Topic 8 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What are stem cells?

A

Unspecialised cells capable of self renewal and can differentiate into other types of cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How a stem cell becomes specialised

A

Stimulus causes selective activation of genes
mRNA transcribed of active genes- translated into polypeptide
Proteins produce modify the cell permanently , determining the cells function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Totipotent

A

Occur in early mammalian embryos

Able to differentiate into EVERY type of cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pluripotent cells

A

Found in embryos

Able to differentiate into MOST cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Multipotent

A

Found in mature mammals eg bone marrow

Able to differentiate into a select few types of cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Unipotent

A

Found in mature mammals
Can differentiate into ONE type of cell
Eg cardiomyocytes cardiac muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

IPS

A

Adult somatic cells
Specific protein transcriptional factors associated with pluripotency introduced
Causing the cell to express genes associated with pluripotency
Cells are cultured ( increase in number)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Epigenetics

A

Heritable changes in gene function without changes to the base sequence of DNA
Caused by environmental factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Methylation

A

The addition of methyl groups to the cytosine DNA bases
Increases how tightly coiled the DNA-Histone complexes are
Prevents the binding of transcription factors
Inhibits transcription of the gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Deacetlylation

A

Removal of acetyl groups from histones
Increases the positive charge of histones
Increases the attraction of histones to DNA
Increases how tightly coiled the DNA-histones complexes are
Prevents binding of transcriptional factors
Inhibits transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Treatment of cancer and epigentics

A

TREATMENT
Increased acetlyation or reduced methylation that increase expression of of tumour suppressor genes
Increased methylation or deacetlyation that reduce expression of oncogenes
DIAGNOSIS
Abnormal levels of acetly methyl groups be detected as sign of cancer
Possible role in treatment drugs to prevent/ encourage methylation acetlyation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is recombinant DNA technology?

A

The transfer of DNA fragments from one organism/species to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 3 methods of isolating DNA fragments

A

Reverse transcriptase
Restriction endonuclease
Gene machine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is restriction endonuclease used to produce DNA fragments?

A

Restriction endonuclease with a specific and complimentary active site to the recognition site of the target gene is introduced to an organism DNA
Bind to DNA at recognition site and cut it out producing staggered cuts - sticky ends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How is reverse transcriptase used to produce DNA fragments?

A

mRNA isolated from cell that produces large amounts of protein encoded for by desired gene
mRNA, free DNA nucleotides and reverse transcriptase
Produce single stand of complimentary DNA- cDNA
DNA polymerase added, produce complimentary secondary strand of DNA using cDNA as template

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Benefits of using mRNA to produce DNA fragments rather than DNA

A

mRNA- no introns, some organisms such as bacteria cannot splice introns out
More mRNA than DNA, so more readily available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Vivo method of amplifying DNA fragments

A

Promotor and terminators added
Vector DNA cut with same restriction endonuclease as fragment DNA
Complimentary sticky ends allows complimentary base pairing
DNA ligase added to join adjacent nucleotides up phosphodiester bonds at sticky ends

Ice cold calcium chloride solution, vectors added, heat shock
Increase permeability of host cell’s membrane
Uptake vector
Said to be transformed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the purpose of the addition of promotor and terminator regions?

A

Tell RNA when to stop/ start transcription of the gene

19
Q

Use of marker genes

A

Not all host cells will uptake vector
Not all vectors will uptake target gene
Marker genes such as those that code for fluorescence or antibiotic resistance allow us to identify transformed cells and the cells which have the desired gene

20
Q

Why are DNA fragments able to be translated in host cells?

A

Genetic code is universal- same DNA triplets code for the same amino acids in all organisms
Universal mechanisms of translation and transcription

21
Q

What are VNTRs? Where are they found?

A

Variable tangent repeats

In introns between genes

22
Q

Describe the process of genetic fingerprinting step 1

A
Small sample of DNA
Amplified by PCR
Digested by restriction endonucleases to cut up into smaller fragments 
Gel electrophoresis 
Sample added to well in agar jelly 
Covered with buffer solution
23
Q

Genetic fingerprinting step 2

A

Gel electrophoresis
Sample added to well in agar jelly
Covered with buffer solution
Electrical voltage applied
DNA, negatively charged, moves towards positive end
Agar creates resistance
Smaller pieces have less resistance, able to travel futher more quickly
Separates out different lengths of fragments (VNTR)

24
Q

Genetic fingerprinting step 3

A

Alkaline solution added to make DNA single stranded
Labelled DNA probes added
DNA combined with probes
Washed to get rid of any excess

25
Q

Genetic fingerprinting stage 4

A

Transformed onto nylon sheet
X-ray or UV dependant on type of probe used
Analysis
Position of DNA bands are compared
More Similarities the more closely related

26
Q

Uses of genetic fingerprinting

A

Forensic science
Determine evolutionary relationships, how closely related?
Plant breeding- make sure that two plants are not too closely related
Medical diagnosis

27
Q

PCR stage 1

A

Heat DNA to 95

Heat breaks hydrogen bonds between complementary bases, separating the two strands

28
Q

PCR stage 2

A

Add primers
Add free DNA nucleotides
Cool to 55
allows primers to anneal to complimentary regions on DNA fragment which mark the start and end of a region which you wish to replicate

29
Q

Need to have 2 different primers in PCR

A

one for each different strand ( top and bottom)
to mark beginning and / or ends of the part of DNA needed / for attachment of enzymes
as DNA runs anti-parallel but DNA polymerase can only function in one direction

30
Q

PCR STAGE 3

A

Heat to 72, optimum temp for DNA ploymerase

Add DNA polymerase, which will join adjacent nucleotides together forming phosphodiester bonds

31
Q

PCR last stage

A

repeat process many times

amount of DNA doubles in each cycle

32
Q

What is the effect of RNA-i ?

A

RNA interference
silences a gene
prevents TRANSLATION of mRNA- polypeptide

33
Q

Two types of RNA-i

A

si-RNA
double stranded

mi-RNA
single stranded hair-pin loop

34
Q

How does RNA-i work?

A

single strand of is-RNA/ mi-RNA
incorporated into a RISC

binds to mRNA @ specific base sequence complimentary to its own

hydrolyses the mRNA, cutting it into fragments
preventing full transition of the mRNA- polypeptides amino acid sequence

35
Q

Whole process of genetic fingerprinting

A

1 DNA extracted
2 DNA cut / hydrolysed into segments using restriction endonucleases;
3 must leave minisatellites / required core sequences intact;
4 DNA fragments separated using electrophoresis;
5 detail of process e.g. mixture put into wells on gel and electric
current passed through;
6 immerse gel in alkaline solution / two strands of DNA separated;
7 Southern blotting / cover with nylon / absorbent paper (to absorb DNA);
8 DNA fixed to nylon / membrane using uv light
9 radioactive marker / probe added (which is picked up by required
fragments) / complementary to minisatellites;
10 (areas with probe) identified using X-ray film / autoradiograph

36
Q

What is the advantage of the enzyme used in the polymerase chain reaction being thermostable?

A

So do not denature

withstand range of temp from high of 95 and low of 55

37
Q

What is a vector?

A

a carrier of DNA to another cell/ organism

38
Q

Characteristics of a benign tumour

A

slow growing

well defined boards, cell adhesion sticks cells together

regular nuclei

easier to treat, surely usually successful

cells are well differentiated, retaining normal function

39
Q

Characteristics of malignant tumours

A

fast growing

undefined boarders, able to metastasise- grow into other surrounding tissues

irregular darker nuclei

cells are poorly differentiated/ unspecialised

hard to treat- often require invasive methods like radiotherapy

40
Q

why is it easier to determine the genome/ proteome of simple organisms?

A

simple= prokaryotic
therefore do not have introns and regulatory regions of DNA that do not code for amino acids

therefore less bases= easier to sequence genome
and only coding regions so all determine amino acids sequences of proteins= proteome

41
Q

Usefulness of determining a simple organisms proteome

A

able to identify the amino acid sequences of antigens
produce antigens for use in vaccines
immunity against t pathogens

42
Q

Uses of stem cells in medicine

A

replace cells damaged by illness or injury

creation of insulin

creation of new blood cells from bone marrow

drugs testing

43
Q

Evaluating the use of stem cells to treat humans

A

embryos:
tiny balls of cells incapable of feeling pain
would otherwise be destroyed if not used for stem cells
potential for life- should have human rights

IPS
less chance of rejection- same antigens on cell surface of patient
cannot yet reliably reprogram cells- could lead to cancer
no destruction of potential life
human can give consent