TOPIC 6 Flashcards

1
Q

-This involves the protection of documents and classified papers from loss, access by unauthorized persons, damage, theft and compromise through disclosure

A

DOCUMENT AND INFORMATION SECURITY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

-Any recorded information regardless of its physical form or characteristics, including but not limited to the following:

a. written matters whether handwritten, printed or typed;
b. all painted, drawn or engraved matters;
c. all sound and voice recordings;
d. all printed photographs and exposed or printed films, still or moving; and
e. All productions of the foregoing for whatever purpose.

A

DOCUMENT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

-It includes all information concerning document, cryptographic devices developed projects and materials following on the categories of Top Secret, Secret, Confidential and Restricted.

A

CLASSIFIED INFORMATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

-This refers to the assigning of information or material, one of the four security categories after determination has been made that the information requires the security protection as provided.

A

CLASSIFY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  • the act of removing the security classification from classified information or matter
A

DECLASSIFY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  • it refers to act of changing the assigned classification from classified information or matter
A

RECLASSIFY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  • It is the dissemination of classified information or matter to be limited strictly to those people whose duties requires knowledge or possession thereof.
A

NEED TO KNOW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  • It refers to the act of assigning the information or matter to the higher classification assigned to it. than that previously
A

UPGRADING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  • it refers to the grant of access to the classified matter only to properly cleared person when such classified information is required in the performance of their official duties
A

COMPARTMENTATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

-This takes place through the loss of security which results from unauthorized persons obtaining knowledge of classified matters.

A

COMPROMISE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

-The process of destroying a document which is no longer significant in the organization.

A

PURGING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

–classified matters that has secret information wherein it cannot be disclosed to public

A

PROTECTION OF SENSITIVE MATERIALS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

-These are information’s that in some special way relates to the status or activities of the possessor and over which the possessor asserts ownership.

A

PROPRIETARY INFORMATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

is a process or device for continuous use in the protection of the business.

A

TRADE SECRETS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

-The information must have been developed by the company and not be available to the Government or to the public without restriction from another source.

A

PROPRIETARY INFORMATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

-It consist of any formula, pattern, device or compilation of information which is used in one’s business and which gives him an opportunity to gain an advantage versus competitors who do not know or use it.

A

TRADE SECRETS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

This is a grant made by the government to an inventor, conveying or securing to him the exclusive right to make, use, or sell his invention for term of 17 years.

A

PATENT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

PATENT is a grant made by the government to an inventor, conveying or securing to him the exclusive right to make, use, or sell his invention for term of _____

A

17 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

-is a word, phrase, symbol or design, or a combination of words, phrases, symbols or designs, that identifies and distinguishes the source of the goods of one party from those of others.

A

TRADEMARKS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

-Paintings, pictures, graphics, musical compositions, sound recordings, computer programs, books, poems, blog posts, movies, architectural works, plays, and a wide variety of other works are all protected by copyright laws.

A

COPYRIGHT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  • is a type of intellectual property that safeguards original works of authorship as soon as the author fixes the work in a tangible form of expression.
A

COPYRIGHT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

-the certification by a responsible authority that the person described is cleared for access to classified matter at the appropriate level

A

SECURITY CLEARANCE CERTIFICATE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  • Information and materials that the unauthorized disclosure of which would cause exceptionally grave damage to the nation, politically, economically, or from a security aspect.
A

TOP SECRET

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  • Covered with legal size bond paper line with 1-inch green border
A

TOP SECRET

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
- The unauthorized disclosure of which would be prejudicial to the interest or prestige of the nation or any government activity or would cause administrative embarrassment or unwarranted injury to an individual or would be of advantage to foreign nation.
CONFIDENTIAL
20
- Information and material that the unauthorized disclosure of which would endanger national security, case serious injury to the interest or prestige of the nation or of any governmental activity or would be of great advantage of foreign land.
SECRET
20
- Covered with legal bond size paper line with one half inch red border.
SECRET
20
- Covered with legal size bond paper line with one half inch blue border.
CONFIDENTIAL
20
- It can be a personal information of an individual.
CONFIDENTIAL
21
- Information and material which requires special protection other that determine to be Top Secret, Secret, or Confidential.
RESTRICTED
22
- Cover sheet is not necessary, what is important is a bold word at the top and at the bottom of the bond paper.
RESTRICTED
23
TWO TYPES OF SECURITY CLEARANCE
1. FINAL 2. INTERIM
24
-it is valid for five years unless sooner revoked by the issuing authority
FINAL
25
-This pertains to the importance of the firm with reference to the natural economy and security.
RELATIVE CRITICALITY
25
- it is valid for two years unless sooner revoked by the issuing authority
INTERIM
26
Example: gasoline depots, communication transmission lines, and power plants
RELATIVE CRITICALITY
27
- This is the susceptibility of the plant or establishment to damage, loss, or disruption of operation due to various hazards.
RELATIVE VULNERABILITY
27
-act of stealing small things or items of little value especially habitually
PILFERAGE
28
Example: location of the building, the machines, or presence of possible poisons
RELATIVE VULNERABILITY
29
-Any acts or conditions which may result in the compromise of information, loss of life, loss or destruction of property or disruption of the objective of the installation.
SECURITY HAZARDS
30
TWO (2) TYPES OF PILFERER
1. CASUAL PILFERER 2. SYSTEMATIC PILFERER
31
-one who steals due to his inability to resist the unexpected opportunity and has little fear of detection.
CASUAL PILFERER
32
-one who steals with preconceived plans and takes away any or all types of items or supplies for economic gain
SYSTEMATIC PILFERER
33
-intentional destruction or the deliberate damaging or destroying of property or equipment
SABOTAGE
34
-The activity of spying or the use of spying or spies to gather secret information.
ESPIONAGE
35
-This is a hazard because people may come to know the confidential processes or procedures of a certain organization or business establishment.
ESPIONAGE
36
--very significant to those who perform the counter intelligence due you deny information
ESPIONAGE
37
-These are activities designed to overthrow the government or intended or likely to undermine or overthrow a government or other institutions.
SUBVERSIVE ACTIVITIES
38
-It results to the disruption of the normal operations organization. of an institution or organization
SUBVERSIVE ACTIVITIES
39
-The basic instrument for determining security vulnerability.
SECURITY SURVEY
40
-Critical on-site examination and analysis of an industrial plant, business, a home or public or private institution done to ascertain the facility's current security status.
SECURITY SURVEY
41
TWO (2) TYPES OF SECURITY SURVEY CONFERENCE
1. ENTRANCE CONFERENCE 2. EXIT CONFERENCE
42
-This is conducted to check on the degree of compliance with the recommended countermeasures and to determine the effectiveness and adequacy of the countermeasures which are in effect.
SECURITY INSPECTION
43
is a dialogue between the survey team and the management, and officials of a plant before the security survey is conducted.
ENTRANCE CONFERENCE
44
it is done after the completion of the security survey.
EXIT CONFERENCE
45
THREE (3) SPECIFIC TYPES OF SECURITY INSPECTION
1. ANNOUNCED SECURITY INSPECTION 2.UNANNOUNCED SECURITY INSPECTION 3. PENETRATION SECURITY INSPECTION
46
-is one has been so published to the office that all concerned personnel are usually aware of its eminence and may consequently, make such preparations as are necessary.
ANNOUNCED SECURITY INSPECTION
47
-It is usually conducted during non - duty hour period
UNANNOUNCED SECURITY INSPECTION
47
-It is an inspection whose imminence is known only to certain selected personnel, normally the office head and intelligence personnel of the office to be inspected.
UNANNOUNCED SECURITY INSPECTION
48
-A planned and organized determination of facts concerning specific loss or damage of assets due to threats, hazards or unsecured conditions.
SECURITY INVESTIGATION
48
-it is an inspection conducted in such a manner that office personnel are not aware that such action is taking place.
PENETRATION SECURITY INSPECTION
49
-Such service shall not, however, extend beyond the property or compound of said person, firm or establishment except when required by the latter in accordance with the terms of their contract to escort, or in hot pursuit of criminal offenders.
SECTION 1: TERRITORIAL POWER
49
- A security guard shall watch and secure the property of the person, firm, or establishment with whom he or his agency has a contract for security services.
SECTION 1: TERRITORIAL POWER
50
shall watch and secure the property of the person, firm, or establishment with whom he or his agency has a contract for security services.
security guard
51
is not a police officer and is not, therefore, clothed with police authority.
security guard, or private detective
52
- A security guard, or private detective is not a police officer and is not, therefore, clothed with police authority. However, he may effect arrest under any of the following circumstances: a. When, in his presence, the person to be arrested has committed, is actually committing, or is attempting to commit an offence; b. When an offense has just been committed and he has probable cause to believe based on personal knowledge of facts and circumstances that the person to be arrested has committed it; and c. When the person to be arrested is a prisoner who has escaped from a penal establishment or place where he is serving final judgment or temporarily confined while his case is pending or has escaped while being transferred from one confinement to another (Section 6, Rule 113, Rule of Court).
SECTION 2: ARREST BY SECURITY GUARD
52
- When making an arrest, the watchman, security guard or private detective shall inform the person to be arrested of the intention to arrest him and cause of the arrest, unless the person to be arrested is then engaged in the commission of an offense or after an escape, or flees, or forcibly resists before the person making the arrest has opportunity so to inform him, or when the giving of such information will imperil the arrest. (Section 10,LBID).
SECTION 3: METHOD OF ARREST
53
-Any security guard making arrest, shall immediately turn over the person arrested to the nearest peace officer, police outpost or headquarters for custody and/or appropriate action, or he may without necessary delay and within the time prescribed in Article 125 of the Revised Penal Code, as amended, take the person arrested, to the proper Court of Law or judge for such action as they may deem proper to take. (Section 17, bid).
SECTION 4: DUTY OF SECURITY GUARD MAKING ARREST
53
-Any security guard making arrest, shall immediately turn over the person arrested to the nearest peace officer, police outpost or headquarters for custody and/or appropriate action, or he may without necessary delay and within the time prescribed in Article ____ of the Revised Penal Code, as amended, take the person arrested, to the proper Court of Law or judge for such action as they may deem proper to take. (Section 17, bid).
125
54
- Any security guard may, incident to the arrest, search the person so arrested in the presence of at least two (2) witnesses.
SECTION 5: SEARCH WITHOUT WARRANT
55
-He may also search employees of the person firm or establishment with which he is or his agency has a contract of private detective, watchman or security services, when such search is required by the very nature of the business of the person, firm or establishment.
SECTION 5: SEARCH WITHOUT WARRANT
56
b. To walk in an alert manner during my tour of duty and observing everything that takes place within sight or hearing;
GENERAL ORDERS
56
a. To take charge of the post and all company properties in view and protect/ preserve the same with utmost diligence;
GENERAL ORDERS
57
Any security guard may, incident to the arrest, search the person so arrested in the presence of at least ____ witnesses.
two (2)
58
c. To report all violations of regulations and orders I am instructed to enforce;
GENERAL ORDERS
59
d. To relay all calls from posts more distant from the security house where I am stationed;
GENERAL ORDERS
60
e. To quit my post only when properly relieved;
GENERAL ORDERS
61
f. To receive, obey and pass on to the relieving guard all orders from company officers or officials, supervisors, post in charge or shift leaders;
GENERAL ORDERS
62
h. To sound or call the alarm in case of fire or disorder;
GENERAL ORDERS
63
g. To talk to one except in line of duty;
GENERAL ORDERS
64
k. To be especially watchful at night and during the time of challenging, to challenge all persons on or near my post and to allow no one to pass or loiter without proper authority.
GENERAL ORDERS
64
i. To call the superior officer in any case not covered by instructions;
GENERAL ORDERS
65
- Any security guard shall be duty bound to assist any peace officer in the pursuit of his bounding duty, when requested, provided it is within the territorial jurisdiction of his (security officer) area of duty.
SECTION 7: DUTY TO ASSIST LAW ENFORCERS
65
j. To salute all company officials, superiors in the agency, ranking public officials and officers of Philippine National Police; and
GENERAL ORDERS
66
are always subordinate to members of the PNP on matters pertaining to law enforcement and crime prevention.
Private Security personnel
66
They cannot enforce any provision of the law except in executing citizen’s arrest and/or conducting initial investigation of a commission of a crime. In such case, any arrested person shall be turned over immediately to the nearest PNP unit/station.
Private Security personnel
67
are responsible purely for enforcing company policies, rules and regulations of management and clients with the ultimate objective of providing security to the assets and persons of clients.
Private Security personnel
67
are authorized and empowered by law to act as such and in the manner prescribed by the Chief, PNP on within their specifically assigned areas to be secured, as provided for in the contract between the client and the private security agency, and, in the case of company security services, as specifically stated in their private security firm licenses.
Private Security personnel
68
is the responsibility of the PNP.
Criminal investigation
69
All results of initial investigation conducted by ____ and all evidence gathered by them shall be turned over to the PNP unit/station concerned as a matter of course without delay.
private security personnel
70
RULE X PROFESSIONAL CONDUCT AND ETHICS
SECTION 1: SECURITY GUARD CREED, CODE OF ETHICS, AND CODE OF CONDUCT
70
- All members of the private security agency and private detective agency/company security force/government security unit duly licensed in accordance with RA 5487, as amended, and its implementing rules and regulations shall strictly observe the following:
SECTION 1: SECURITY GUARD CREED, CODE OF ETHICS, AND CODE OF CONDUCT
71
As a security guard my fundamental duty is to protect lives and property and maintain order within my place of duty; protect the interest of my employer and our clients and the security and stability of our government and country without compromise and prejudice, honest in my action, words and thought; and do my best to uphold the principle: MAKADIOS, MAKABAYAN, MAKATAO at MAKAKALIKASAN.
SECURITY GUARDS CREED
72
As a security guard my fundamental duty is to protect lives and property and maintain order within my place of duty; protect the interest of my employer and our clients and the security and stability of our government and country without compromise and prejudice, honest in my action, words and thought; and do my best to uphold the principle:
MAKADIOS, MAKABAYAN, MAKATAO at MAKAKALIKASAN
73
a. As a security guard/detective his fundamental duty is to serve the interest or mission of his agency in compliance with the contract entered into with clients or customers of the agency he is supposed to serve;
ETHICAL STANDARD
74
a. He shall carry with him at all times during his tour of duty his license, identification card and duty detail order with an authority to carry firearm;
CODE OF CONDUCT
75
b. He shall be honest in thoughts and deeds both in his personal and official actuations, obeying the laws of the land and the regulations prescribed by his agency and those established by the company he is supposed to protect;
ETHICAL STANDARD
76
c. He shall not reveal any confidential information confided to him as a security guard and such other matters imposed upon him by law
ETHICAL STANDARDS
77
f. He shall carry out his assigned duties as required by law to the best of his ability and shall safeguard the life and property of the establishment he is assigned to;
ETHICAL STANDARD
77
g. He shall wear his uniform, badge, patches and insignia properly as a symbol of public trust and confidence, as an honest and trustworthy security guard and private detectives;
ETHICAL STANDARD
78
e. He shall not compromise with criminals and other lawless elements to the prejudice of the customers or clients and shall assist the government in its relentless drive against lawlessness and other forms of criminality;
ETHICAL STANDARD
79
d. He shall act at all times with decorum and shall not permit personal feelings, prejudices and undue friendship to influence his actuation while in the performance of his official functions;
ETHICAL STANDARD
80
j. He shall at all times be courteous, respectful and salute his superior officers, government officials and officials of the establishment where he is assigned or the company he is supposed to serve;
ETHICAL STANDARD
80
i. He shall diligently and progressively familiarize himself with the rules and regulations laid down by his agency and those of the customers or clients;
ETHICAL STANDARD
80
h. He shall keep his allegiance first to the government, then to the agency where he is employed and to the establishment he is assigned to serve with loyalty and utmost dedication;
ETHICAL STANDARD
81
l. He shall learn at heart and strictly observe the laws and regulations governing the use of firearms.
ETHICAL STANDARD
82
k. He shall report for duty always in proper uniform and neat in his appearance; and
ETHICAL STANDARD
83
k. He shall assist the police in the preservation and maintenance of peace and order and in the protection of life and property having in mind that the nature of his responsibilities is similar to that of the latter.
CODE OF CONDUCT
84
j. He or his group of guards, shall not participate or integrate any disorde, strike, riot, or any serious violations of the law;
CODE OF CONDUCT
85
i. He shall immediately notify the police in case of any sign of disorder, strike, riot or any serious violation of the law;
CODE OF CONDUCT
86
h. He shall know the location of the telephone and/or telephone number of the police precincts as well as the telephone numbers of the fire stations in the locality;
CODE OF CONDUCT
87
g. He shall know how to operate any fire extinguisher at his post;
CODE OF CONDUCT
88
f. He shall know the location of the alarm box near his post and sound the alarm in case of fire or disorder.
CODE OF CONDUCT
89
e. He shall not drink any intoxicating liquor immediately before and during his tour of duty;
CODE OF CONDUCT
90
d. He shall refrain from reading newspapers, magazines, books, etc, while actually performing his duties;
CODE OF CONDUCT
91
c. He shall not engage in any unnecessary conversation with anybody except in the discharge of his duties or sit down unless required by the nature of his work and shall at all times keep himself alert during his tour of duty;
CODE OF CONDUCT
92
b. He shall not use his license and other privileges if any, to the prejudice of the public, the client or customer and his agency;
CODE OF CONDUCT
93
n. He shall always be in proper uniform and shall always carry with him his basic requirements, and equipment’s such as writing notebook, ballpen, night stick (baton) and/or radio.
CODE OF CONDUCT
94
m. When issued a FA she should not lend his FAs to anybody.
CODE OF CONDUCT
95
l. He shall familiarize himself by heart with the Private Security Agency Law (RA 5487, as amended) and these implementing rules and regulations;
CODE OF CONDUCT
95
o. He shall endeavor at all times, to merit and be worthy of the trust and confidence of the agency he represents and the client he server
CODE OF CONDUCT
95
KEY FUNCTION OF PERSONNEL SECURITY
• It serves as a screening device in hiring suitable employees. • It develops security awareness among employees. • It provides background investigation service of both potential and present employees, for possible assignment to sensitive areas and susceptibility of wrongdoing. • It handles investigation of employees. • It attempts to ensure the protection of employees for discriminatory hiring or terminating procedures as well as unfounded allegations of illegal or unethical activities and conduct.
96
other term of investigation in Industrial Security Management
INQUIRY
97
Security awareness is conducted every?
6 months or twice a year
98
ELEMENTS OF COMPREHENSIVE PERSONNEL SECURITY PROGRAM
1. To determine if there is adequate job specification 2. Appropriate recruitment and selection criteria 3. Conduct of applicant screening 4. Conduct of Background Investigative Standard 5. Truth Verification Standard 6. Criteria for Employee Conduct 7. Investigation Questionable Employees Conduct 8. Disciplinary Procedure 9. Termination Procedure
99
Basic consideration in Personnel Security Investigation (PSI)
1. The Responsibility of the Appointing Authority 2. Possesion of Classified Matters 3. Give Eligibility for Required Clearance
99
need to know principle is called?
Possession of Classified Matters
99
How many percent does the employee lied in their declare information?
5%
100
- This refers to the process of selecting the most appropriate persons for a particular job.
APPLICANT SCREENING
101
--Most of the effective tools in employee selection is the application form and interview conducted.
APPLICANT SCREENING
102
is a system of evaluating the suitability of an applicant.
WHOLE MAN RULE
102
-- also known as the “heart of personnel selection” --simple questioning
INTERVIEW
102
Rules governing the Whole-Man Rule
1. The need of the company 2. Fairness to the applicants
102
How many % does the employees are considered as real threat of the company
85-87%
102
--also known as “Information collection tool” --submitted by the applicant
APPLICATION FORM
102
RED FLAGS IN SCREENING PROCESS
* Application form not signed * Application date not filled up * Application name and possible aliases * Guts in employment history * Use of self-employed * Inability to remember the names of former colleagues * Inadequate references * Guts in residence * Lack of job stability * Signs of instability relation * Not filling the salary history * Signature is stamp * Criminal record left blank * Military service left blank * Inconsistences of the educational background
103
is a sign of authenticity
Signature
104
- Serve as a verification information
BACKGROUND INVESTIGATION
105
- A form or employing examination to test the attitude of applicant.
READ REPORT
105
- The question being asked are based on the information given by the applicant
POSITIVE VETTING
106
- By the use of Honest test -combination of series of question wherein in US, it is a composition of 40 to 50 question that is under pressure
READ REPORT
107
-- involves question of individuals whether they are harsh to other people.
OTHER PUNITIVENESS FACTOR
107
4 MAJOR FACTORS OF READ REPORT
1. SELF-PUNITIVENESS FACTOR 2. OTHER PUNITIVENESS FACTOR 3. SELF-PROJECTION FACTOR 4. OTHER PROJECTION FACTOR
107
– incorporate individual item if he will admit or deny the personal fantasies about dishonest behavior
SELF-PROJECTION FACTOR
108
-- it contains items of individual which indicate the extent to which they hold themselves to the high standard of conduct.
SELF-PUNITIVENESS FACTOR
108
– response indicates the extent to which they see dishonest intention or behavior in others.
OTHER PROJECTION FACTOR
109
the large degree of success of polygraph examination will depend on the ______.
professional capability of the investigator
110
--disguising to gather pertinent and confidential information
UNDERCOVER INVESTIGATION
111
During this event, the employee will sign a anti-competitiveness clause or non-disclosure clause
EXIT INTERVIEW
112
- it is the area of security discipline that requires of high level of understanding of the different concept in its view as to protected in nature -there are three kineme: * Incident investigation * Company role infringement * Conducting administrative inquiries
SECURITY INVESTIGATION
113
- includes the pre-employment, during employment, lifestyle, reliability check.
BACKGROUND CHECK/INVESTIGATION
114
- should be completed prior to starting work.
BACKGROUND CHECK/INVESTIGATION
115
- determine assess suitability for initial or continued employment, kung irerenew pa ba itong tao nato
BACKGROUND CHECK/INVESTIGATION
115
CONTENTS OF APPLICATION FORM FOR IT TO REVEAL IMPORTANT INFORMATION PERTINENT TO THE INVESTIGATION
* Applicants full name and variation * Reference to verify gaps of employment * Friend and relative currently employed by the company * Contact person * Organization affiliation * Address history
115
As general rule, background checks/investigation should be conducted to an applicant _____ he is considered for employment in the company.
BEFORE
115
_____________ -information connecting tools _________- principal tools of interview
APPLICATION FORM QUESTIONS
115
- verify the accuracy and completeness of the applicant statement. - obtain any additional relevant information
BACKGROUND CHECK/INVESTIGATION
116
COMPONENTS OF COMPLETE BACKGROUND INVESTIGATION
* Applicant’s Name * Date of Birth * Present Residence Address * Personal History * Marital History * Residence History * Citizenship * Physical Data * Educational History * Date of Application * Organizational membership * Neighborhood Investigation * Character reference * Employment History * Military History * Foreign Travel History * Criminal Record * Credit Records * Applicants signature
117
In the investigative coverage of background investigation we will consider the prior (before) employment prior at least ___ years should be verified.
7
118
- it is inquiry about the life existence of the subject, conducted to established a guide for estimating or determining the sources and amount of income available to the subject of the investigation.
FINANCIAL AND LIFESTYLE INQUIRY
119
WHEN DOES LIFESTYLE CHECK SHOULD BE CONDUCTED?
-- when the employees are going to be promoted -- when the employee is suspected for a crime
120
- should be conducted with permission and should be a pre-requisite for the post.
ROUTINE LIFESTYLE CHECKS
121
Financial and Lifestyle Inquiry is conducted every?
18 months or 1 and a half year
122
-It is usual for the applicants for the post to sign an agreement for the checks to be carried out at regular intervals, and to authorize checks with banks, credit institution etc.
ROUTINE LIFESTYLE CHECKS
123
to provide such information which may limit the employing company’s liability and identity false claims or claims which might be exaggerated, for compensation.
CLAIM INVESTIGATION
124
to gather in all the information and present facts to the company’s insurer; i.e. to be seen and acting in a proper and speedy manner.
CLAIM INVESTIGATION
125
_________ very important in claims investigation, the result obtained as to regard the statement whether it is narrative or questioned and answer.
INTERVIEW
126
IMPORTANT ELEMENTS OF CLAIMS INVESTIGATIONS
* Report of the accident * All coverage Information * Report from the authorities
127
- Another area for internal investigation some of the difficulties facing the investigator are that other employees may be reluctant to talk, and many supervisors tend not to want to get involved.
EMPLOYEE MISCONDUCT INVESTIGATION
128
- Conducted to determine whether if the rules and regulation of the company is violated and as well as the law of the country has been violated.
EMPLOYEE MISCONDUCT INVESTIGATION
129
TECHNIQUES IN CONDUCTING EMPLOYEE MISCONDUCT INVESTIGATION
* Interview * Search to locate the preserve physical evidence * Physical surveillance * Use for confidential sources * Checking pertinent record
129
What Article is the Espionage
ARTICLE 117
130
COMMON MISCONDUCT COMMONLY COMMITED BY THE EMPLOYEE
* Falsification *Fraudulent accident claim
131
is unethical in order to learn the companies trade secret
INDUSTRIAL ESPIONAGE
131
CATEGORIES OF INFORMATION OR DATA IN MOST BUSINESSES THAT IS ALWAYS KEEP CONFIDENTIAL
* RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT * PRICING * PRODUCT PROMOTION * EXPANSION OR RELOCATION * STYLE CHANGES * MANAGEMENT CHANGES * COMPETITIVE BIDDING * FINANCE * NATIONAL DEFENSE MATTERS
131
– is the offense of gathering, transmitting, or losing information respecting the national defense with intent or reason to believe that the information is to used to the injury of the Republic of the Philippines or the advantage of a foreign nation.
ESPIONAGE
132
METHODS EMPLOYED TO CONDUCT INDUSTRIAL ESPIONAGE
* BURGLARY * INFILTRATION * ELECTRONIC METHODS * BEAN SEARCHES * BRIBERY
133
PRACTICES THAT MAY MINIMIZED THE LEAKS OF INTERNAL INFORMATION
* CAREFULLY SCREENING * SCREENING OF THE SUB-CONTRACTOR STAFF AND OUTSIDE PERSONNEL. * TRAIN THE COMPANY EMPLOYEES FOR SECURITY AWARENESS AND SECURITY EDUCATION.
134
The most common method of sabotage is
ARSON
134
– refers to the taking of personal property of another without the latter’s consent, with intent to gain but without violence against or intimidation of persons nor force upon things.
ARTICLE 308 THEFT
134
Motivation for Sabotage:
1. Disgruntled employee 2. Dissatisfied outside contractor 3. Penetration by the organized crime 4. Foreign manipulation
134
EFFECTIVE WAYS IN ORDER TO PREVENT INTERNAL THEFT
* There should be careful safeguard design and preventive aid. * There must be a prompt report of the missing items. * Conduct immediate action for investigation * To have remedial action to stop the loopholes
135
WHEN CONDUCTING THEFT INVESTIGATIONS, THE FOLLOWING POINTS SHOULD BE CONSIDERED:
* A complete description of missing items (serial, model and other ID numbers, distinctive marks. Obtain all shipping document). * Ownership data * Date loss noted * Who loss reported to * Area in which loss occurred * If theft, note circumstances (e.g. forced entry) * Extent of search * Internal security measures which contributed to theft
135
in the past been known as “Roping”
UNDERCOVER INVESTIGATION
136
THEFT TRIANGLE
* Means * Opportunity * Desire
136
-During these types of investigations, the investigators must be cautions not to engage in activities that may violate the employees rights created by National Labor Relations Law particularly those pertaining to collective bargaining activities.
UNDERCOVER LABOR RELATIONS LAW
136
- It is an investigative technique in which agent conceal his official identity and obtain information from the target organization.
UNDERCOVER ASSIGNMENT
137
HOW TO PLAN AN UNDERCOVER ASSIGNMENT
* Determine the level on which the investigation is intended * Develop appropriate cover and cover story * Selection of qualified personnel * Briefing, coaching and rehearsal
138
Use interdependent to get firsthand information about the subject of investigation
UNDERCOVER INVESTIGATION
139
* Supplement other investigative techniques
UNDERCOVER INVESTIGATION
140
- A mandatory indoctrination on security for all new personnel before their assignments to their respective jobs.
SECURITY EDUCATION
141
TYPES OF UNDERCOVER ASSIGNMENT
* Dwelling * Work Assignment * Social Assignment * Multiple Assignments * Personal Contact Assignment or “Rope Job”
142
- A down the line security program aimed at instilling consciousness and the dedication through demonstration, lectures, motivations and suggestions.
SECURITY EDUCATION