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BIOLOGY-EVIE > Topic 2- Organisation > Flashcards

Topic 2- Organisation Flashcards

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1
Q

What are large multicellular organisms made up of?

A

organ systems

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2
Q

what is the process where cells become specialised for a particular job called?

A

differentiation

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3
Q

when does differentiation occur?

A

during the development of multicellular organism

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4
Q

what do specialised cells form?

A

tissues

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5
Q

what is a tissue?

A

a group of similar cells the work together to carry out a particular function

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6
Q

Name three examples of tissues

A

Muscular tissue, Glandular tissue and Epithelial tissue.

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7
Q

What is the function of muscular tissue?

A

to contract to move whatever its attached to.

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8
Q

what is the function of Glandular tissue?

A

to make and secrete chemicals like enzymes and hormones.

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9
Q

what is the function of epithelial tissue?

A

to cover parts of the body.

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10
Q

give an example of parts of the body epithelial tissues cover

A

inside of the gut

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11
Q

what are tissues organised into?

A

organs

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12
Q

What are organs?

A

a group of tissues that work together to perform a certain function.

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13
Q

what three tissues is the stomach made up of?

A

Muscular tissue, Glandular tissue and epithelial tissue.

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14
Q

What is the function of Muscular tissue in the stomach?

A

moves the stomach wall to churn up food.

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15
Q

what is the function of glandular tissue in the stomach?

A

makes digestive juices to digest food.

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16
Q

what is the function of epithelial tissue in the stomach?

A

covers the outside and inside of the stomach.

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17
Q

How big is an epithelial cell?

A

less the 0.1 mm

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18
Q

How big is the stomach?

A

about ten cm, over 1000 times longer than an epithelial cell.

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19
Q

What are organs organised into?

A

organ systems

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20
Q

What is an organ system?

A

a group of organs working together to perform a particular function.

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21
Q

What does the digestive system do?

A

breaks down and absorbs food

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22
Q

what is the digestive system made up of?

A

glands , The stomach and small intestine, the liver, the small intestine and the large intestine.

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23
Q

What is a role of the glands?

A

e.g the pancreas and salivary glands which produce digestive juices.

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24
Q

what is the role of the stomach and small intestine?

A

they digest food

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25
Q

what is the role of the liver?

A

produce bile.

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26
Q

What is the role of the large intestine?

A

absorbs water from undigested food leaving faeces

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27
Q

What do organ systems that work together form?

A

organisms

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28
Q

What are enzymes?

A

biological catalysts produced by living things

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29
Q

why do chemical reactions in the body need to be carefully controlled?

A

to get the right amount of a substance.

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30
Q

How can you increase rate of reactions in the body?

A

raising the temperature.

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31
Q

Whats the disadvantages of raising the temperature to get a quicker ROR?

A

you would speed up the useful reactions but also the unwanted reactions too. also there a limi to how far you can raise body temperature before cells start to become damaged.

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32
Q

What do enzymes reduce the need of?

A

high temperatures. We only have enzymes to increase rates of useful reactions in the body.

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33
Q

What are catalysts?

A

a substance that increases the speed of a reaction with out being changed or used up in the reaction?

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34
Q

What are enzymes made up of?

A

large proteins in unique shapes.

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35
Q

What are proteins made up of?

A

long chains of amino acids.

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36
Q

Why do enzymes have special shapes?

A

so they can catalyse reactions.

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37
Q

What do chemical reactions usually involve?

A

things being split apart or joined together

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38
Q

What is the active site on a enzyme?

A

A unique shape that the substrate fits into.

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39
Q

How many reactions can enzymes catalyse?

A

usually one specific reaction.

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40
Q

why do enzymes only catalyse one reaction?

A

because the substrate has to match the enzymes active site for the reaction to be catalysed.

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41
Q

What diagram shows how enzymes work?

A

‘lock and key’ model.

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42
Q

How does the lock and key model differ from the actual process?

A

because the model doesn’t show ‘induced fit’ . (the active site actually changes shape slightly as the substrate binds to it for a tighter fit.)

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43
Q

What do enzymes need to work efficiently?

A

the right temperature and pH.

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44
Q

What does the temperature effect enzyme?

A

The higher the temperature the ROR increases. All enzymes have optimum temperatures they work best at.

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45
Q

What happens if the enzyme gets too hot?

A

bonds holding the enzyme together break, this changes the shame of the active site so substrates won’t fit anymore. the enzyme is denatured.

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46
Q

How does pH affect enzymes?

A

if the pH is too low or high the pH will interfere with the bonds holding the enzyme together. The shape of the active site changes and the enzyme is denatured.

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47
Q

Whats the most common optimum pH for an enzyme?

A

pH 7 (neutral), but this isn’t always the case.

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48
Q

give an example of an enzyme that doesn’t have an optimum pH of 7.

A

Pepsin - breaks down proteins in the stomach. It works best at pH 2. this means its more suited for the acidic conditions.

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49
Q

How do you carry out a practical that investigates the effect of pH on enzyme activity?

A

1- drop a spot of iodine solution into every well of a spotting tile.
2-place a bunsen burner on a heatproof mat, place a tripod and gauze onto of the bunsen burner. put a beaker of water onto of tripod and heat the water 35 degrees.
3- use syringe to add 1cmcubed of amylase solution and buffer solution (pH 5) to a boiling tube. using testable holders, put the tube into the beaker . and wait for five minutes.
4- use a different syringe to add 5cmcubed of a starch solution to the boiling tube.
5- immediately mix the contents and start stop clock
6- use a continuous sampling to record how long it takes the amylase to break down the starch. To do this use a dropping pipette to take a fresh sample from the boiling tube every 30 seconds and drop into a well. When the iodine remains browny orange starch is no longer present.
7- repeat the experiment with different buffer solutions of different pH values.
8-contol any variables each time, e.g concentration and volume of amylase.

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50
Q

how do you calculate rate of reaction?

A

rate = 1000/time or change in product formed/time

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51
Q

After enzymes breakdown big molecules such as starch, proteins and fats what happens?

A

the new smaller molecules such as amino acids, glycerol and fatty acids are soluble and can pass easy through the walls of the digestive system. They can then be absorbed into the bloodstream.

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52
Q

what converts carbohydrates into simple sugars?

A

carbohydrases.

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53
Q

give an example of a carbohydrase.

A

amylase (enzyme)

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54
Q

give an example of a carbohydrate.

A

starch.

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55
Q

name three places amylase is made.

A

salivary glands, the pancreas, the small intestine.

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56
Q

give an example of sugars.

A

maltose or dextrins

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57
Q

what converts proteins into amino acids.

A

proteases

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58
Q

where are proteases made?

A

the stomach, the pancreas and the small intestine.

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59
Q

what is protease called when its in the stomach?

A

pepsin

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60
Q

what converts lipids into glycerol and fatty acids?

A

lipase

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61
Q

what are lipids?

A

fats and oils.

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62
Q

what two places makes lipase?

A

the pancreas and the small intestine.

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63
Q

What is the purpose of bile?

A

neutralises the stomach acid and emulsifies fats.

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64
Q

Where is bile produced?

A

in the liver

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65
Q

where is bile stored?

A

Gall bladder

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66
Q

What organ is bile releases into?

A

The small intestine.

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67
Q

What is an issue with hydrochloric acid in the stomach?

A

makes the pH in the stomach acidic for enzymes in the small intestine to work properly.

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68
Q

How does bile help enzymes in the small intestine to work properly?

A

Bile is alkaline so it neutralises the stomach acid and makes conditions alkaline.

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69
Q

What conditions do enzymes work best at?

A

alkaline conditions

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70
Q

What does emulsifying fats mean?

A

Breaking down the fats into smaller droplets.

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71
Q

Why are fats emulsified?

A

it gives fats a greater surface area of fat for lipase to work on, digestion is faster.

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72
Q

What is made in the salivary glands?

A

amylase enzyme in the saliva.

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73
Q

What is the Gullet?

A

Oesophagus.

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74
Q

What enzyme does the stomach produce?

A

protease (pepsin)

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75
Q

Why does the stomach make hydrochloric acid?

A

To kill bacteria,

To give the right pH for pepsin to work (pH 2 - acidic)

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76
Q

What pH does the enzyme pepsin work best at?

A

pH 2 - acidic

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77
Q

What are the muscular walls of the stomach used for?

A

To pummel food.

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78
Q

What is produced in the liver?

A

Bile.

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79
Q

What is the purpose of the gall bladder?

A

To store bile and release it into the small intestine.

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80
Q

What does the pancreas produce?

A

Protease, lipase and amylase.

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81
Q

Where does the pancreas release enzymes to?

A

The small intestine.

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82
Q

What happens at the large intestine?

A

excess water is absorbed from food.

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83
Q

What does the small intestine produce?

A

amylase, lipase and protease enzymes to complete digestion.

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84
Q

What happens at the small enzyme?

A

digested food is absorbed out of the digestive system and into the blood.

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85
Q

What is the Rectum?

A

Where faeces ( indigestible food ) are stored.

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86
Q

How do you prepare food for food testes?

A

1- break up desired food using a pastel and mortar.
2- transfer food to breaker and add distilled water.
3- still mixture with a glass rod to dissolve some of food.
4- filter solution using a funnel lined with filter paper.

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87
Q

What is Benedicts solution used to test for?

A

Sugars

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88
Q

What time of sugar does Benedict’s solution test for?

A

Reducing sugars.

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89
Q

How do you carry out a food test with benedict’s solution?

A

1- Transfer 5cmcubed of a food sample to a test tube.
2-prepare a water bath set to 75 degrees.
3- add benedict’s solution to test tube ( ten drops) using a pipette.
4-Using a test tube holder place test tube in the water bath for five minutes, make sure the tube is pointing away from you.

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90
Q

What colour will Benedict’s solution change to?

A

It will turn from a blue colour to either, green, yellow or brick red depending on the amount of sugar in it.

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91
Q

What does iodine test for?

A

Starch

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92
Q

How do you carry out a food test with iodine?

A

1- add 5cmcubed of a food sample to a test tube.

2-add a few drops of iodine to the test tube and gently shake to mix the contents.

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93
Q

What colour will iodine go if starch is present?

A

It will go from browny - orange to black or black - blue

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94
Q

How do you test for lipids?

A

Sudan III solution

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95
Q

How do you carry out a food test using Sudan III solution?

A

1- add 5cmcubed of unfiltered food sample to a test tube
2- add three drops of the solution to test tube using a pipette and gently shake.
2-Sudan III solution stains lipids

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96
Q

How does Sudan III show that lipids are present?

A

The mixture will separate out into two layers, The top layer will be bright red.

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97
Q

Where are your lungs?

A

In the Thorax.

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98
Q

What is the Thorax?

A

The top part of your body.

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99
Q

What separates the thorax and the bottom part of your body?

A

The diaphragm

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100
Q

What are lungs protected by?

A

The rib cage.

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101
Q

What are lungs surrounded by?

A

Plueral membranes.

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102
Q

What does the Trachea separate into?

A

The bronchi going into each lung.

103
Q

What do the bronchi split into?

A

Bronchioles

104
Q

What are at the end of the bronchioles?

A

Alveoli.

105
Q

What happens at the Alveoli?

A

Gas Exchange.

106
Q

What surrounds the alveoli?

A

A network of blood capillaries.

107
Q

What is the blood like as it passes the alveoli as it returns from the rest of the body?

A

Full of carbon dioxide and little oxygen.

108
Q

How does the oxygen get from the alveoli to the blood.

A

It diffuses from an area of high concentration (alveoli) to the blood (low concentration).

109
Q

How does carbon dioxide get from the blood to the alveolus?

A

It diffuses from high concentration (blood) to low concentration (alveolus)

110
Q

What happens when the oxygenated blood reaches body cells?

A

It is released from red blood cells (High concentration) to be diffused into the body cells (low concentration)

111
Q

How do you calculate breathing rate in BPM?

A

BPM = number of breaths / number of minutes.

112
Q

What is the circulatory system?

A

It carried food and oxygen to every cell in the body, It also carries waste products away from the cells.

113
Q

What is the circulatory system made up of?

A

The heart, The Blood, The Blood Vessels.

114
Q

What is the double circulatory system?

A

Two circuits joined together.

115
Q

What happens in the first circuit? ( of the circulatory system )

A

The right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs to take in oxygen. The blood Then Returns to the heart.

116
Q

What happens in the second circuit? ( of the circulatory system )

A

pumps oxygenated blood round the body, then the deoxygenated blood returns back to the heart.

117
Q

How does the heart pump blood round the body?

A

It contracts.

118
Q

What are the walls of the heart made out of?

A

Muscle tissue.

119
Q

What do valves in the heart prevent?

A

bloody flowing backwards.

120
Q

How does the heart use the four chambers to pump blood around the body?

A

1- Blood flows into the atria from the vena carva and the pulmonary vein.
2- the atria contract pushing the blood into the ventricles
3-The ventricles contract forcing blood into the pulmonary artery and the aorta, blood flows out of the heart.
4-Blood flows through the organs through the arteries and returns through the veins
5- the atria fill again are the cycle repeats

121
Q

What does the heart need its own supply of?

A

Oxygenated blood.

122
Q

How does the Heart get its own supply of oxygenated blood?

A

arteries called the coronary articles branch of the aorta and surround the heart.

123
Q

What is your resting heart rate controlled by?

A

A group of cells in the right atrium wall that acts as a pace maker.

124
Q

How does your pacemaker work?

A

Electrical impulses spreads around the muscle cells causing the to contract.

125
Q

What are the three types of blood vessels?

A

Arteries - carry the blood away from the heart
capillaries - involved in the exchange of materials at the tissues
viens - carrying blood to the heart

126
Q

Why do the artery walls need to be strong and elastic?

A

To handle the pressure of the blood.

127
Q

What is the name of the hole down the middle of an artery?

A

Lumen.

128
Q

What allows the arteries to stretch and spring back?

A

elastic fibres.

129
Q

Wat do arteries branch into?

A

Capillaries.

130
Q

Why do capillaries carry blood close to the cell?

A

to exchange substances with them.

131
Q

Why do capillaries have permeable walls?

A

so substances can diffuse in and out.

132
Q

Why are capillary walls one cell thick?

A

It increases rate of diffusion by decreasing distance diffusion occurs.

133
Q

Where do veins take blood?

A

Back to the heart.

134
Q

What joins up to form veins?

A

Capillaries.

135
Q

Why do walls of veins not have to be as thick as artery walls?

A

Blood isn’t under such high pressure as it is when it flows through arteries.

136
Q

Why do veins have a bigger lumen?

A

To help blood flow under low pressure.

137
Q

Why do veins have valves?

A

To keep blood flowing in the right direction.

138
Q

How do you calculate the rate of blood flow?

A

Rate of blood flow = volume of blood / number of minutes

139
Q

What is rate of blood flow measured in?

A

ml/min

140
Q

What is the blood as a whole?

A

a tissue.

141
Q

What do red blood cells carry?

A

oxygen.

142
Q

What shape do red blood cells have?

A

Bioconcave disk.

143
Q

Whats the advantages of re blood cells being bioconcave?

A

Gives a larger surface area to absorb oxygen.

144
Q

Why don’t Red Blood Cells have a nucleus?

A

To make more space to carry oxygen.

145
Q

What else do red blood cells contain?

A

A red pigment call Haemoglobin.

146
Q

What does haemoglobin become when it binds to oxygen in the lungs?

A

oxyhaemoglobin.

147
Q

How do red blood cells release oxygen to body tissues?

A

Oxyhaemoglobin splits up into oxygen and haemoglobin to release oxygen to cells.

148
Q

What do white blood cells defend against?

A

Infection.

149
Q

What is the process called when white blood cells shape to engulf unwanted microorganisms.

A

Phagocytosis.

150
Q

What do white blood cells produce and release?

A

Antibodies

151
Q

What do antitoxins do?

A

neutralise any toxins produced by the microorganisms.

152
Q

What do white blood cells have that red blood cells don’t?

A

a nucleus.

153
Q

What do platelets help with?

A

blood clotting.

154
Q

What are platelets?

A

small fragments of cells that don’t contain a nucleus.

155
Q

What do lack of platelets cause?

A

excessive bleeding and bruising

156
Q

What is plasma?

A

A liquid that carries everything in the blood.

157
Q

What does Plasma carry?

A
  • red and white blood cells
  • nutrients (glucose and amino acids)
  • carbon dioxide
  • urea from liver to kidneys
  • hormones
  • proteins
  • antibodies and antitoxins
158
Q

What does ‘cardio vascular disease’ describe?

A

It describes diseases of the heart or blood vessels.

159
Q

Give an example of a cardiovascular disease

A

Coronary heart disease

160
Q

What can help prevent coronary heart disease?

A

Stents and Statins.

161
Q

What do stents do?

A

Keep arteries open.

162
Q

What is coronary heart disease?

A

when the coronary arteries get blocked by layers of fatty material. making the arteries narrow and restricting blood flow. There is a lack of oxygen to the blood which may lead to a heart attack.

163
Q

What are stents?

A

Tubes that are inserted inside arteries to keep them open, keeping a persons heart beating and keeping them alive.

164
Q

What are the advantages of using stents?

A
  • They lower the risk of a heart attack
  • They are effective for a long time
  • Short recovery time
165
Q

What are the disadvantages of using stents?

A
  • There is a res of complications during the surgery (e.g heart attack)
  • Risk of infection
  • Risk of patient developing blood clot near the stent
166
Q

What is a blood clot close to a stent called?

A

Thrombosis.

167
Q

What do statins reduce?

A

Cholesterol in the blood.

168
Q

What is cholesterol?

A

An essential lipid in your body and is essential for the body to function properly.

169
Q

Is there a down side to cholesterol?

A

too much cholesterol can cause health problems (e.g LDL cholesterol)

170
Q

What are statins?

A

Drugs that can reduce the amount of cholesterol present in the bloodstream. Slowing down the rate of fatty deposits forming

171
Q

What are the advantages of statins?

A
  • Statins can reduce the risk of strokes, coronary heart disease and heart attacks
  • statins increase the amount of beneficial type of cholesterol (HDL cholesterol) Thus type can remove bad cholesterol from the blood
  • studies suggest that statins may help prevent some other diseases
172
Q

What are the disadvantages of Statins?

A
  • a long term drug taken regularly, there is a risk of forgetting to take them
  • negative side effects e.g headaches
  • serious side effects e.g kidney failure and liver damage
  • effect of statins isn’t instant and takes time for the effect to kick in
173
Q

Are artificial hearts temporary?

A

yes

174
Q

What are the advantages of artificial hearts?

A
  • less likely to be rejected by the immune system than a donor heart.
175
Q

Why are artificial hearts less likely to be rejected by the bodies immune system?

A

They are made from plastics and metals so the body doesn’t recognise them as a foreign attack the same way it does with a living tissue.

176
Q

What are the disadvantages of artificial hearts?

A
  • surgery to fit artificial hearts and transplant surgery can lead to bleeding and infection.
  • they don’t work as well natural hearts, parts could wear out and the electrical motor could fail.
  • blood doesn’t flow through artificial hearts easily leading to blood clots then strokes.
177
Q

How do doctors make it easier for blood to flow through artificial heart?

A

The patient takes drugs to thin the blood.

178
Q

What are faulty heart valves replaced with?

A

Biological or mechanical valves.

179
Q

What can heart valves be weakened by?

A

Heart attacks, infection or old age.

180
Q

What can damage of the heart valves cause?

A

the valve tissues stiffen so it won’t open correctly or may begin to leak which would allow blood to flow or both directions instead of just forward.

181
Q

What happens when valves become leaky and don’t open properly?

A

Blood doesn’t circulate properly and effectively.

182
Q

How is severe heart valve damage treated?

A

By replacing the heart valve.

183
Q

Where do replacement heart valves come from?

A

Humans or other mammals (cows or pigs)

184
Q

What are heart valves taken from mammals called?

A

Biological valves

185
Q

What are man-made heart valves called?

A

mechanical valves

186
Q

What are the advantages of using valves?

A

It’s a less drastic procedure than a whole heart transplant.

187
Q

Wha are the disadvantages of using heart valves?

A

Fitting artificial valves is still major surgery and there can still be problems with blood clots.

188
Q

What is artificial blood?

A

a blood substitute. e.g a salt solution ‘saline’ is used to replace the loss amount of blood.

189
Q

Is artificial blood safe?

A

Yes as long as no air bubbles get into the blood.

190
Q

What are the advantages of artificial blood?

A
  • It can keep people alive even if they loose 2/3 of their red blood cells.
  • it gives people time to produce new blood cells, if not they may need a blood transfusion.
191
Q

What is a major cause of ill health?

A

Disease

192
Q

What are the two catorgories of diseases?

A

-communicable
or
-Non-communicable

193
Q

What are communicable diseases?

A

Diseases that are spread from person to person or between animals and people.

194
Q

What are communicable diseases caused by?

A

Bacteria, Viruses, Parasites and fungi.

195
Q

What are communicable diseases sometimes described as?

A

Contagious or infectious diseases

196
Q

Give two examples of communicable diseases.

A

Measles and malaria.

197
Q

What are non-communicable diseases?

A

those not spread between people or animals.

198
Q

What are the characteristics of non-communicable diseases?

A

They last for along time and get worse slowly.

199
Q

Name three examples of non-communicable diseases.

A

Asthma, Cancer and Coronary heart disease

200
Q

If you have a problem with your immune system why would you have an increases chance of suffering from communicable diseases?

A

The body is less likely to defend itself from the pathogen that causes the disease.

201
Q

What non-communicable disease can be triggered by infection and viruses?

A

Some types of cancer.

202
Q

What can mental health issues be triggered by?

A

suffering from severe mental health problems. particularly if the health problems affect everyday activities or life expectancy.

203
Q

What other factors effect health?

A
  • diet (whether or not you have a good, balanced diet)
  • Stress
  • Life situation (easy access to medical help, or ways to prevent you from getting ill.)
204
Q

What do risk factors increase your chance of?

A

Getting a disease

205
Q

What are risk factors?

A

aspects or someones lifestyle (e.g exercise) or the presence of certain substances in the environment e.g air pollution.

206
Q

What are many non communicable diseases caused by.

A

several different risk factors interacting with each other.

207
Q

Give examples of where risk factors have directly caused disease.

A

smoking has been proven to directly cause cardiovascular disease, lung disease and lung cancer. It damages the walls of arteries and cells in the lining of the lungs.

208
Q

What is cancer caused by?

A

uncontrolled cell growth and division.

209
Q

What is a tumour?

A

A mass of cells

210
Q

What are the different types of Tumours?

A

Benign or Malignant.

211
Q

What are benign tumours?

A

Where the tumour grows till there is no more room. The tumour stays in one place rather than invading other tissues in the body. This type isn’t cancerous and isn’t normally dangerous.

212
Q

What are malignant tumours?

A

where the tumour grows and spreads to neighbouring healthy tissues. cells can break off and spread to other parts of the body by travelling in the blood stream. The malignant called evade healthy tissues and form secondary tumours. Malignant tumours are dangerous and can be fatal - They are cancerous.

213
Q

How is Obesity a risk factor for cancer?

A

It is linked to bowel, liver and kidney cancer.

214
Q

What are people who live in sunny climates more at risk of?

A

UV exposure and skin cancer.

215
Q

What viruses increase the risk of getting liver cancer?

A

Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C. These can be spread by unprotected sex and sharing needles.

216
Q

What else can risk factors can be associated with?

A

genetics

217
Q

What are plant cells organised into?

A

Tissues and organs

218
Q

Name examples of plant tissues.

A 
Epidermal tissue
Palisade mesophyll tissue
Spongy mesophyll tissue
Xylem and phloem
Meristem tissue
219
Q

What is the epidermal tissue?

A

It covers the whole plant.

220
Q

What are the palisade mesophyll tissues?

A

Where photosynthesis happens.

221
Q

what are the Spongy mesophyll tissues?

A

It contains big big air spaces to allow gasses to diffuse into the cells.

222
Q

What are the xylem and phloem vessels?

A

They transport things like water, mineral ions and food around the plant.

223
Q

What is the meristem tissues?

A

found at the growing tips of shoots and roots and is able to differentiate into lots of different types of cell.

224
Q

Why are epidermal tissues covered with a waxy cuticle?

A

To reduce water loss by evaporation.

225
Q

Why is the upper epidermis transparent?

A

so the light can pass into the palisade layer.

226
Q

Why does the palisade layer have lots of chloroplasts?

A

the palisade layer is at the top of the leaf so it means chloroplasts are at the top and get the most light.

227
Q

The xylem and phloem form a network of what?

A

Vascular bundles.

228
Q

How are the tissues of the leaf adapted for gas exchange?

A

The lower epidermis is full of little holes called stomata which let CO2 diffuse directly into the leaf

229
Q

What do phloem tubes transport?

A

Food.

230
Q

What are phloem tubes made of?

A

Columns of elongated living cells with small pores in the end of the walls to allow cell sap to flow through.

231
Q

Where do phloem tubes transport food from?

A

the leaves

232
Q

which way is transportation in phloem tubes?

A

both directions.

233
Q

What is the process called where by food is transported by the phloem tubes?

A

Translocation.

234
Q

What do xylem tubes do?

A

Take water up the plant.

235
Q

What are xylem tubes made from?

A

Dead cells joined at the end.

236
Q

What are xylem tubes strengthened with?

A

A material called lignin

237
Q

Where do xylem tubes carry water from?

A

The roots to the stem and leaves

238
Q

What is the process of water moving from the roots through the xylem and out of the leaves called?

A

Transpiration stream.

239
Q

What is Transpiration?

A

The loss of water from a plant

240
Q

What is transpiration caused by?

A

Evaporation and diffusion.

241
Q

Where does most transpiration happen?

A

At the leaves

242
Q

How is water lost from transpiration replaced?

A

More water is drawn up from the rest of the plant through the xylem vessels.

243
Q

What your things are transpiration rate affected by?

A

1- Light intensity
2- Temperature
3- Air flow
4- Humidity

244
Q

Explain how transpiration is affected by light intensity.

A

The brighter the light the greater the transpiration rate, Stomata begins to lose in darker conditions. Photosynthesis can’t happen in the dark so the don’t open to let in CO2. When the stomata closes little water can escape.

245
Q

Explain how transpiration is affected by temperature.

A

The warmer it is the faster transpiration happens. Particles of water have more energy in warmer conditions.

246
Q

Explain how transpiration is affected by air flow.

A

The stronger the wind around a leaf the greater the transpiration rate. less particles stay close to the leaf and the concentration of particles is ,lower meaning diffusion happens quicker. If air flow is poor, water vapour just surrounds the leaf, meaning the is a high concentration of water particles so diffusion happens slower.

247
Q

Explain how transpiration is affected by Humidity.

A

The drier the air around the leaf the faster transpiration happens. (the same as air flow)

248
Q

How do you estimate the rate of transpiration?

A

Potometer - By Measuring the uptake of water by a plant. Water uptake is directly related to water loss. Record the amount of time it takes an air bubble to move aa certain distance.

249
Q

What are guard cells adapted to do?

A

open and close stomata.

250
Q

What kind of shape do guard cells have?

A

Kidney

251
Q

What happens to guard cells when the plants have lots of water?

A

They fill with water and turn plump making stomata open so gases can be exchanged for photosynthesis.

252
Q

What happens to guard cells when the plant is short of water?

A

the guard cells lose too much water and become flaccid making the stomata lose stoping water vapour from escaping.

253
Q

Why are guard cells sensitive to light?

A

So they close at night so they save water without loosing out on photosynthesis.

254
Q

Why do you find more stomata on the undersides of leaves?

A

The lower surface is shaded and cooler so less water is lost through the stomata the if they were on the upper surface.

BIOLOGY-EVIE (8 decks)

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