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GCU Anatomy & Physiology I > Topic 3: Skeleton and Articulations > Flashcards

Topic 3: Skeleton and Articulations Flashcards

A&P Lab and Lecture do no overlap perfectly from one topic to the next, this is evident in Topic 3. Lab will focus on Skeleton while Lecture include Integument (Covered in Topic 2 also)

1
Q

What is the axial skeleton, and what does it include?

A

The axial skeleton consists of 80 bones, including the skull, vertebral column, and thoracic cage (ribs & sternum).

Unhighlighted (not green) section

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2
Q

What is the function of the axial skeleton?

A

Provides structural support, protects the brain, spinal cord, and vital organs, and serves as an attachment site for muscles.

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3
Q

What is the appendicular skeleton, and what does it include?

A

The appendicular skeleton consists of 126 bones, including the pectoral girdle, upper limbs, pelvic girdle, and lower limbs.

Highlighted (green) sections

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4
Q

What is the function of the appendicular skeleton?

A

Facilitates movement, connects the limbs to the axial skeleton, and provides flexibility and stability.

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5
Q

Bones of the Cranium and Face

What is the function of the frontal bone?

A

Forms the forehead, superior part of the orbit (eye socket), and anterior cranial floor.

https://www.theskeletalsystem.net/skull-bones/frontal-bone.html

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6
Q

Bones of the Cranium and Face

What is the function of the parietal bones?

A

Form the superior and lateral walls of the cranium, protecting the brain.

https://www.theskeletalsystem.net/skull-bones/parietal-bone.html

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7
Q

Bones of the Cranium and Face

What does the occipital bone form?

A

The posterior and inferior portions of the skull.

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8
Q

Occipital Bone Markings

What is the function of the foramen magnum?

A

Large opening allowing the spinal cord to pass through and connect to the brainstem.

Literally “Large Hole”

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9
Q

Occipital Bone Markings

What do the occipital condyles articulate with?

A

The atlas (C1 vertebra), enabling head nodding (“yes”) motion.

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10
Q

Occipital Bone Markings

What is the external occipital protuberance?

A

A bony bump on the posterior skull for muscle and ligament attachment.

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11
Q

Occipital Bone Markings

What is the function of the nuchal lines?

A

Serve as muscle attachment sites for head and neck movement.

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12
Q

Temporal Bone Markings

What is the external acoustic meatus?

A

The ear canal leading to the eardrum.

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13
Q

Temporal Bone Markings

What is the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone?

A

A depression on the temporal bone that articulates with the mandible, forming the temporomandibular joint (TMJ).

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14
Q

Temporal Bone Markings

What is the function of the styloid process of the temporal bone?

A

A needle-like projection for muscle and ligament attachment of the tongue and pharynx.

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15
Q

Temporal Bone Markings

What is the mastoid process?

A

A rounded projection behind the ear that serves as an attachment site for neck muscles.

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16
Q

Temporal Bone Markings

What is the zygomatic process of the temporal bone?

A

A bony extension that connects with the zygomatic bone, forming the zygomatic arch (cheekbone).

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17
Q

Sutures of the Skull

What does the coronal suture separate?

A

The frontal bone from the parietal bones.

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18
Q

Sutures of the Skull

What does the sagittal suture separate?

A

The two parietal bones.

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19
Q

Sutures of the Skull

What does the lambdoid suture separate?

A

The occipital bone from the parietal bones.

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20
Q

Sutures of the Skull

What does the squamosal suture separate?

A

The temporal bone from the parietal bone.

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21
Q

Ethmoid Bone Markings

What is the crista galli?

A

A ridge-like structure for attachment of the brain’s dura mater.

Green

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22
Q

Ethmoid Bone Markings

What is the function of the cribriform plate?

A

Contains olfactory foramina, allowing olfactory nerves to pass through.

Green

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23
Q

Ethmoid Bone Markings

What is the perpendicular plate of the palatine bone?

A

A thin plate forming the superior portion of the nasal septum.

Tan, verticle section of palatine bone.

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24
Q

Ethmoid Bone Markings

What are the superior and middle nasal conchae?

A

Curved bony structures that increase airflow turbulence, helping to humidify and filter air.

Green

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25
Q

Sphenoid Bone Markings

What is the sella turcica?

A

A saddle-shaped depression that houses the pituitary gland.

Dark Blue

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26
Q

Facial Bones

What is the function of the zygomatic bones?

A

Form the cheekbones and contribute to the zygomatic arch.

Light Blue

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27
Q

Facial Bones

What is the function of the temporal process of the zygomatic bone?

A

Connects with the zygomatic process of the temporal bone to form the zygomatic arch.

Peach and Light Blue connection on the Light Blue Side

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28
Q

Facial Bones

What is the function of the nasal bones?

A

Form the bridge of the nose.

Purple

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29
Q

Facial Bones

What is the function of the lacrimal bones?

A

House the lacrimal sac, which allows tears to drain into the nasal cavity.

Red

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30
Q

Facial Bones

What is the function of the vomer bone?

A

Forms the inferior portion of the nasal septum.

Yellow (in nose)

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31
Q

Facial Bones

What is the function of the maxillae?

A

Forms the upper jaw, part of the hard palate, and houses the upper teeth.

Unhighlighted, 2 upper maxilla bones

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32
Q

Facial Bones

What is the function of the inferior nasal conchae?

A

Create turbulence in airflow for humidification and filtration.

Light Pink, in nasal cavity

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33
Q

Facial Bones

What is the function of the palatine bones?

A

Form the posterior portion of the hard palate and contribute to the nasal cavity.

Superior structure of the oral cavity

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34
Q

Facial Bones

What is the function of the mandible?

A

The lower jawbone, responsible for chewing and articulation.

Yellow

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35
Q

Mandible Markings

What is the ramus of the mandible?

A

The vertical portion of the mandible.

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36
Q

Mandible Markings

What is the coronoid process?

A

A sharp projection for attachment of the temporalis muscle (which helps with chewing).

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37
Q

Mandible Markings

What is the angle of the mandible?

A

The junction between the ramus and the body.

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38
Q

Mandible Markings

What is the mandibular condyle?

A

A rounded projection that articulates with the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone, forming the TMJ.

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39
Q

Mandible Markings

What is the mental foramen?

A

An opening in the mandible that allows passage for nerves and blood vessels.

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40
Q

Nasal Complex & Paranasal Sinuses

What is the nasal complex?

A

The nasal complex consists of bones that form the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses, aiding in respiration and filtration.

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41
Q

Nasal Complex & Paranasal Sinuses

What bones make up the nasal cavity?

A

The ethmoid, vomer, nasal, maxillae, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, frontal, and sphenoid bones.

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42
Q

Nasal Complex & Paranasal Sinuses

Which bones contain the paranasal sinuses?

A

The frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, and maxillary bones contain air-filled paranasal sinuses.

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43
Q

Nasal Complex & Paranasal Sinuses

What is the function of the nasal conchae?

A

Increase airflow turbulence, humidify air, filter particles, and direct airflow toward olfactory receptors.

Green and Pink

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44
Q

Nasal Complex & Paranasal Sinuses

What is the function of the paranasal sinuses?

A

Lighten the skull, enhance voice resonance, and produce mucus for humidifying air.

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45
Q

Structural Differences Among Infant, Child, and Adult Skulls

What are the structural differences among infant, child, and adult skulls?

A

Infants have soft fontanels instead of fully fused sutures, allowing skull flexibility during birth and brain growth.

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46
Q

Structural Differences Among Infant, Child, and Adult Skulls

What is the anterior (bregmoid) fontanel?

A

The largest fontanel located at the intersection of the frontal and parietal bones; closes around 18-24 months.

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47
Q

Structural Differences Among Infant, Child, and Adult Skulls

What is the posterior (lambdoid) fontanel?

A

A smaller fontanel located between the occipital and parietal bones; closes by 2 months.

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48
Q

Structural Differences Among Infant, Child, and Adult Skulls

What is the anterolateral (sphenoid) fontanel?

A

Located at the junction of the sphenoid, temporal, and frontal bones; closes by 6 months.

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49
Q

Structural Differences Among Infant, Child, and Adult Skulls

What is the posterolateral (mastoid) fontanel?

A

Located between the temporal, occipital, and parietal bones; closes by 1 year.

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50
Q

Cranial Openings

What is the external acoustic meatus?

A

The ear canal opening in the temporal bone, allowing sound waves to reach the eardrum.

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51
Q

Cranial Openings

What is the lacrimal foramen?

A

A small hole in the lacrimal bone that allows tears to drain into the nasal cavity.

Small gap between Temporal Bone (purple) and Sphenoid bone (dark blue)

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52
Q

Cranial Openings

What is the foramen magnum?

A

A large opening in the occipital bone where the spinal cord passes to connect with the brainstem.

Large hole in the center

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53
Q

Cranial Openings

What is the optic foramen?

A

An opening in the sphenoid bone that allows passage of the optic nerve (cranial nerve II).

Blue, labelled as “Optic Canal”

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54
Q

Cranial Openings

What are the olfactory foramina?

A

Small perforations in the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone, allowing olfactory nerves to pass for the sense of smell.

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55
Q

Regions of the Vertebral Column

What is the cervical region of the vertebral column?

A

Consists of 7 vertebrae (C1-C7), including the atlas (C1) and axis (C2), which support and allow head movement.

Top purple region

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56
Q

Regions of the Vertebral Column

What is the thoracic region of the vertebral column?

A

Consists of 12 vertebrae (T1-T12) that articulate with ribs and provide support for the upper body.

Blue region

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57
Q

Regions of the Vertebral Column

What is the lumbar region of the vertebral column?

A

Consists of 5 vertebrae (L1-L5), which are the largest and support most of the body’s weight.

Green region

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58
Q

Regions of the Vertebral Column

What is the sacral region of the vertebral column?

A

Consists of 5 fused vertebrae forming the sacrum, which connects the spine to the pelvic girdle.

Yellow region

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59
Q

Regions of the Vertebral Column

What is the coccygeal region of the vertebral column?

A

Consists of 3-5 fused vertebrae forming the coccyx (tailbone), which provides minor support for sitting.

Red/pink region

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60
Q

Vertebral Anatomy - General Structures

What is the vertebral body?

A

The large, weight-bearing portion of a vertebra that supports the body’s weight.

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61
Q

Vertebral Anatomy - General Structures

What is the vertebral arch?

A

The bony structure forming the posterior part of the vertebra, enclosing the spinal cord.

Not labelled in image. Space between body and lamina.

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62
Q

Vertebral Anatomy - General Structures

What are pedicles?

A

Short, thick bony projections connecting the vertebral body to the vertebral arch.

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63
Q

Vertebral Anatomy - General Structures

What are laminae?

A

Thin bony plates extending from the pedicles that form the back of the vertebral arch.

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64
Q

Vertebral Anatomy - General Structures

What is the spinous process?

A

A posterior projection from the vertebra that serves as an attachment site for muscles and ligaments.

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65
Q

Vertebral Anatomy - General Structures

What are the articular processes?

A

Bony projections forming joints between vertebrae, including superior and inferior processes.

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66
Q

Vertebral Anatomy - General Structures

What are articular facets?

A

Smooth surfaces on articular processes where vertebrae articulate with one another.

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67
Q

Vertebral Anatomy - General Structures

What is the transverse process?

A

A lateral bony projection that serves as a muscle and ligament attachment site.

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68
Q

Vertebral Anatomy - General Structures

What is the vertebral foramen?

A

The central opening in a vertebra through which the spinal cord passes.

Unlabelled. Space between Lamina and Body.

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69
Q

Vertebral Anatomy - General Structures

What is the intervertebral foramen?

A

An opening between vertebrae that allows spinal nerves to exit the spinal cord.

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70
Q

Vertebral Anatomy - General Structures

What is the intervertebral disk?

A

A fibrocartilage structure between vertebrae that absorbs shock and allows movement.

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71
Q

Vertebral Regions

What is the transverse foramen?

A

A small opening in cervical vertebrae that allows passage of blood vessels and nerves.

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72
Q

Vertebral Regions

What is the atlas (C1)?

A

The first cervical vertebra that supports the skull and allows nodding motion (yes movement).

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73
Q

Vertebral Regions

What is the axis (C2)?

A

The second cervical vertebra that has the odontoid process (dens) allowing head rotation (no movement).

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74
Q

Vertebral Regions

What is the odontoid process (dens)?

A

A peg-like projection on the axis (C2) that articulates with the atlas (C1) for rotation.

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75
Q

Curvatures of the Spinal Column

What are the primary curvatures of the spine?

A

The thoracic and sacral curves, which are present from birth and provide structural support.

Blue and Yellow regions

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76
Q

Curvatures of the Spinal Column

What is the cervical curvature?

A

A secondary curvature that develops when an infant begins to lift its head.

Cervical Lordosis

Pink region

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77
Q

Curvatures of the Spinal Column

What is the lumbar curvature?

A

A secondary curvature that develops when a child begins walking, providing balance and weight support.

Lumbar Lordosis

Green region

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78
Q

Curvatures of the Spinal Column

What are the secondary curvatures of the spine?

A

The cervical and lumbar curves, which develop after birth to support upright posture.

Pink and Green regions

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79
Q

Curvatures of the Spinal Column

What is the thoracic curvature?

A

A primary curvature that forms the mid-back, accommodating the thoracic organs.

Thoracic Kyphosis

Blue region

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80
Q

Curvatures of the Spinal Column

What is the sacral curvature?

A

A primary curvature that helps distribute body weight to the lower limbs.

Sacral Kyphosis

Yellow region

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81
Q

Curvatures of the Spinal Column

What is kyphosis?

A

Convex, posterior curve seen in Sacral and Thoracic spine.

82
Q

Curvatures of the Spinal Column

What is lordosis?

A

Concave, anterior curve seen in Cervical and Lumbar spine. Normal curvature formed after birth; secondary curvature.

83
Q

Curvatures of the Spinal Column

What is scoliosis?

A

An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine.

84
Q

Curvatures of the Spinal Column

What is Hyperlordosis?

A

Excessive anterior curvature of the spine, typically in the Lumbar Lordosis.

85
Q

Curvatures of the Spinal Column

What is Hyperkyphosis?

A

Excessive posterior curvature of the spine, typically seen in the Thoracic Kyphosis.

86
Q

What is the hyoid bone?

A

A U-shaped bone in the neck that supports the tongue and is essential for swallowing and speech.

87
Q

Thoracic Cage Anatomy

What is the sternum?

A

The flat bone in the center of the chest that connects to the ribs and protects the heart and lungs.

88
Q

Thoracic Cage Anatomy

What are the 3 parts of the Sternum?

A
  1. Manubrium
  2. Body
  3. Xiphoid process
89
Q

Thoracic Cage Anatomy

What is the manubrium?

A

The upper portion of the sternum that articulates with the clavicles and first ribs.

90
Q

Thoracic Cage Anatomy

What is the body of the sternum?

A

The central portion of the sternum where most ribs attach. Long dagger shape.

91
Q

Thoracic Cage Anatomy

What is the xiphoid process?

A

The small, cartilaginous lower portion of the sternum that serves as a muscle attachment site.

92
Q

Thoracic Cage Anatomy

What is costal cartilage?

A

Flexible cartilage connecting the ribs to the sternum, allowing expansion during breathing.

93
Q

Thoracic Cage Anatomy

What are vertebrosternal ribs?

A

The first seven pairs of ribs that connect directly to the sternum via costal cartilage.

Also called “True ribs”

94
Q

Thoracic Cage Anatomy

What are vertebrochondral ribs?

A

Ribs 8-10, which connect indirectly to the sternum via cartilage.

Ribs 8-12 are also called “False ribs”

95
Q

Thoracic Cage Anatomy

What are vertebral ribs?

A

Ribs 11-12, which do not connect to the sternum.

Also called “Floating ribs”

96
Q

Rib Articulations

Which ribs articulate directly with the sternum?

A

Ribs 1-7 (vertebrosternal ribs) connect directly via costal cartilage.

97
Q

Rib Articulations

Which ribs articulate with costal cartilages?

A

Ribs 8-10 (vertebrochondral ribs) attach to cartilage that connects to the sternum.

Only 8-10 articulate (or terminate) with costal cartilages.

98
Q

Rib Articulations

Which ribs do not articulate with the sternum?

A

Ribs 11-12 (floating ribs) do not connect to the sternum.

99
Q

Rib Articulations

What is the function of the thoracic cage?

A

Protects vital organs, provides support, and allows movement for breathing.

100
Q

What are the bones of the pectoral girdle?

A

The clavicle and scapula, which connect the upper limbs to the axial skeleton.

101
Q

What is the function of the pectoral girdle?

A

Provides attachment for upper limb muscles and allows for a wide range of motion.

102
Q

Clavicle

What is the clavicle?

A

A long, S-shaped bone that connects the sternum to the scapula, stabilizing the shoulder.

Image shows the right clavical

103
Q

Clavicle

What is the acromial end of the clavicle?

A

The lateral end of the clavicle that articulates with the acromion of the scapula.

104
Q

Clavicle

What is the sternal end of the clavicle?

A

The medial end of the clavicle that articulates with the sternum at the manubrium.

105
Q

Scapula (Anterior View)

What is the superior angle of the scapula?

A

The topmost point of the scapula where the medial and superior borders meet.

106
Q

Scapula (Anterior View)

What is the lateral angle of the scapula?

A

The angle at the glenoid cavity, where the scapula articulates with the humerus.

107
Q

Scapula (Anterior View)

What is the inferior angle of the scapula?

A

The lowest part of the scapula where the medial and lateral borders converge.

108
Q

Scapula (Anterior View)

What is the superior border of the scapula?

A

The uppermost edge of the scapula, providing attachment for muscles.

109
Q

Scapula (Anterior View)

What is the lateral border of the scapula?

A

The outer edge of the scapula that extends toward the armpit.

110
Q

Scapula (Anterior View)

What is the medial border of the scapula?

A

The inner edge of the scapula that runs parallel to the spine.

111
Q

Scapula (Anterior View)

What is the subscapular fossa?

A

A large concave depression on the anterior surface of the scapula, serving as an attachment site for the subscapularis muscle.

112
Q

Scapula (Anterior View)

What is the coracoid process?

A

A hook-like projection from the scapula that serves as an attachment site for muscles and ligaments.

113
Q

Scapula (Anterior View)

What is the acromion?

A

A bony projection on the scapula that forms the highest point of the shoulder and articulates with the clavicle.

114
Q

Scapula (Posterior View)

What is the spine of the scapula?

A

A prominent ridge running across the posterior surface, dividing the supraspinous and infraspinous fossae.

115
Q

Scapula (Posterior View)

What is the supraspinous fossa?

A

A shallow depression above the spine of the scapula, housing the supraspinatus muscle.

116
Q

Scapula (Posterior View)

What is the infraspinous fossa?

A

A large depression below the spine of the scapula, serving as the attachment site for the infraspinatus muscle.

117
Q

Scapula (Lateral View)

What is the glenoid fossa (cavity)?

A

A shallow socket on the lateral scapula where the humerus articulates, forming the shoulder joint.

118
Q

Upper Limb - Humerus

What is the humerus?

A

The upper arm bone, articulating with the scapula at the shoulder and the radius and ulna at the elbow.

119
Q

Upper Limb - Humerus

What is the head of the humerus?

A

A rounded projection at the proximal end that fits into the glenoid cavity of the scapula.

120
Q

Upper Limb - Humerus

What is the greater tubercle of the humerus?

A

A large, lateral projection for muscle attachment.

121
Q

Upper Limb - Humerus

What is the lesser tubercle of the humerus?

A

A smaller, anterior projection for muscle attachment.

122
Q

Upper Limb - Humerus

What is the bicipital groove, or intertubercular sulcus?

A

A narrow groove between the greater and lesser tubercles where the tendon of the biceps brachii passes.

Labelled as intertubercular sulcus in image

123
Q

Upper Limb - Humerus

What is the surgical neck of the humerus?

A

A constriction below the tubercles that is a common site of fractures.

124
Q

Upper Limb - Humerus

What is the anatomical neck of the humerus?

A

A slight groove separating the head from the tubercles, marking the site of the epiphyseal plate.

125
Q

Upper Limb - Humerus

What is the deltoid tuberosity?

A

A roughened area on the humerus shaft where the deltoid muscle attaches.

126
Q

Upper Limb - Humerus

What is the lateral epicondyle of the humerus?

A

A bony prominence on the lateral side of the distal humerus, serving as a muscle attachment site.

127
Q

Upper Limb - Humerus

What is the medial epicondyle of the humerus?

A

A bony prominence on the medial side of the distal humerus, serving as a muscle attachment site.

128
Q

Upper Limb - Humerus

What is the capitulum?

A

A rounded, smooth, lateral condyle that articulates with the head of the radius.

129
Q

Upper Limb - Humerus

What is the trochlea?

A

A spool-shaped, smooth, medial condyle that articulates with the ulna.

130
Q

Upper Limb - Humerus

What is the olecranon fossa?

A

A deep depression on the posterior humerus that accommodates the olecranon of the ulna when the arm is extended.

131
Q

Upper Limb - Humerus

What is the coronoid fossa?

A

A small depression on the anterior humerus that accommodates the coronoid process of the ulna when the arm is flexed.

132
Q

Upper Limb - Humerus

What is the radial fossa?

A

A shallow depression on the anterior humerus that receives the head of the radius during flexion.

133
Q

Ulna

What is the ulna?

A

The medial bone of the forearm, articulating with the humerus at the elbow and the radius at the wrist.

134
Q

Ulna

What is the coronoid process of the ulna?

A

A triangular projection on the anterior ulna that fits into the coronoid fossa of the humerus during elbow flexion.

135
Q

Ulna

What is the olecranon process?

A

A large, curved bony projection on the posterior ulna, forming the elbow joint.

136
Q

Ulna

What is the trochlear notch?

A

A deep groove in the ulna that articulates with the trochlea of the humerus.

137
Q

Ulna

What is the radial notch of the ulna?

A

A small depression on the ulna where the head of the radius articulates.

138
Q

Ulna

What is the styloid process of the ulna?

A

A pointed projection at the distal end of the ulna, providing ligament attachment to the wrist.

139
Q

Radius

What is the radius?

A

The lateral bone of the forearm, articulating with the ulna and carpals at the wrist.

140
Q

Radius

What is the head of the radius?

A

A disc-shaped proximal end that articulates with the capitulum of the humerus and the radial notch of the ulna.

141
Q

Radius

What is the neck of the radius?

A

A narrow region below the head that connects to the shaft.

142
Q

Radius

What is the radial tuberosity?

A

A roughened area below the neck where the biceps brachii muscle attaches.

143
Q

Radius

What is the ulnar notch of the radius?

A

A depression at the distal radius that articulates with the head of the ulna.

144
Q

Radius

What is the styloid process of the radius?

A

A pointed projection on the distal radius that stabilizes the wrist joint.

145
Q

Carpals (Wrist Bones)

What are the carpals, where are they, and how many are there?

Not the names, that’s a different card.

A

Eight small bones forming the wrist.

146
Q

Carpals (Wrist Bones)

What are the names of all the carpals?

Looking for a complete list.

A

scaphoid
lunate
triquetrium
pisiform
trapezium
trapezoid
capitate
hamate

147
Q

Metacarpals

What are the metacarpals?

A

Five bones forming the palm, numbered 1-5 from the thumb to the pinky.

148
Q

Phalanges

What are the phalanges? Singular is phalanx.

A

Fourteen bones in each hand forming the fingers, divided into proximal, middle, and distal segments.

149
Q

Pelvic Girdle

What are the bones of the pelvic girdle?

A

The os coxa (hip bones), which include:
* ilium
* ischium
* pubis.

150
Q

Pelvic Girdle

What is the function of the pelvic girdle?

A

Supports the weight of the upper body, protects pelvic organs, and provides attachment for lower limb muscles.

151
Q

Os Coxa

What is the os coxa?

A

A large, irregular bone composed of the ilium, ischium, and pubis, which fuse together in adulthood.

Image: Lateral View

152
Q

Ilium

What is the ilium?

A

The broad, upper portion of the hip bone that supports abdominal organs and provides muscle attachment.

153
Q

Ilium

What is the anterior superior iliac spine?

A

A bony projection on the ilium that serves as an attachment site for ligaments and muscles.

154
Q

Ilium

What is the iliac crest?

A

The superior border of the ilium, which serves as an attachment site for muscles of the abdomen, back, and thighs.

155
Q

Ilium

What is the auricular surface?

A

A rough surface on the ilium that articulates with the sacrum to form the sacroiliac joint.

Image: Right hip medial view

156
Q

Ilium

What is the greater sciatic notch?

A

A deep notch in the ilium through which the sciatic nerve passes to the lower limb.

Image: right hip lateral view

157
Q

Ischium

What is the ischium?

A

The lower, posterior part of the hip bone that bears weight when sitting.

Image: right hip lateral view highlighted green

158
Q

Ischium

What is the ischial spine?

A

A bony projection of the ischium that serves as an attachment site for ligaments and muscles.

Image: right hip lateral view highlighted green

159
Q

Ischium

What is the lesser sciatic notch?

A

A small notch below the ischial spine through which nerves and tendons pass.

Image: right hip lateral view highlighted green

160
Q

Ischium

What is the ischial tuberosity?

A

A roughened area of the ischium that supports body weight when sitting and serves as a hamstring muscle attachment.

Image: right hip lateral view highlighted green

161
Q

Ischium

What is the ischial ramus?

A

A portion of the ischium that connects to the pubis, forming the lower border of the obturator foramen.

Image: right hip lateral view highlighted green, labelled as “Ramus of the ischium”

162
Q

Pubis

What is the pubis?

A

The anterior portion of the hip bone that forms part of the pelvic girdle.

Image: right hip lateral view highlighted pink

163
Q

Pubis

What are the inferior and superior pubic rami?

A

Two bony extensions from the pubis that help form the obturator foramen.

Image: right hip lateral view highlighted pink

164
Q

Pubis

What is the pubic symphysis?

A

A cartilaginous joint where the two pubic bones meet, allowing slight movement and flexibility.

165
Q

Pubis

What is the pubic angle?

A

The angle formed between the pubic bones, which is wider in females to facilitate childbirth.

166
Q

Acetabulum & Obturator Foramen

What is the acetabulum?

A

A deep socket in the hip bone that articulates with the head of the femur to form the hip joint.

167
Q

Acetabulum & Obturator Foramen

What is the obturator foramen?

A

A large opening in the os coxa that allows passage of nerves and blood vessels to the lower limbs.

168
Q

Lower Limb - Femur

What is the femur?

A

The longest and strongest bone in the body, forming the thigh and articulating with the pelvis and tibia.

169
Q

Lower Limb - Femur

What is the head of the femur?

A

A rounded structure that articulates with the acetabulum of the pelvis.

170
Q

Lower Limb - Femur

What is the fovea capitis?

A

A small depression in the head of the femur where a ligament attaches to the acetabulum.

171
Q

Lower Limb - Femur

What is the neck of the femur?

A

A narrowed region below the head that connects to the shaft and is a common fracture site.

172
Q

Lower Limb - Femur

What is the greater trochanter?

A

A large, lateral projection of the femur that serves as a muscle attachment site.

173
Q

Lower Limb - Femur

What is the lesser trochanter?

A

A smaller, medial projection on the femur for muscle attachment.

174
Q

Lower Limb - Femur

What is the linea aspera?

A

A ridge on the posterior femur that serves as an attachment site for thigh muscles.

175
Q

Lower Limb - Femur

What is the lateral condyle of the femur?

A

A smooth, rounded structure on the lateral distal femur that articulates with the tibia.

176
Q

Lower Limb - Femur

What is the medial condyle of the femur?

A

A rounded structure on the medial distal femur that articulates with the tibia.

177
Q

Lower Limb - Femur

What is the intercondylar fossa?

A

A depression between the femoral condyles that accommodates knee ligaments.

178
Q

Lower Limb - Femur

What is the lateral epicondyle of the femur?

A

A bony prominence above the lateral condyle that serves as a muscle attachment site.

179
Q

Lower Limb - Femur

What is the medial epicondyle of the femur?

A

A bony prominence above the medial condyle that serves as a muscle attachment site.

180
Q

Patella

What is the patella?

A

The kneecap, a sesamoid bone that protects the knee joint and improves the leverage of the quadriceps muscle.

181
Q

Tibia

What is the tibia?

A

The larger and medial bone of the lower leg that bears most of the body’s weight.

182
Q

Tibia

What is the medial condyle of the tibia?

A

A rounded projection on the medial proximal tibia that articulates with the femur.

183
Q

Tibia

What is the lateral condyle of the tibia?

A

A rounded projection on the lateral proximal tibia that articulates with the femur.

184
Q

Tibia

What is the tibial tuberosity?

A

A rough area on the anterior tibia where the patellar ligament attaches.

185
Q

Tibia

What is the anterior crest of the tibia?

A

A sharp ridge along the anterior shaft of the tibia, commonly referred to as the shin bone.

Image: labelled as “Anterior border”

186
Q

Tibia

What is the medial malleolus?

A

A bony prominence on the distal tibia that forms the inner ankle.

187
Q

Fibula

What is the fibula?

A

The slender, lateral bone of the lower leg that provides muscle attachment but does not bear significant weight.

188
Q

Fibula

What is the head of the fibula?

A

The proximal end of the fibula that articulates with the tibia.

189
Q

Fibula

What is the lateral malleolus?

A

A bony prominence on the distal fibula that forms the outer ankle.

190
Q

Tarsals, Metatarsals, and Phalanges

What are the tarsals?

A

Seven bones forming the ankle and posterior foot.

191
Q

Tarsals, Metatarsals, and Phalanges

What are the names of the tarsals?

A

Calcaneus, talus, navicular, cuboid, lateral cuneiform, intermediate cuneiform, and medial cuneiform.

192
Q

Tarsals, Metatarsals, and Phalanges

Calcaneus

A

The dense heel bone, the largest tarsal, which bears most of the body’s weight.

193
Q

Tarsals, Metatarsals, and Phalanges

Navicular

A

A boat-shaped bone that connects the talus to the cuneiform bones.

194
Q

Tarsals, Metatarsals, and Phalanges

Talus

A

The ankle bone, which articulates with the tibia and fibula to form the ankle joint.

195
Q

Tarsals, Metatarsals, and Phalanges

What are the phalanges of the foot?

A

Fourteen bones in each foot, forming the toes, divided into proximal, middle, and distal segments.

196
Q

Tarsals, Metatarsals, and Phalanges

Cuboid

A

A cube-shaped bone on the lateral side of the foot, articulating with the fourth and fifth metatarsals.

197
Q

Tarsals, Metatarsals, and Phalanges

Lateral Cuneiform

A

Lies between the cuboid, the second metatarsal, and the intermediate cuneiform.

198
Q

Tarsals, Metatarsals, and Phalanges

Intermediate Cuneiform

A

Located between the medial and lateral cuneiform bones.

199
Q

Tarsals, Metatarsals, and Phalanges

Medial Cuneiform

A

The largest cuneiform, articulates with the first metatarsal (big toe).

200
Q

Metatarsals

What is the function of the metatarsals?

A

Support body weight and act as a lever for walking and running.

201
Q

Phalanges (Toe Bones)

Which toe does not have a middle phalanx?

A

The big toe (hallux) only has a proximal and distal phalanx.

GCU Anatomy & Physiology I (6 decks)

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