Topic 6- Glossary Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Fingerprints

A

The pattern of skin folding on the fingers of humans (and some other animals) – each person’s pattern is unique.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

DNA fingerprinting or DNA profiling

A

A technique to identify individuals; relies on differences in the number of times a mini- or micro- satellite sequence is repeated on each chromosome. At least 10 or more microsatellite sequences are used to produce a unique profile for each individual with the exception of identical twins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Dental records

A

*Records of these can be used to identify bodies that are damaged, as they are very slow to decay, and more resistant to burning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Introns

A

Non-coding bocks of DNA, or intragenic regions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Exons

A

Coding regions of DNA, or expressed regions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Short tandem repeats

A

Another term for satellites- DNA sequences within introns repeated many times. Also known as mini or micro-satellites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Restriction enzyme

Or restriction endonuclease

A

An enzyme produced by bacteria that can cut DNA molecules at specific sites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Recognition site

A

The sequence of nucleotides in DNA to which a restriction enzyme binds and then cuts the DNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Agarose gel electrophoresis

A

Use of an agarose gel matrix placed in salt buffer in which molecules of DNA can be separated on the basis of size, when a current is passed through the gel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Southern blotting

A

The process by which DNA fragments are transferred from the agarose gel to a nylon or nitrocellulose membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Nylon or nitrocellulose membrane

A

A charged membrane that provides a solid support to which DNA separated by gel electrophoresis can be transferred. Used to allow subsequent manipulations of the DNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Agarose

A

A substance that when heated with buffer and cooled forms a gel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Hybridisation

A

The process where two complementary DNA strands will anneal (bond together) by hydrogen bonding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

X-ray film

A

Light or radioactive sensitive film.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Labelled DNA probe/gene probe

A

A short single stranded length of DNA, that is complementary to a target gene sequence that has attached to it a fluorescent or radioactive marker.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Polymerase chain reaction

A

A technique that allows the automated replication of a particular stretch of DNA using a thermostable DNA polymerase. Involves several rounds of denaturation, annealing of primers to the template strand, and polymerase extension from the primers. It will result on many identical copies of the target sequence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

DNA polymerase

A

An enzyme which catalyses the joining together of individual nucleotides to form a molecule of DNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Primers

A

Short single stranded sections of DNA used in the above procedure, which are complementary to the sequence either side of the target sequence. They are marked with a fluorescent tag.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Amelogenin (amg) gene

A

Gene found on the X and Y chromosome, which codes for a protein found in tooth enamel. The alleles on the X and Y chromosome are different lengths and provides a method for determining gender on a DNA profile. PCR of this gene will produce 1 band on a gel if female and 2 bands if male.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Core temperature

A

Internal body temperature – 36.2 - 37.6C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Sigmoid curve

A

Cooling of the body follows a __________ __________

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Rigor mortis

A

The stiffening of muscles after death due to lack of ATP in muscle cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ATP

A

Adenosine triphosphate. The common “energy currency” of all cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Lactic acid

A

Chemical formed by anaerobic respiration in animal cells, which causes the pH to drop, inhibiting further enzyme reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Decomposition

A

Also known as putrefaction; the break-down of body tissue to simpler molecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Autolysis

A

Early stage of decomposition involving the body’s own enzymes from the digestive tract and lysosomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Bacteria

A

Enzymes will also be released from these organisms, resulting in further decomposition and gas formation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Greenish decolourisation

A

One of the first signs of decomposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Hydrogen sulphide, methane, carbon dioxide ammonia and hydrogen

A

Bloating of the body due to these gases building up in the gut and tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

36-72 hours after death

A

Time taken for discolouration of abdominal wall to occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

1 week, 3 days if temperature 26-30 C

after death

A

Time taken for gas formation to occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Forensic entomology

A

The application of knowledge about insect lifecycles to estimate time of death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Larva

A

The pre-adult form of fly that hatches from an egg, also called a maggot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Instar

A

An immature stage of an insect between successive molts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Pupa

A

Stage between larva and adult of some insects during which metamorphosis occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Calliphora vicina,

A

Most common blue bottle (or blowfly) found on bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Cocaine

A

An example of a drug that can affect the rate of maggot development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Succession

A

In entomology, the gradual sequential series of changes in species of insect found in a decomposing body. Note, unlike with the comparable situation with plants, most of the early insects will still remain on the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Decomposers

A

The bacteria and fungi essential in sustaining the carbon cycle are also known as these.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Post mortem

A

The examination of a dead body to ascertain cause of death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Tuberculosis

A

A contagious disease principally affecting the lungs, caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

A

A human retrovirus which that infects T helper cells and so disables the immune system, leading to AIDS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

AIDS

A

The result of infection by HIV, where the immuno-compromised person is susceptible to opportunistic infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Peptidoglycan

A

A polysaccharide, cross-linked by peptide chains, and the major constituent of the bacterial cell wall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Gram positive bacteria

A

These bacteria have walls that are thickened with additional polysaccharides and proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Gram negative bacteria

A

These bacteria have thinner walls, but also have a surface layer of lipids for protection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Pilus (plural pili)

A

Protein tubes that allow bacterial attachment to surfaces and cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Mesosome

A

Infolding of the bacterial cell surface membrane and the site of respiration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Capsule

A

Mucus layer surrounding the cell wall of the bacteria providing protection and preventing dehydration; it also allows bacteria to form colonies. Only present in some bacteria, e.g. TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Flagellum

A

Used for cell movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Plasmid

A

Small circles of DNA found in some but not all bacteria, in addition to the main loop of genomic DNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Glycoprotein

A

Compound of protein and polysaccharide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Host

A

Organism supporting a parasite (e.g. a virus), in or on its body to its own detriment. (Can also be used to describe an organism supporting a commensal organism.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Lysis

A

Destruction of cells through damage of the plasma membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

icosahedral

A

Viruses come in a wide variety of shapes and sizes; a spherical virus is also described as _____________

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Tobacco mosaic virus

A

First virus discovered. A rod shaped plant virus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Bacteriophage

A

A virus that infects bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Pathogen

A

A disease causing parasite, usually a microorganism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Droplet infection

A

Infection by inhalation of droplets of mucous and saliva containing the infectious organism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Body fluids

A

HIV is carried in some of these, e.g. blood, vaginal secretions, and semen, (but NOT saliva or urine).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Sexually transmitted infection

A

Any diseases transmitted through (unprotected) sexual contact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Maternal transmission

A

Transfer of HIV from mother to unborn child or infant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Immune response

A

Mechanisms mounted by the immune system to attempt to destroy an invading pathogen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Antigen

A

Any large molecule that triggers an immune response by lymphocytes. These are usually proteins, but may be other types of molecule such as polysaccharides, or lipids.
Antibodies secreted by lymphocytes will bind (specifically) to these molecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Lysozyme

A

Enzyme found in tears, saliva and nasal secretions, that kills bacteria by breaking down their cell walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Inflammation

A

A non-specific response to infection which results in redness, oedema, pain and an increase in temperature. Due to the release of histamine from damaged white blood cells and mast cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Mast cells

A

Cells found in connective tissue below the skin and around blood vessels, which release histamine (along with damaged white blood cells) in response to cell damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Histamine

A

A chemical released by white blood cells and damaged mast cells. Responsible for the increase in capillary permeability resulting in oedema, and dilation of capillaries resulting in reddening of the area from increased blood flow.

69
Q

Oedema

A

Swelling of an area due to excess tissue fluid accumulation

70
Q

Phagocytes

A

A white blood cell that engulfs microorganisms and other foreign matter by endocytosis

71
Q

Neutrophils

A

Majority of white blood cells that destroy bacteria. Leave the blood capillaries by squeezing between the cells of capillary walls. Short lived.

72
Q

Macrophages

A

A type of white blood cell that develops from monocytes that also leaves the blood capillaries by squeezing between the cells of capillary walls to engulf and destroy bacteria, foreign matter and cell debris.

73
Q

Phagocytosis

A

A form of endocytosis, where the white blood cells engulf and then digest the bacteria.

74
Q

Platelets

A

Fragments of cells important in the blood clotting process

75
Q

Pus

A

Thick fluid that forms in an infected area consisting of dead cells, mostly neutrophils.

76
Q

Lymph nodes

A

Specialised lymphoid tissue regions that act as filters for microorganisms and contain lymphocytes and macrophages.

77
Q

Lymph

A

A clear watery fluid that contains lymphocytes. There is a series of vessels that run throughout the body, collecting excess tissue fluid and returning it to the bloodstream

78
Q

Lymphocytes

A

White blood cells that help to defend the body against specific diseases. Two types: T and B cells.

79
Q

Septic shock

A

Widespread infection or “blood poisoning”

80
Q

Interferon

A

Non-specific defence chemical produced by virus infected cells, it diffuses to the surrounding cells where it can prevent viruses from multiplying, by inhibiting viral protein synthesis.

81
Q

B cells

A

Lymphocytes that are produced in the bone marrow, which develop into a plasma cell and secretes antibodies in response to antigens.

82
Q

T cells

A

Lymphocyte, produced in the bone marrow and matured in the thymus gland. Two type: T helper and T killer cells.

83
Q

Specific immune response

A

Response by lymphocytes to specific disease microbes

84
Q

Immunoglobins or antibodies

A

A class of proteins secreted by B cells, that can bind antigens. They consist of four polypetide chains held together by disulphide bonds forming a characteristic Y shape.

85
Q

Antigen binding site

A

The variable part of the antibody that can bind specifically to on type of antigen as the shape of the antibody and antigen are complementary.

86
Q

Constant region

A

The region of an antibody that shows little variation between different types of antibodies.

87
Q

Clonal selection

A

The process where B- cells (and T cells) divide to produce two clones of the original cell that has bound to the antigen.

88
Q

Plasma cells

A

An antibody-secreting cell that differentiated from a B effector cell.

89
Q

B memory cells

A

Long-lived B cells produced from clonal selection following antigen recognition, important in immunity.

90
Q

Primary immune response

A

The first time that B cells are selected by the antigen and plasma cells produced (10 to 17 days)

91
Q

Secondary immune response

A

The second time a person is infected, the memory cells divide to produce plasma cells within 2 to 7 days. More antibodies are produced and the response lasts longer. The person is said to be immune.

92
Q

Bone marrow

A

The bone tissue which forms the blood cells.

93
Q

Thymus gland

A

Located within the thorax. A portion of the lymphoid system in which T cells mature and differentiate after they have migrated form the bone marrow where they were produced.

94
Q

Cytokines

A

Proteins produced by activated T cells that stimulate division and differentiation of B cells.

95
Q

CD4 receptors

A

Receptor on the surface of T cells which binds to the antigen/MHC complex on the surface of antigen presenting cells. (CD = cluster of differentiation proteins). HIV has evolved to use this receptor to allow entry into the T helper cells.

96
Q

T killer cells

A

T-cells which destroy pathogen infected cells by releasing chemicals that caused pores to form in the infected cells causing lysis. They can also attack other foreign cells that enter the body.

97
Q

T helper cells

A

T-cells which produced cytokines which stimulate B-cells to become plasma cells and to enhance the activity of phagocytes, and stimulate the T killer cells to divide.

98
Q

Antigen presenting cell (APC)

A

A cell that displays an antigen on its surface in conjunction with MHCs (major histocompatibility complex).

99
Q

Lock and key mechanism

A

Mechanism proposed for binding of enzyme to substrate due to the active site of the enzyme having a complementary shape and charge to the substrate.

100
Q

Auto-immune diseases

A

Diseases caused where body tissues are targeted by inappropriate action of the immune system. Examples of such diseases include rheumatoid arthritis, multiple sclerosis and type I diabetes.

101
Q

Apoptosis

A

The process by which cells are “programmed” to die, also known as programmed cell death. This is distinct from cell death due to infection or damage.

102
Q

Primary infection

A

First phase of TB lasting for several months with possibly no symptoms.

103
Q

Obligate aerobes

A

Organisms which require oxygen to survive.

104
Q

M. tuberculosis bacteria can survive inside macrophages because they have _______________________________

A

Thick waxy cell walls

105
Q

Dormant

A

Describes the state where the M. tuberculosis remain alive but inactive (very low metabolic activity) for many years.

106
Q

M. tuberculosis can also ____________ T cells. This reduces antibody production and attack by T killer cells.

A

suppress

107
Q

Active tuberculosis

A

Second phase of TB, this occurs if the patients immune system was unable to contain the primary infection, or if an old infection breaks out if the patient becomes immuno-compromised.

108
Q

Hypothalamus

A

A part of the brain which lies below the thalamus and contains the thermoregulatory centre. It coordinates water balance, reproduction, metabolism as well as temperature.

109
Q

Homeostasis

A

Mechanisms, which maintain a relatively constant internal body environment.

110
Q

Set point

A

Also known as norm value, the condition at which homeostasis mechanisms will maintain the body.

111
Q

Denature

A

Loss of activity of an enzyme because of a change in enzyme structure due to heat, pH changes or other means.
(Term can also refer to the separation of two DNA strands when heated)

112
Q

Glandular TB

A

Main symptoms include enlarged lymph glands due to infection with TB. More common in Asian people.

113
Q

Enveloped virus

A

Lipid membrane surrounding some viruses which is derived from the host cell membrane

114
Q

gp120

A

Glycoprotein, which projects through the viral envelope, important for HIV virus binding to the host cell.

115
Q

Reverse transcriptase

A

Enzyme which uses viral RNA as a template to form a complementary strand of DNA

116
Q

Integrase

A

Enzyme which inserts viral DNA into host DNA.

117
Q

Triplet code

A

The genetic code is this type of code, whereby 3 bases code for one amino acid

118
Q

On the DNA strand a group of three bases that codes for one amino acid is known as the triplet code. The sequence of three nucleotide bases on a messenger RNA molecule that codes for a particular amino acid is known as a __________

A

codon

119
Q

mRNA

A

This molecule carries information from DNA in the nucleus to the cytoplasm for protein transcription. Genes are sections of DNA which code for particular proteins. DNA is too large to pass through the nuclear pore, so this molecule takes a copy of the genetic code into the cytoplasm, where it enables amino acids to be assembled in the correct sequence to make a protein.

120
Q

transfer RNA (tRNA)

A

A molecule of RNA which folded to form a shape resembling a t; it has an amino acid binding site at one end and a specific anticodon at the other.

121
Q

ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

A

This is a type of RNA which is found in ribosomes – a complex structure of RNA and protein.

122
Q

Transcription

A

The synthesis of RNA using one strand of DNA as the template. The mRNA molecule leaves the nucleus to be translated.

123
Q

RNA polymerase

A

Enzyme which catalyses the polymerisation of RNA nucleotides in a 5’ to 3’ direction to form RNA

124
Q

Promoter

A

Links to Topic 3 and 7. The sequence of bases just prior to the gene where RNA polymerase binds to start transcription.

125
Q

Transcription factors

A

Links to Topic 3 and 7. The additional proteins that form a complex with RNA polymerase and the promoter, without which transcription could not start.

126
Q

Transcription initiation factors

A

The complex formed when RNA polymerase and transcription factors bind to the promoter and transcription is initiated.

127
Q

Template strand

A

Antisense strand, strand of DNA used to produce mRNA

128
Q

Coding strand

A

Sense strand of DNA.

129
Q

mRNA splicing

A

The process between transcription and translation, where the non-coding introns on the mRNA strand are removed, and the coding regions rejoined, prior to translation. Different proteins can be formed from one RNA depending on how the coding sequences are rejoined

130
Q

Translation

A

A process which takes place on a ribosome, where amino acids are joined to form a polypeptide. The mRNA produced during transcription leaves the nucleus and becomes attached to the ribosome where this process takes place; tRNA molecules collect the appropriate amino acid from the cytoplasm and bring it to the ribosome where the protein is being synthesised.

131
Q

Ribosomes

A

Sometimes free in the cytoplasm, sometimes linked to endoplasmic reticulum. A small organelle made of RNA and protein found either free in the cytoplasm or attached to the membranes of the rough endoplasmic reticulum. Protein synthesis takes place on ribosomes.

132
Q

Anticodon

A

A sequence of three nucleotide bases on a transfer RNA molecule, which is complementary to the corresponding messenger RNA codon.

133
Q

Acute phase

A

Early infection with HIV. Phase of rapid replication of virus and loss of T helper cells. HIV antibodies appear in the blood after 3-12 weeks.

134
Q

Chronic phase

A

Prolonged stage of HIV infection, where the virus continues to reproduce rapidly, but the numbers are kept in check by the immune system.

135
Q

Disease phase

A

Phase associated with a high HIV viral load, a declining T helper cell count and subsequently the onset of AIDS

136
Q

Opportunistic infections

A

Organisms that less commonly cause disease in people with functional immune systems, but which can invade those who are immuno-compromised, usually when the T helper cell count drops below 200 per mm3 of blood.

137
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma

A

A tumour (obvious purple black patches) frequently found in AIDS patients, but rare in the general population.

138
Q

Physical barriers

A

Barriers to prevent pathogen entry e.g. the skin

139
Q

Chemical defenses

A

Non-specific chemicals produced by the body, which help to prevent pathogen entry.

140
Q

Skin flora

A

Microbes that live on the skin, not usually causing any disease. Act to prevent colonisation by other bacteria, as they are well adapted to the conditions on the skin and out compete other microbes.

141
Q

Mucus

A

A slimy viscous fluid secreted by specialised cells.

142
Q

Cilia

A

Hair-like projections from a cell, which beat in a co-ordinated rhythm, commonly move fluids or mucous.

143
Q

Stomach acid

A

Produced to aid digestion, but also kills bacteria that enter with food

144
Q

Passive natural immunity

A

Short term immunity produced when antibodies are passed from mother to foetus via the placenta and to her infant through her milk. Antibodies are not produced by the foetus/infant.

145
Q

Active natural immunity

A

Immunity produced by the specific immune response to an infectious organism. The infected person produces antibodies.

146
Q

Active artificial immunity

A

Immunity produced in response to vaccination. The vaccinated person produces antibodies.

147
Q

Passive artificial immunity

A

Short term immunity produced by injection of antibodies. Antibodies are not produced by the person.

148
Q

Vaccine

A

The use of a pathogen antigen to bring about an immune response. Whole, attenuated or killed, microorganisms can be used, or just a part of the pathogen. A harmless version of a bacterial toxin can also be used.

149
Q

Attenuated

A

Pathogen which has been weakened in some way so that they no longer produce disease.

150
Q

Herd immunity

A

When a significant proportion (will vary according to the disease) of the population are immunised, the rest of the population are less likely to contract the disease.

151
Q

BCG vaccine

Bacille Calmette Guerin

A

Vaccine to protect against TB; used to be given to young people between the ages of 10 to 13 years. Contains chemically attenuated bacteria. Only given now to selected people.

152
Q

Reverse transcriptase inhibitors

A

Drug which prevents the HIV viral RNA from making DNA

153
Q

Protease inhibitors

A

Drug which prevents the cutting of large proteins into small polypeptides

154
Q

Antibiotics

A

A chemical substance, produced by microorganisms, which has the capacity to inhibit growth or destroy bacteria in dilute solutions.

155
Q

Alexander Fleming

A

Research scientist who discovered Penicillin

156
Q

Penicillin

A

An antibiotic that inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis. Affects many bacteria e.g. pneumonia, scarlet fever, but not TB

157
Q

Waksman and Schatz

A

Co-discoverers of streptomycin, found by testing many soil organisms for antibacterial activity.

158
Q

Streptomycin

A

First drug found that could cure tuberculosis.

159
Q

Bactericidal

A

A substance which destroys bacteria

160
Q

Bacteriostatic

A

A substance which stops the bacteria from multiplying

161
Q

Antibiotic resistance

A

The ability of the bacteria to survive in the presence of the antibiotic, due to a mutation.

162
Q

Selection pressure

A

An environmental factor that, when present, is a survival or reproductive disadvantage to a proportion of a population.

163
Q

Evolutionary race

A

Pathogen and host will always be co-evolving in an ___________ _________: the pathogens, which are best able to grow and multiply, will be selected for, and the hosts, which are most resistant to pathogens, and therefore more likely to survive, will be selected for.

164
Q

Plasmid

A

A circular piece of DNA, distinct from the bacterial genomic DNA. Is replicated along with the chromosomal DNA.

165
Q

Conjugation

A

A process that occurs in bacteria in which DNA (usually a plasmid) is passed from one cell to another, usually through the pilus.

166
Q

Multiple resistant strains

A

Bacteria which have evolved resistance to several antibiotics

167
Q

MRSA

A

Staphylococcus aureus which is resistant to most antibiotics including methicillin.

168
Q

HCAIs

A

Healthcare associated infections