetella

A

Obligate aerobes

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110
Q

bacterial oxygen metabolism

spirochetes (Borrelia, Treponema)

A

microaerophiles

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111
Q

bacterial oxygen metabolism

Campylobacter

A

Microaerophiles

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112
Q

bacterial oxygen metabolism

Legionella

A

Obligate aerobes

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113
Q

bacterial oxygen metabolism

Brucella

A

Obligate aerobes

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114
Q

bacterial oxygen metabolism

Mycobacterium

A

obligate aerobes

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115
Q

bacterial oxygen metabolism

Leptospira

A

Obligate aerobes

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116
Q

bacterial oxygen metabolism

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

Obligate aerobes

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117
Q

bacterial oxygen metabolism

Helicobacter

A

microaerophiles

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118
Q

bacterial oxygen metabolism

Bacillus anthracis

A

facultative anaerobes

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119
Q

bacterial oxygen metabolism

Corynebacterium

A

Facultative anaerobes

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120
Q

bacterial oxygen metabolism

Listeria

A

Facultative anaerobes

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121
Q

bacterial oxygen metabolism

Mycoplasma in general

A

Facultative anaerobes

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122
Q

Obligate aerobes

enumerate

A

Nosy and Nagging Pests Must Breathe Lots of Oxygen

Nocardia
Neisseria
Pseudomonas
Mycobacteria
Bordetella/ Brucella/ B. cereus 
Legionella
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123
Q

Obligate anaerobes

enumerate

A

ABC
Actinomyces
Bacteroides
Clostridium

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124
Q

DNA transferred from one bacterium to another

A

Conjugation

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125
Q

DNA transferred by a virus from one cell to another

A

transfuction

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126
Q

Purified DNA taken up by cell

A

transformation

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127
Q

Bacterial DNA transfer procedure for prokaryotes

A

Conjugation
Transduction
Transformation

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128
Q

Eukaryotic cells DNA transfer procedure

A

transformation

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129
Q

microorganisms that are permanent residents of the body

A

normal flora

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130
Q

are low virulence organisms in their usual anatomic site

A

normal flora

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131
Q

occurs when normal flora occupy receptor sites preventing pathogens from binding

A

colonization resistance

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132
Q

normal flora

skin

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

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133
Q

normal flora

nose

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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134
Q

normal flora

Mouth

A

Viridans Streptococci

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135
Q

normal flora

mouth

A

viridans streptococci

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136
Q

normal flora

Dental plaque

A

Streptococcus mutans

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137
Q

normal flora

Colon

A

Bacteroides

Escherichia coli

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138
Q

normal flora

Vagina

A

Lactobacillus vaginalis
E. coli
Streptococus agalactiae

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139
Q

are microbes that can cause disease

A

pathogens

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140
Q

are microbes that cause disease in immunocompromised people only

A

opportunistic pathogens

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141
Q

is a measure of a microbe’s ability to cause disease determined by virulence factors such as capsules, exotoxins, or endotoxins

A

virulence

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142
Q

is the number of organisms required to cause disease in 50% of population

A

ID50

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143
Q

2 meanings of infection

A

presence of microbes in the body

symptoms of disease

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144
Q

mechanisms of bacterial disease

A

production of toxins

induction of inflammation

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145
Q

mediates strong adherence to surface of human cells

A

glycocalyx

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146
Q

surface proteins called ___ mediate binding to endothelium and to extracellular proteins such as fibronectin

A

curli

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147
Q

enzymes in bacterial invasion

A 
collagenase
hyaluronidase
coagulase
IgA protease
Leukocidin
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148
Q

enzyme to spread through subcutaneous tissue

A

collagenase

and hyaluronidase

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149
Q

bacterial enzyme to accelerate formation of a fibrin clot coating the organisms with a layer of fibrin

A

coagulase

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150
Q

bacterial enzyme that allows adherence to mucous membranes

A

IgA protease

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151
Q

bacterial enzyme that destroys both neutrophilic leukocytes and macrophages

A

leukocidin

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152
Q

which enzyme is primarily responsible for development of cellulitis from a small furuncle

A

hyaluronidase

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153
Q

Prophage coded bacteria

A

ABCDE

shigA- like toxin: EHEC
botulinum
Cholera Diphtheria
Erythrogenic Strain

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154
Q

Bacteria with IgA protease

A 
SHiNe My Gong
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
Neisseria meningitidis
Neisseria Gonorrhoeae
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155
Q

the toxic component of LPS

A

lipid A

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156
Q

this virulence factor protect against phagocytosis

A

polysaccharide capsule

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157
Q

this process involves anticapsular antibodies more effective phagocytosis to occur

A

opsonization

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158
Q

cell wall protein S. pyogenes that protects against phagocytosis

A

M protein

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159
Q

cell wall protein of S. aureus prevents complement activation

A

protein A

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160
Q

exotoxin is produced by

A

gram + and gram - bacteri

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161
Q

endotoxin is found in

A

gram - bacteria

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162
Q

which toxin is secreted by bacteria

A

exotoxin

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163
Q

exotoxin is made up of

A

polypeptide

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164
Q

endotoxin is made up of

A

lipopolysaccharide

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165
Q

location of genes of exotoxin

A

plasmid or bacteriophage

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166
Q

location of genes

endotoxin

A

bacterial chromosome

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167
Q

which is more toxic

exotoxin vs endotoxin

A

exotoxin

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168
Q

which is more antigenic

exotoxin vs endotoxin

A

exotoxin

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169
Q

what vaccine is used for exotoxin

A

toxoids

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170
Q

heat stability of exotoxin

A

60 C - destroyed rapidly

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171
Q

what exotoxin is heat stable

A

staphylococcal enterotoxin

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172
Q

typical diseases of exotoxin

A

tetanus

botulism

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173
Q

heat stabilty of endotoxin

A

stable at 100 C for 1 hour

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174
Q

typical diseases of endotoxin

A

meningococcemia

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175
Q

is the toxic component of LPS

A

Lipid A

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176
Q

Lipid A induces cytokines such as

A

TNF and IL-1

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177
Q

Lipid A effect

A

overproduction of cytokines
activates complement cascade
activates the coagulation cascade resulting in DIC

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178
Q

all bactyeria have cell walls composed of peptidoglycan except

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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179
Q

All gram-positive bacteria have no endotoxin except

A

listeria monocytogenes

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180
Q

all bacterial capsules are composed of polysaccharide except

A

bacillus anthracis

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181
Q

all exotoxins are heat-labile except

A

staphylococcal enterotoxin

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182
Q

use of high or rising titer of specific IgG antibodies or the presence of a specific IgM antibodies may suggest or confirm a diagnosis

A

serodiagnosis

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183
Q

Microorganisms particularly bacteria, are tested in vitro to determien whether they are susceptible to antimicrobial agents

A

Antimicrobial suspceptibility

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184
Q

propagation of microorganisms in media conducive to their growth

A

culture

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185
Q

a nutritive substance in which cultures of microorganisms are grown

A

culture medium

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186
Q

specialized media for

clostridium perfringens

A

egg yolk

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187
Q

specialized media for

corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

tellurite

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188
Q

specialized media for

group D streptococci

A

bile esculin

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189
Q

specialized media for

staphylococci

A

mannitol salts

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190
Q

specialized media for

N. meningitidis

A

chocolate

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191
Q

specialized media for

N. gonorrhoeae from sterile sites

A

chocolate

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192
Q

specialized media for

N. gonorrhoeae from nonsterile sites

A

Thayer-martin

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193
Q

specialized media for

Haemophilus influenzae

A

Chocolate + Factors X and V

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194
Q

Bacteria isolated in this agar:

Lowenstein -Jensen

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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195
Q

Bacteria isolated in this agar:

Thiosulfate citrate bile salts

A

Vibrio cholerae

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196
Q

Bacteria isolated in this agar:

Border- Gengou

A

Bordetelli pertussis

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197
Q

Bacteria isolated in this agar:

Charcoal-yeast extract

A

Legionella pneumphila

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198
Q

Bacteria isolated in this agar:

skirrows

A

Campylobacter, helicobacter

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199
Q

Bacteria isolated in this agar:

Barbour-stoenner-kelly

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

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200
Q

Bacteria isolated in this agar:

eaton

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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201
Q

Bacteria isolated in this agar:

cetrimide

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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202
Q

Bacteria isolated in this agar:

Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate (XLD)

A

Salmonella, Shigella

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203
Q

Bacteria isolated in this agar:

Ellinghausen-McCullough-Johnson-Harris (EMJH)/ Fletcher’s

A

Leptospira interogans

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204
Q

Working Dx: TB Lymphadenitis -

what should be requested to RAPIDLY identify mycobacterial species

A

PCR

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205
Q

highly specific, quite sensitive, much faster than culture, especially useful for those bacteria that are difficult to culture such as chlamydia and mycobacterium species

A

Molecular Tests

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206
Q

enumerate Antigen detection immunodiagnostics

A

Immunofluorescent antibody tests

EIAs, ELISA, agglutination tests

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207
Q

enumerate antibody detection immunodiagnostics

A

Western blot immunoassays
Lepto MAT
COPT

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208
Q

Serologic tests is used for iagnosis of viral infections with long incubation period prior to appearance of clinical manifestations
such as

A

Epstein-Barr, Hepatitis, HIV

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209
Q

Immunofluorescent Antibody staining is commonly used for these strains of bacteria

A

Bordetella pertussis, Legionella pneumophila

210
Q

in this type of fluorescent antibody test, the fluorescent dye is attached directly to the antibody that is interacting with the antigen

A

direct fluorescent antibody test

211
Q

in this type of fluorescent antibody test, the fluorescent dye is attached to the antibody that is made against human IgG

A

indirect fluorescent antibody test

212
Q

the rabies antibody used for dFA test is primary directed against ____

A

nucleoprotein (antigen) of the virus

213
Q

What are serologic tests or syphilis

A

Nontreponemal-
-VDRL- Venereal disease research laboratory
-RPR - Rapid plasma reagin
-Antigen- cardiolipin, cholestrol, purified lecithin
-Unheated serum reagin (USR), toluine red unheated serum test (TRUST)
Treponemal antibody tests - T pallidium enzyme immunoassay (TPEIA)

214
Q

screening for HIV

A

ELISA

215
Q

ELISA procedure

A

Coat wells with antigen

  • > add specimen -> incubate
  • > wash wells
  • > add enzyme labelled antibodies -> wash
  • > add substrate
  • > color change
  • > analyze using spectyrophotometer
216
Q

difference of RIA with ELISaA

A

uses radio-labeled antibodies

uses gamma counter to measure radioactive signal

217
Q

immunoassay primarily directed at the detection of carbohydrate antigens of encapsulated micoorganisms

A

Latex agglutination

218
Q

STEPS of Latex aggltination

A
  1. antigen-specific antibody (either polyclonal or monoclonal) that is fixed to latex beads
  2. add specimen
    antibodies present -> bind to antigens -> lattice structure -> agglutination of the beads
219
Q

uses of latex agglutination assay

A

diagnosis of group A streptococcal pharyngitis
detection of cryptococcal antigen (CALAS)
bacterial meningitis

220
Q

performed to detect antibodies against specific antigens

A

western blot immunoassays

221
Q

based upon the electrophoretic separation of major proteins of the organism in question in a 2-dimentional agarose gel

A

western blot assays

222
Q

is a method used in molecular biologyto detect a specific DNA sequence

A

Souther blot

223
Q

lab method to detect specific RNA

A

nothern blot

224
Q

In the diagnosis of HIV, which technique employs strips that are incubated with patient serum and anti-human IgG conjugated with an enzyme and chromagen

A

Western blot

225
Q

An 18 year old ale presents with ureththral discharge. You suspect he has gonococcal infection. What is the gold standard for diagnosis?

A

CULTURE on Thayer-Martin medium

226
Q

which molecular techniques represents a variation of the PCR involving the use of an enzyme to convert viral RNA or messenger RNA to DNA prior to amplification

A

Reverse transcriptase PCR

227
Q

Also known as McClung-Toabe agar, this agar is a differential medium useful in the detection of lecithinase activity such as _____

A

Clostridium perfringens

228
Q

Also known as McClung-Toabe agar, this agar is a differential medium useful in the detection of lecithinase activity such as Clostridium perfringens. This culture medium is also known asa

A

Egg yolk agar,

Anaerobic lecithin lipase agar

229
Q

toxoplasma gondii is

a. tissue protozoan
b. blood protozoan
c. blood and tissue protozoan

A

a. tissue protozoan

230
Q

trypanosoma cruzi is a

a. tissue protozoan
b. blood protozoan
c. blood and tissue protozoan

A

c. blood and tissue protozoan

231
Q

4 forms of Trypanosoma cruzi

A

amastigote, promastigote, epimastigote, typomastigote

232
Q

trypanosoma crui is transmitted by

A

reduviid bug

233
Q

transmission of trypanosoma cruzi is via

A

reduviid bug (Triatoma ) bite

234
Q

infective stage of trypanosoma cruzii

A

metacyclic trypomastigotes

235
Q

diagnostic stage of trypanosoma cruzi

A

trypomastigotes in blood

236
Q

which are frequent sites affected by trypanosoma cruzi

A

myocardial
glial
reticuloendothelial cells

237
Q

most frequently and severely affected tissue of trypanosoma cruzi

A

cardiac muscle

238
Q

how to diagnose trypanosoma cruzi

A

stained BMA or muscle biopsy
culture of the organism on special medium
xenodiagnosis - allowing an uninfected lab raised reduviid bug to feed on the patient

239
Q

allowing an uninfected, lab raised reduviid bug to feed on patient

A

xenodiagnosis

240
Q

Spectrum of diseases caused by trypanosoma cruzi

A

Acute Chagas’ disease

Chronic disease-myocarditis, megacolon, megaesophagus

241
Q

s and sx of Acute Chagas’ diseaseaa

A 
periorbital edema (Romana sign)
nodule near bite (chagoma)
fever
LAD
hepatosplenomegaly
242
Q

tx for trypanosoma infection

A

nifurtimox

243
Q

trypanosom brucei is

a. tissue protozoan
b. blood protozoan
c. blood and tissue protozoan

A

c. blood and tissue protozoan

244
Q

what are the forms of trypanosoma brucei

A

trypanosoma brucei gambiense

trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

245
Q

transmission by trypanosoma brucei

A

tsetse fly (Glossina ) bite

246
Q

infective stage by trypanosoma brucei

A

metacyclic trypomastigotes

247
Q

diagnostic stage of trypanosoma brucei

A

trypomastigotes in blood

248
Q

how does trypanosoma spread in the body

A

spread from the skin through the blood to the lymphnodes and brain -> somnolence -> coma (demyelinating encephalitis) ARAS and brainstem

249
Q

fever spike in trypanosoma brucei

A

cyclical fever spike every 2 weeks due to antigenic variation

250
Q

which is more rapid and fatal antigenic variation of trypanosoma brucei

A

rhodesian > gambian

251
Q

spectrum of disease

trypanosoma brucei

A

indurated skin ulcer (trypanosomal chancre)
intermittent weekly fever and LAD
enlargement of posterior cervical LN (Winderbottom sign)
excessive somnolence - demyelinating encephalitis
hyperesthesia (Kerandel sign)
encephalitis - mott cells

252
Q

plasma cells with cytoplasmic immunoglobulin globules

A

Mott cells

253
Q

hyperesthesia due to trypanosoma brucei

A

kerandel sign

254
Q

enlargement of posterior cervical LN due to trypanosoma cruzei

A

winterbottom sign

255
Q

West african sleeping sickness

antigenic variation

A

gambian

WaGER
West - Gambian
East- Rhodesian

256
Q

east african sleeping sickness

antigenic variation

A

rhodesian

WaGER
West - Gambian
East- Rhodesian

257
Q

early west african sleeping sickness tx

A

1st line: pentamidine

alt: suramin , eflornithine

258
Q

CNS involvement west african sleeping sickness tx

A

1st : eflornithine
alt: melasorprol
eflornithine-nifurtimox

259
Q

early east african sleeping sickness tx

A

suramin

alt: pentamidine

260
Q

CNS involvement west african sleeping sickness tx

A

melasoprol

261
Q

causes Granulomatous Amebic encephalitis

A

Acanhamoeba castellani

262
Q

Primary amebic meningoencephalitis

A

Naegleria fowleri

263
Q

causes Balantidium dysentery

A

Balantidium coli

264
Q

only ciliated protozoa to cause human disease

A

Balantidium coli

265
Q

Balantidium coli is associated with this animal

A

pig

266
Q

causes round-based, wide-necked intestinal ulcers

A

Balantidium coli

267
Q

Babesiosis is caused by

A

Babesia microti

268
Q

Babesia microti is transmitted by the bite of

A

Ixodes tick

269
Q

intraerythrocytic ring-shaped trophozoites in tetrads in the form of a maltese cross

A

Babesia microti

270
Q

Leishmaniasis is transmitted by

A

sandfly (Phlebotomus)

271
Q

infective stag of Leishmania spp.

A

promastigotes

272
Q

spectrum of disease caused by leishmania spp.

A

cutaneous - Leishmania tropica
Visceral / kala-azar - Leishmania donovani
Mucocutaneous - Leishmania braziliensis

273
Q

coccidial sporozoa

cause diarrhea in immunocompromised patients

A

Cyclospora Cayetanensis

Isospora belli

274
Q

Intestinal nematodes

A 
Ascaris 
Ancyclostoma and Necator
Trichuris
Enterobius
Strongyloides
Capillaria
275
Q

Tissue nematodes

A

Wuchereria
Brugia
Trichinella

276
Q

Hookworms

A

Ancyclostoma

Necator

277
Q

Whipworm

A

Trichuris

278
Q

Pinworm

A

Enterobius

279
Q

Strongyloidiasis

A

Strongyloides

280
Q

transmission of ascaris

A

ingestion of eggs

281
Q

transmission of hookworm (Ancylostoma and Necator)

A

Larval penetration of skin

282
Q

transmission of trichuris

A

ingestion f eggs

283
Q

transmission of Enterobius

A

Ingestion of eggs

284
Q

transmission of Strongloides

A

Larval penetration of skin

285
Q

transmission of Capillaria

A

Eggs in undercooked fish

286
Q

transmission of Wuchereria and Brugia

A

mosquito bite

287
Q

transmission of Trichinella

A

Larvae in undercooked meat

288
Q

DOC for ascaris

A

albendazole

289
Q

DOC for Ancylostome and necator

A

Albendazole

290
Q

DOC for trichuris

A

Mebendazole

291
Q

DOC for Enterobius

A

Pyrantel pamoate

292
Q

DOC for Strongyloides

A

Ivermectin

293
Q

DOC for Capillaria

A

Albendazole

294
Q

DOC for Wuchereria and Brugia

A

DEC

295
Q

DOC for Trichinella

A

Thiabendazole

296
Q

A barrel shaped egg with bipolar plugs was found in stool examination

A

Trichuris (Whipworm)

297
Q

most common and largest intestinal nematode

soil-transmitted helminth

A

Ascaris lumbricoides

298
Q

giant roundworm

A

ascaris lumbricoides

299
Q

infective stage of ascaris

A

embyonated egg

300
Q

diagnostic stage of ascaris

A

unembryonated egg

301
Q

diagnosis of ascaris

A

direct fecal smear

kato-katz technique

302
Q

major damage in ascaris happens during

A

larval migration

303
Q

principal site of tissue reaction by ascaris is the

A

lungs - inflammation with an eosinophilic excudate occurs

304
Q

ascaris heavy worm burden may lead to this condition

A

malnutrition

305
Q

spectrum of disease ascaris

A 
hypersensitivity pneumonitis (Loeffler syndrome)
acute intestinal obstruction
hepatobiliary ascariasis
pancreatitis
malabsorption syndromes
nutrient deficiencies
306
Q

soil-transmitted helminth

blood-sucking nematodes

A

hookworms - Necator americanus, ancylostoma duodenale

307
Q

infective stage of Hookworms

A

filariform larvae

308
Q

diagnostic stage of hookworms

A

eggs in feces

309
Q

diagnosis of hookworms

A

direct fecal smear

kato-katz smear

310
Q

major damag occurs with necator and ancylostoma due to

A

blood loss at site of attachment - anticoagulant made by worm -> microcytic anemia

311
Q

spectrum of hookworm

A

Acute disease

Chronic disease

312
Q

ground itch at site of entry
serpiginous tracts - cutaneous larva migrans
eosinophilic pneumonia during transpulmonary passage
mild GIT symptoms

A

Acute disease of Hookworms

313
Q

Chronic disease hookworm manifestation

A

microcytic anemia

hypoalbuminemia

314
Q

infective stage of trichuris trichuria

A

embryonated egg

315
Q

diagnostic stage of trichuris

A

unembryonated egg

316
Q

diagnosis of trichuris trichuria

A

direct fecal smear

kato-katz technique - barrel shaped eggs with bipolar plugs

317
Q

burrow their hairlike anterior ends into the intestinal mucosa
do not cause significant anemia

A

trichuris trichuria

318
Q

spectrum of disease caused by trichuris trichuria

A

diarrhea

rectal prolapse- inc peristalsis to expel hookworms

319
Q

seatworm

A

Pinworm, enterobius vermicularis

320
Q

enterobius vermicularis

life cycle is confined to

A

humans

321
Q

most common soil transmitted helminth in developed countries

A

enterobius vermicularis

322
Q

infective stage of enterobius vermicularis

A

embryonated eggs

323
Q

diagnostic stage of enterobius vermicularis

A

eggs on perianal folds

324
Q

enterobius vermicularis dx technique

A

Graham scotch tape technique - D shaped eggs

eggs rarely found in stools

325
Q

D shaped eggs

A

Enterobius vermicularis

326
Q

perianal pruritus

A

enterobius vermicularis

327
Q

pathogenesis of enterobius vermicularis

A

female releases thousands of fertilized eggs on perianal skin-> eggs develop into larvae -> perianal pruritus-> autoinfection

328
Q

spectrm of enterobiasis

A

pruritus ani
eosinophilic enterocolitis
vulvovaginitis
appendicitis (oxyuriasis)

329
Q

tx enterobius vermicularis

A

pyrantel pamoate

330
Q

soil transmitted heminth

facultative parasites

A

Strongyloides stercolaris

331
Q

transmission Strongyloides stercoralis

A

larvae penetrate skin

332
Q

infective stage Strongyloides stercoralis

A

filariform larvae

333
Q

diagnostic stage transmission Strongyloides stercoralis

A

rhabditiform larvae

334
Q

pathogenesis of Strongyloides stercoralis

A

larvae penetrate intestinal wall directly -> lungs (autoinfection)

hyperinfection in immunocompromised patients

335
Q

acute disease

Strongyloides stercoralis

A

ground itch at site of entry
mild watery diarrhea
eosinophilic pneumonia

336
Q

Strongyloides stercoralis

chronic disease

A

serpiginous track (larva currens)
duodenitis
paradoxicavl asthma
hyperinfection syndrome

337
Q

tx for Strongyloides stercoralis

A

ivermectin

338
Q

intestinal nematode

only nematode whose life cycle involves a migratory bird

A

Capillaria philippinensis

339
Q

transmission of Capillaria philippinensis

A

undercooked fish

340
Q

Capillaria philippinensis

infective stage

A

infective larvae

341
Q

Capillaria philippinensis

diagnostic stage

A

unembryonated egg

342
Q

diagnosis of capillaria philippinensis

A

direct fecal smear

kato-katz smear - peanut-shaped eggs with flattened bipolar plugs

343
Q

kato-katz smear - peanut-shaped eggs with flattened bipolar plugs

A

capillaria philippinensis

344
Q

intestinal nematode

only nematode whose life cycle involves a migratory bird

A

capillaria philippinensis

345
Q

Pathogenesis of capillaria philippinensis

A

embryonated eggs can cause autoinfection and reinfection
leads to ulcerative and compressive degeneration of enterocytes
resulting in severe malabsorption

346
Q

acute disease of capillaria philippinensis presents with

A

borborygmus
fever
abominal pain
eosinophilia

347
Q

chronic disease of capillaria philippinensis presents with

A 
chronic watery diarrhea
edema
wasting 
protein losing enteropathy
hypogammaglobulinemia
348
Q

tx of capillaria philippinensis

A

albendazole

349
Q

blood and tissue nematode

most debilitating nematode infection

A

Wuchereria bancrofti

Brugia malayi

350
Q

farmer from abaca plantation

most -> adenolymhangitis, fever

A

Wuchereria and brugia

351
Q

smoothly curved nematode

absent terminal nuclei

A

Wuchereria

352
Q

kinky shaped blood and tissue nematode

present terminal nuclei

A

Brugia

353
Q

which is more widespread

Wuchereria vs Brugia

A

Wuchereria

Brugia- South East Asia

354
Q

mosquito vectors of Wuchereria

A

Culex, Aedes, Anopheles

355
Q

preference organ affected by wuchereria

A

scrotal lymphatics

356
Q

preference organ affected by brugia

A

limb lymphatics

357
Q

mosquito vectors of brugia

A

mansonia

358
Q

more severe

a. wuchereria
b. brugia

A

a. wuchereria

359
Q

transmission of Wuchereria and brugia

A

mosquito bite

360
Q

infective stage of Wuchereria and brugia

A

3rd stage larvae

361
Q

diagnostic stage of Wuchereria and brugia

A

microfilariae

362
Q

diagnosis of Wuchereria and brugia

A

thick blood smear- curved or kinky microfilariae

363
Q

Specimen collected for wuchereria and brugia best done between

A

8 pm and 4 am (nocturnal periodicity)

364
Q

test used in diagnosis of lymphatic filariasis in cases it is not possible to obtain night blood specimens

A

DEC provocation test

365
Q

how to do DEC provocation test

A

50-100 mg DEC given to a patient
blood sample is taken 30-45 minutes after
to find presence of microfilariae
DEC -flushes out microfilariae into peripheral circulation

366
Q

Which form of Wuchereria and brugia cause inflammation that causes lymphedema

A

adult worms

microfilariae do not cause symptoms

367
Q

acute disease of wuchereria and brugia presents with

A

acute adenolymphangitis
filarial fever
tropical pulmonary edema - small epihtelioid granulomas (Meyes-Kouvenaar bodies)
expariate syndrome

368
Q

small epithelioid granulomas

A

Meyers- Kouvenaar bodies

369
Q

Meyers- Kouvenaar bodies is seen in

A

acute infection of wuchereria and brugia

370
Q

chronic disease of wuchereria and brugia presents with

A

hydrocele
elphantiasis
milky urine (chyluria)

371
Q

a new filarialsyndrome has been descibed as clinical and immunologic hyper-responsiveness found in expatriate visitors to regions endemic for loiasis

A

expatriate syndrome

372
Q

Bancroftian filariasis is found in this regions

A

Sorsogon, Samar, Leyte, Palawan, Camarines, Albay, Mindoro, Marinduque, Romblon, all of Mindanao

373
Q

Malayan Filariasis is found in

A

Eastern Samar, Agusan del sur, Palawan, Sulu

374
Q

Treatment for filariasis

A

Diethylcarbamazine

375
Q

trichinella spiralis

a. tissue nematode
b. blood nematode
c. both

A

a. tissue nematode

376
Q

intermediate host of trichinella spiralis is

A

pigs

377
Q

transmission of trichinella spiralis is

A

undercooked pork

378
Q

infective stage of trichinella spiralis is

A

encysted larvae

379
Q

diagnostic stage of trichinella spiralis is

A

encysted larvae

380
Q

diagnosis of trichinella spiralis

A

muscle biopsy - larvae w/in striated muscle
elevated CPKs (creatinine phosphokinase)
xenodiagnosis

381
Q

pathogenesis of trichinella spiralis

A

intestinal stage - liberated from pork by gastric juices
muscle stage- disseminated hematogenously into striated skeletal muscle ; encysted within a host-derived cell (nurse cell)

382
Q

tx for trichinella spiralis

A

thiabendazole

383
Q

mild disease of trichinella spiralis

will present with

A 
fever
muscle pain
periorbital edema
eosinophilia
hemorrhagic phenomena (subconjunctival, splinter)
384
Q

severe disease of trichinella spiralis

A

myocarditis, encepalitis, pneumonia, respiratory myositis

385
Q

Treatment for Trichinella spiralis

A

thiabendazole

386
Q

Onchocerca volvulus is transmitted by

A

female blackfly (Simulium)

387
Q

clinical findings of Onchocerca volvulus

A

dermal nodules
hanging groin
lizard skin
river blindness

388
Q

A 30 year old FIlipino male working in Sudan is being treated for Onchocerca volvulus infection. He then develops fever, headache, dizziness, rashes, pruritus, pain in joints, muscles and lymph glands
The physician suspects that he had Mazzotti reaction. Which is due to the following

A

Inflammatory reaction to lysis of the worms

389
Q

How is paragonimiasis transmitted

A

ingestion of raw crab meat

390
Q

transmissio of S. japonicum

A

penetrate skin

391
Q

S. japonicum transmission

A

penetrate skin

392
Q

P. westermani

transmission

A

ingested with raw crab

393
Q

transmission

C. sinensis

A

ingested with raw fish

394
Q

site affected by S. japonicum

A

liver

395
Q

sites affected by P. westermani

A

lung

396
Q

sites affected by C. sinensis

A

liver

397
Q

intermediate hosts of S. japonicum

A

Snail

398
Q

intermediate hosts of P. westermani

A

snail and crab

399
Q

intermediate hosts of C. sinensis

A

snail and fish

400
Q

treatment of S. japonicum

A

praziquantel

401
Q

Treatment of P. westermani

A

Praziquantel

402
Q

Treatment of C. sinensis

A

praziquantel

403
Q

A 50 year old seaport carrier complains of cough for more than 1 month, with hemoptysis. TB work up was negative. Further history revealed he is fond of eating pickled crab (burong talangka) when binge-drinking in his town.
A repeat CXR revealed a ring-shadowed opacity and sputum examination was positive for eggs.
Which is the most appropriate treatment

A

praziquantel

404
Q

Schistosoma japonicum oriental blood fluke reside in these areas

A

mesenteric and portal veins

405
Q

intermediate host of S. japonicum

A

snail (Oncomelania hupensis quadrasi)

406
Q

transmission of S. japonicum

A

cercariae penetrate skin

407
Q

infective stage of S. japonicum

A

cercariae

408
Q

diagnostic stage of S. japonicum

A

eggs in feces

409
Q

Diagnosis of S. japonicum

A

Kato-katz technique

Circumoval precipitin test - ovoid egg with small hook

410
Q

pathogenesis of S. japonicum

A

presence of eggs cause granuloma formation

-> liver granuloma -> presinusoidal obstruction, hepatomegaly, portal hypertension

411
Q

how S. japonicum evade immune system

A

by coating themselves with host antigens

412
Q

acute disease of S. japonicum presents as

A

itching and dermatitis (swimmer’s itch)

Katayama fever - systemic hypersensitivity, resembling serum sickness

413
Q

chronic disease of s. japonicum presents as

A

chronic liver disease, portal hypertension

colonic, pulmonary, cerebral

414
Q

lung fluke

hermaphrodite

A

paragonimus westermani

415
Q

intermediate hosts of P. westermani

A 
snail (Antemelania asperata)
mountain crab (Sundathelphusa philippina)
416
Q

infective stage of paragonimus westermani

A

metacercariae

417
Q

diagnostic stage of unembryonated egg

A

P. westermani

418
Q

diagnosis of P. westermani

A

3% NaOH preparation

419
Q

a fluke that develops a fibrous wall that provokes a granulomatous reaction
secondary bacterial infection frequently occurs

A

P. westermani

420
Q

chronic cough with bloody sputum
chest xray : ring-shadowed opacity
closely resemble TB

A

Paragonimiasis

421
Q

Asian liver flukes

A

Clonorchis sinensis

Opistorchis viverrini

422
Q

intermediate hosts of clonorchis sinensis

A

snail (Parafossarulus)

Fish (Cyprinidae)

423
Q

Clonorchis sinensis

transmission

A

undercooked/ raw fish

424
Q

infected stage of clonorchis sinensis

A

metacercariae

425
Q

diagnostic stage of C. sinensis

A

embryonated egg

426
Q

Diagnosis of Clonorchis sinensis

A

direct fecal smear

Potassium permanganate stain - ovoid with melon-like ridges and abopercular protuberance

427
Q

inflammatory response to this fluke can caus hyperplasia and fibrosis of biliary tract

A

C. sinensi

428
Q

Acute disease of C. sinensis presents with

A

fever
eosinophilia
LAD
tender hepatomegaly

429
Q

Chronic disease of C. sinensis

A

hepatobiliary disease
pancreatitis
cholangiocarcinoma
neurocirculatory dystonia

430
Q

tx, c. sinensis

A

praziquantel

431
Q

enumerate cestodes

A

T. solium
T. saginata
D. latum
E. granulosus

432
Q

tranmission of T. solium

A

eggs/ larvae in undercooked pork

433
Q

tranmission of T. saginata

A

larvae in undercooked beef

434
Q

tranmission of D. latum

A

larvae in undercooked fish

435
Q

tranmission of E. granulosus

A

eggs in food contaminated with dog feces (sarap naman nito)

436
Q

intermediate host of T. solium

A

pigs

437
Q

intermediate host of T. saginata

A

cattle

438
Q

intermediate host of D. latum

A

fish

439
Q

intermediate host of E. granulosus

A

sheep

440
Q

site affected by T. solium

A

intestine

441
Q

site affected by T. saginata

A

intestine

442
Q

site affected by D. latum

A

intestine

443
Q

site affected by E. granulosus

A

Liver

444
Q

tx for T. solium

A

praziquantel

445
Q

tx for T. saginata

A

praziquantel

446
Q

tx for D. latum

A

praziquantel

447
Q

tx for E. granulosus

A

albendazole

448
Q

Taenia spp differentiated based on

A 
scolex
gravid proglottids (GP)
449
Q

a knob-like protrusion at the extreme anterior end of the tapeworm, an extension of the tegument

A

rostellum

450
Q

has 4 suckes, rostellum, and 5-10 primary UB in GP

A

T. solium

451
Q

has 4 suckes, no rostellum, and 15-25 primary UB in GP

A

T. saginata

452
Q

transmission of Taenia spp.

A

undercooked pork/ meat

453
Q

infective stage of taenia

A

cysticerci (both)

eggs (T. solium)

454
Q

diagnostic stage of Taenia spp.

A

gravid proglottids

455
Q

signs and symptoms of taenia saginata

A

abdominal pain
weight loss
pruritus ani
intestinal obstruction

456
Q

taenia solium signs and symptoms

A

mild intestinal symptoms
small infective eggs cross the BBB -> seizures (neurocysticercosis)
worms in vitreous humour

457
Q

small infective eggs of Taenia solium cross the BBB causing seizures

A

neurocysticercosis

458
Q

Living cysticerci will not cause inflammation

T/F

A

T

459
Q

cestodes with operculated eggs

2 elongated sucking grooves for attachment

A

diphyllobothrium latum

460
Q

intermediate hosts of diphyllobothrium latum

A

fish

copepods

461
Q

transmission of diphyllobothrium latum

A

undercooked fish

462
Q

diphyllobothrium latum

infective stage

A

plerocercoid larvae

463
Q

diagnostic stage of diphyllobothrium latum

A

unembryonated egg

464
Q

D. latum

spectrum of disease

A

abdominal pain
diarrhea
megaloblastic anemia - Vit B 12 deficiency

465
Q

Composed of a scolex and 3 proglottids

A

Echinococcus granulosus

466
Q

one of the smalles tapeworms

A

Echinococcus granulosus

467
Q

intermediate hosts of Echinococcus granulosus

A

sheep / man

468
Q

definitive host of Echinococcus granulosus

A

dog

469
Q

pathogenesis of E. granulosus

A

cysts act as space occupying lesions

if cyst ruptures -> life-threatening anaphylaxis can occur

470
Q

spectrum of E. granulosus

A

hydatid cysts in liver
pulmonary cysts
cerebral cysts

471
Q

tx of E. granulosus

A

surgical resection
albendazole
PAIR procedure - puncture, aspiration, injection, respiration

472
Q

A 23 year old homeless man with a history of IVDA is brought to the ER because of a sudden onset of high -grade fever, dyspnea and malaise

One hour later, he develops progressive respiratory distress and supplemental oxygen is provided
His CD4 count is 178/ microL
Examination of BAL showed predominant organism when staiend with methenamine
Which is the most likely etiology

A

Pneumocystis

473
Q

hat shaped cysts

A

pneumocystitis

474
Q

2 basic forms of fungi

A

yeast

molds

475
Q

single fungal cells, budding

A

yeast

476
Q

hyphae, and mycelia, mitosis

A

molds

477
Q

transverse walls fungi

A

septate hyphae

478
Q

multinucleated hyphae

A

nonseptate hyphae

479
Q

thermally dimorphic fungi are

A

molds on artificial culture medium at room temp

yeast in infected tissue

480
Q

2 types of host response vs fungi

A

granulomatous or

pyogenic response

481
Q

reduced cell mediated immunity vs fungi may cause

A

disseminate disease

482
Q

liver necrosis due to these 2 toxins produced by amanita mushrooms

A

amanitin

phylloidin

483
Q

aspergillus toxin

A

aflatoxin

484
Q

amanitin and phylloidin cause

A

liver necrosis

485
Q

aflatoxin cause

A

liver cancer

486
Q

aflatoxin B1 cause this muratio

A

G:C-> T:A in codon 249 of p53

487
Q

inhalation of spores causes allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (IgE-mediated)
(IgE mediated)

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

488
Q

lab technique to dissolve human cells allowing visualization of fungi

A

microscopy of KOH preparation

489
Q

this medium has low pH inhibits growth of bacteria

A

sabouraud agar

490
Q

to detect early infection with fungi

A

DNA probes

491
Q

yeasts - single or multiple buds

A 
blastomycosis
histoplasmosis
paracoccidioidomycosis 
penicilliosis 
sporotrichosis
492
Q

yeasts with capsules

A

cyrtococcosis

493
Q

Hyphae- septate

A

Hylohypomycosis (Aspergillus, Fusarium, Geotrichum, Trichosporon)

494
Q

hyphae-septate in skin or nail specimens

A

dermatophytosis

495
Q

Hyphae - non septate

A

mucormycosis - species of Rhizopus, Lichtheimia, Cunninghamella

496
Q

Hyphae septate

brownish cell wallls

A

Phaohyphomycosis - bipolaris, cladosporium, curvularia,exserohilum

497
Q

yeasts and pseudohyophae

A

candidiasis

498
Q

yeasts and hyphae in skin scrapings

A

pityriasis versicolor

499
Q

spherules

A

coccidiomycoses

500
Q

Sclerotic cells- brownish cell walls

A

chromoblastomycosis

501
Q

sulfur granules

A

mycetoma

502
Q

conidia in pulmonary artery

A

hyalohyphomycosis - species of aspergillus and Fusarium

503
Q

Cysts (asci) in pulmonary segments

A

Pneumocystitis

504
Q

stain binds to complex carbohydrate cell wall of fungi and lights up a bright blue white color

A

calcofluor white

505
Q

Which group of antifungal agents pertain to a novel highly selective class of semiynthetic peptides that inhibit important constituents of the fungal cell wall

A

echinocandins

506
Q

ring worms

A

dermatophytoses

507
Q

fungal pathogen that can infecty only superficial keratinized structures

A

dermatophytoses

508
Q

3 important dermatophytes

A

microsporum canis
trichophyton tonsurans
epidermophyton floccosum

509
Q

is an inflammatory reaction to dermatophyosis at a cutaneous site distant from the primary infection

A

dermatophytid reactions

510
Q

spectrum of dermatophytoses

A 
Tinea pedis
Tinea unguium 
Tinea corporis 
Tinea cruris - jock itch
Tinea manum 
Tinea capitis 
Tinea barbae
511
Q

dermatophytoses on feet

A

Tinea pedis

512
Q

dermatophytoses on nails

A

Tinea unguium

513
Q

dermatophytoses on body

A

Tinea corporis

514
Q

dermatophytoses on groin and inner thighs

A

Tinea cruris

515
Q

dermatophytoses on hand

A

Tinea manum

516
Q

dermatophytoses on scalp

A

Tinea capitis

517
Q

dermatophytoses on beard

A

Tinea barbae

518
Q

diagnosis of dermatophytoses

A

10% KOH - septate hyphae
sabouraud agar - hyphae and conidia
green fluorescence on Wood lamp

519
Q

tx for dermatophytoses

A

local angtifungal creams

keep skin dry

520
Q

A 10/M with 2 weeks pruritic scalp with patchy hair loss.
PE: three scaly and circular patches about 3 cm in diameter;
alopecia
black dots in the areas of hair loss
cervical lymphadenopathy

A

Trichophyton tonsurans

521
Q

disease caused by superficial fungal infection of the skin of scalp, eyebrows, and eyelashes

A

tinea capitis

Microbiology (7 decks)

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