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Pharmacology N2100 > TopHat & Test Questions > Flashcards

TopHat & Test Questions Flashcards

1
Q

(2) What does pharmacokinetics mean?

A

The study of the ways drugs move throughout the body

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2
Q

(2) Which one of these is NOT a body part that can be used for absorption of drugs?

A

hair

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3
Q

(2) True or False: A nurse can allow a patient to chew an enteric coated pill?

A

F

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4
Q

(2) What is the main way drugs are distributed throughout the body?

A

Through the circulatory system

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5
Q

(2) What is the pharmacokinetic term for the breakdown of drugs in order to excrete them more easily?

A

metabolism

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6
Q

(2) What is/are the main organ(s) associated with excretion of drugs?

A

kidneys

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7
Q

(2) Which term refers to the level of drug in the blood that is between the minimum effective concentration and toxic concentration levels?

A

therapeutic range

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8
Q

(2) What is the term for a type of drug that produces a response in a cell?

A

agonist

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9
Q

(2) Which term refers to a drug that is potentially harmful to an unborn baby?

A

teratogenic

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10
Q

(2) What is the term used for the effect of a drug when higher and higher doses are eventually needed to create the desired effect?

A

drug tolerance

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11
Q

(3) List the steps of the nursing process in order.

A 
Assess
Diagnose
Plan
Implement
Evaluate
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12
Q

(3) Which of the following is NOT a main consideration of a nursing diagnosis related to pharmacology?

A

forcing compliance

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13
Q

(3) What is a question we ask in the planning stage of the nursing process?

A

???

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14
Q

(3) Which is NOT a part of the implementation stage of the nursing process related to pharmacology?

A

evaluating

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15
Q

(3) What is a good rule to follow when trying to determine how much medication to give to a patient?

A

dose low and slow

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16
Q

(3) List the medication pregnancy categories in order from least problematic to most problematic.

A 
Least = A
B
C
D
Most = X
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17
Q

(3) True or False: medications have the same effects on breastfeeding babies as they do on the moms who are taking the medications?

A

T

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18
Q

(3) Which is NOT a method to compute pediatric dosages?

A

BMI

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19
Q

(3) What is the term we use when patients use many medications at the same time?

A

polypharmacy

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20
Q

(3) True or False: Herbs are always safe because they are natural.

A

F

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21
Q

(4) Q: A patient is being discharged to home with a new prescription for hydrocodone/acetoaminophen 5/325 mg po q4-6h prn. Which of the following statements by your pt leads you to believe that she has understood the teaching you have done about the relief of pain.
A. “after I take the medication, I will use distraction to lessen the pain until I start getting relief”
B. I will take the med only after the pain is severe”
C. If I think that I may have pain during the day, I will take a dose in the morning with breakfast”
D. After I take the med, I should get total relief in 5 minutes.”

A

A. “after I take the medication, I will use distraction to lessen the pain until I start getting relief”

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22
Q 
(4) Q: Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for the use of cholinergic agonist drugs?
A. asthma
B. diabetes mellitus
C. bradycardia
D. bowel obstruction
A

B. diabetes mellitus

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23
Q 
(4) Q: Atropine and atropine-like drugs are anticholinergics. Atropine is usually prescribed as one fot eh preoperative drugs. What is the primary use for atropine as a preoperative drug?
A. decrease urination
B. decrease GI motility
C. decrease salivation
D. decrease HR
A

C. decrease salivation (so they don’t aspirate)

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24
Q

(4) Q: a nurse is discharging a pt who is taking an anticholinergics med. Which of the following should the nurse include is the discharge teaching regarding the pt’s anticholinergic med?
A. Decrease fluid and fiber intake to avoid diarrhea
B. instruct the pt to use sunglasses in bright light
C. alert the pt that drowsiness may occur and to avoid driving a car
D. suggest hard candy, chewing gum, & oral hygiene for dry mouth

A

B. instruct the pt to use sunglasses in bright light
C. alert the pt that drowsiness may occur and to avoid driving a car
D. suggest hard candy, chewing gum, & oral hygiene for dry mouth

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25
Q

(4) Q: How does the student nurse explain the action of an agonist to a pt?
A. it produces a desired therapeutic effect
B. it blocks a cellular response
C. it produces a response similar to regular cellular function
D. it produces an idiosyncratic response

A

C. it produces a response similar to regular cellular function

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26
Q

(4) Q: The nurse was very busy and administered a new, unfamiliar med without looking it up first. Later the nurse looked up the med. How would the nurse manager evaluate this behavior?
A. an error could have occurred because the nurse was unfamiliar with the med
B. this was acceptable as long as the nurse looked up the action and side effects of the drug at some point
C. it was an error

A

A. an error could have occurred because the nurse was unfamiliar with the med

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27
Q

(4) What is the name the adrenergic system is known for?

A

fight or flight

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28
Q

(4) What is the main neurotransmitter of the adrenergic system?

A

norepineprine

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29
Q

(4) True or False: stimulation of the adrenergic system causes an overall increase in blood pressure.

A

T

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30
Q

(4) What are the main adrenergic receptors found in the lungs?

A

beta 2

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31
Q

(4) What affect will an adrenergic antagonist have on the body?

A

pupil constriction

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32
Q

(4) Is epinephrine selective or nonselective?

A

nonselective

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33
Q

(4) What is propranolol used to treat?

A

hypertension

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34
Q

(4) What affect does would a cholinergic agonist have on the body?

A

increased motility of GI tract

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35
Q

(4) What is the main receptor of the cholinergic system?

A

muscarinic

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36
Q

(4) What medication would be used in the event of cholinergic crisis?

A

atropine

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37
Q

(5) Q: the best description of chronic pain?

A

It persists for more than 6 months.

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38
Q

(5) Q: True or False: Acetaminophen treats inflammation.

A

F

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39
Q

(5) Q: Which organ is acetaminophen intoxication most damaging to?

A

liver

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40
Q 
(5) Q: Which of the following is NOT a contraindication of aspirin?
A. child with a cold
B. pregnant women in third trimester
C. a middle-aged man with a fever
D. elderly women with GI bleeding
A

C. a middle-aged man with a fever

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41
Q 
(5) Q: Which of the following would NOT be included in the patient teaching about ibuprofen?
A. 
B. 
C. 
D.
A

Report black hairy tongue.

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42
Q

(5) Q: What is celecoxib commonly used for?

A

arthritis

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43
Q

(5) Q: What is the antidote for opioids?

A

naloxone (narcan)

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44
Q 
(5) Q: Which of the following is NOT a common adverse effect of morphine?
A. 
B. 
C. 
D.
A

tachycardia

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45
Q

(5) Q: How does sumatriptan work to relieve headaches?

A

It causes intracranial vasoconstriction.

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46
Q

(5) Q: What are TWO drugs used in the treatment of gout?

A

colchicine, allopurinol

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47
Q 
(5) Max dosages per day:
ibuprofen
acetominophen
aspirin
sumatriptan
A

3200 mg
4000mg
4000 mg
100 mg

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48
Q

(5) Q: An 80 year old woman, who is scheduled for a total knee replacement next month, currently takes ibuprofen 600 mg three times per day.
Which client teaching is most important?
A. Continue ibuprofen until surgery
B. Stop ibuprofen today
C. Decrease ibuprofen to two times per day
D. Stop ibuprofen 7 to 14 days before surgery

A

D. Stop ibuprofen 7 to 14 days before surgery

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49
Q

(5) Q: The nurse should question the order of acetaminophen for which client?
A. client with cirrhosis of the liver
B. client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
C. client with breast cancer
D. client who is taking warfarin

A

A. client with cirrhosis of the liver

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50
Q 
(5) Q: What substance is used to treat serious cases of acetaminophen overdose?
A. naloxone
B. acetylcysteine
C. caffeine
D. colchicine
A

B. acetylcysteine

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51
Q 
(5) Q: A client has a fever and is allergic to aspirin.  Which medication will the nurse anticipate administering to reduce the client’s fever?
A. Ibuprofen
B. Ketorolac
C. Acetaminophen
D. Celecoxib
A

C. Acetaminophen

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52
Q 
(5) Q: A client takes aspirin daily for pain in the right knee. Which toxic effect may be present with aspirin overdosage?
A. Tinnitus
B. Peripheral neuropathy
C. Heart arrhythmias
D. Seizure activity
A

A. Tinnitus

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53
Q 
(5) Q: The nurse is monitoring the client for adverse effects associate with morphine. Which adverse effect would NOT be expected?
A. Respiratory depression
B. Hypertension
C. Constipation
D. Nausea
A

B. Hypertension

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54
Q

(5) Q: Several days postoperative bowel surgery, the client is eating soft food, ambulating regularly, and using hydrocodone for pain. What should the nursing care plan include?
A. Monitoring for vital signs for respiratory depression
B. Inserting a urinary catheter for urinary retention
C. Weaning pain medication to prevent addiction
D. Increasing dietary fiber and fluids and administering a stool softener if needed

A

D. Increasing dietary fiber and fluids and administering a stool softener if needed

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55
Q

(5) Q: While assessing a client on a continuous morphine intravenous infusion, the nurse notices the client’s respiratory rate to be 9 breaths per minute. What action should the nurse take next?
A. Do client teaching on the signs and symptoms of hyperventilation
B. Continue monitoring the client
C. Stop the infusion, call the provider and be prepared to give naloxone (Narcan)
D. Sit the client up in a high fowlers position and administer oxygen

A

C. Stop the infusion, call the provider and be prepared to give naloxone (Narcan)

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56
Q 
(5) Q: Sumatriptan, a serotonin agonist, can be potentially dangerous when taken with certain substances. Which of the following substances should a patient who is taking sumatriptan avoid?
A. peppermint
B. milk
C. vitamin K
D. MAOI's
A

D. MAOI’s

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57
Q

(5) Q: The nurse is caring for a client who is taking allopurinol for preventing gout attacks. Client teaching should include all the following EXCEPT:
A. Avoid foods such as legumes, salmon and mushrooms
B. Increase fluid intake to 2-4 liters per day
C. Take with food
D. This medication is safe to take during pregnancy

A

D. This medication is safe to take during pregnancy

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58
Q

(5) Should you use Sumatriptan within 14 days of surgery

A

No!

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59
Q

(6) Q: Which receptors do benzodiazepines work on?

A

GABA

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60
Q

(6) Q: What is the most common adverse effect of lorazepam and diazepam?

A

Drowsiness

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61
Q 
(6) Q: What should the nurse warn the patient about who has received a new prescription of zolpidem?
A. nightmares
B. sleep walking and sleep eating
C. inability to stay asleep
D. bed-wetting
A

B. sleep walking and sleep eating

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62
Q

(6) Q: Which of the following is NOT a nursing consideration for a patient taking donepezil?
A. monitor cognitive function
B. monitor for depression and anxiety
C. monitor for constipation
D. monitor for GI bleeding, especially with use of NSAIDS

A

C. monitor for constipation

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63
Q 
(6) Q: What is a common adverse effect of donepezil?
A. sleepiness
B. increased blood sugar
C. urinary retention
D. nausea
A

D. nausea

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64
Q 
(6) Q: Which is NOT a common adverse effect of amphetamine/dextroamphetamine?
A. insomnia
B. bleeding gums
C. anorexia
D. irritability
A

B. bleeding gums

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65
Q 
(6) Q: Which of the following is an important teaching point for patients taking atomoxatine?
A. report suicidal thoughts
B. report yeast infection of the mouth
C. report ringing in the ears
D. report joint pain
A

A. report suicidal thoughts

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66
Q

(6) Q: At what point might a client get diagnosed with an anxiety disorder and be offered treatment with medications?

A

if the symptoms have been chronic and are interfering with the client’s ability to function

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67
Q 
(6) Q: Which of the following is NOT currently used in the treatment of anxiety/insomnia?
A. narcotics, such as morphine
B. anxyolitics
C. antihistamines (diphenhydramine)
D. Herbs
A

A. narcotics, such as morphine

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68
Q

(6) Q: Which medication is used as the antidote for benzodiazepine overdose?

A

flumazenil

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69
Q

(7) Q: What is the best way to describe the pathophysiology of Parkinson’s Disease?

A

Not enough dopamine, too much acetylcholine

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70
Q

(7) Q: What is a common adverse effect of levodopa?

A

involuntary movements

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71
Q

(7) Q: Why is carbidopa combined with levodopa?

A

Carbidopa prevents the destruction of levodopa and allows for lower doses of levodopa.

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72
Q

(7) Q: What is a common adverse effect of the Parkinson’s Disease medication, benztropine?

A

dry mouth

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73
Q

(7) Q: Cyclobenzaprine, a medication often used for muscle spasms caused by injury, is what class of medication?

A

central-acting muscle relaxer

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74
Q

(7) Q: Which of the following TWO are common adverse effects of dantrolene sodium?

A
  1. muscle weakness

2. drowsiness

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75
Q

(7) ***Q: Which of the following is NOT a teaching point for clients using oral calcium carbonate?

A

avoid calcium-rich foods

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76
Q

(7) Q: Which of the following is NOT an important teaching point associated with the medication, alendronate?
alendronate include all EXCEPT:
A. take at the same time as calcium supplements
B. Keep patient upright for 30 minutes after administering
C. Encourage weight bearing exercise
D. Take on an empty stomach

A

take at the same time as calcium supplements

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77
Q

(7) Q: Which type of patient should NOT take raloxifene?

A

pregnant women & men! (men will ALWAYS be a contraindication for Raloxifene because it’s estrogen)

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78
Q

(7) Q: What is hydroxychloroquine used to treat?

A

rheumatoid arthritis

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79
Q 
(7) Q: Drugs used to treat Parkinson’s Disease are in the following classes:
A. NSAIDS and immunosuppressants
B. Bisphosphonates and SERMS
C. Anticholinergics and dopaminergics
D. Adrenergics and anticholinergics
A

C. Anticholinergics and dopaminergics

80
Q

(7) Q: Levodopa is combined with carbidopa because:
A. Carbidopa minimizes the adverse effects of levodopa.
B. The combined action of the two drugs together is more effective.
C. Carbidopa has a greater effect on dopamine receptors.
D. Carbidopa allows for much lower doses of levodopa

A

D. Carbidopa allows for much lower doses of levodopa

81
Q

(7) Q: Patient teaching for the anti-cholinergic medication, benztropine, should include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Take with other CNS depressants for full effect.
B. Chew gum or suck on hard candy.
C. Increase fluid and fiber.
D. Make position changes slowly.

A

A. Take with other CNS depressants for full effect.

82
Q

(7) Q: The class of medication that works best on muscle spasms due to muscle injury are:
A. Central acting muscle relaxers
B. Direct acting muscle relaxers

A

A. Central acting muscle relaxers

83
Q

(7) Q: The class of medication that works best on spasticity due to strokes or spinal cord injury is:
A. Central acting muscle relaxers
B. Direct acting muscle relaxers

A

B. Direct acting muscle relaxers

84
Q 
(7) The length of time a patient should safely use cyclobenzaprine is:
A. 2 days
B. 2 weeks
C. 5 years
D. It can be used indefinitely.
A

B. 2 weeks

85
Q 
(7) Q: The drug of choice for malignant hyperthermia is:
A.. Pramipexole
B. Hydroxychloroquine
C. Dantrolene sodium
D. Alendronate
A

C. Dantrolene sodium

86
Q

(7) Q: Nursing considerations and patient teaching for alendronate include all EXCEPT:
A. Take with milk
B. Keep patient upright for 30 minutes after administering
C. Encourage weight bearing exercise
D. Take on an empty stomach

A

A. Take with milk

87
Q 
(7) Q: Common side effects of raloxifene include:
A. Hot flashes
B. Hepatotoxicity
C. Increased blood sugar
D. Tachycardia
A

A. Hot flashes

88
Q 
(7) Q: Hydroxychloroquine is used:
A. To prevent osteoclasts from breaking down bone
B. To balance neurotransmitters in PD
C. To stop muscle contraction in the CNS
D. To decrease the inflammation of RA
A

D. To decrease the inflammation of RA

89
Q

(7) TQ: A nurse is working a night shift at the hospital and is caring for a pt receiving zolpidem for sleep. Which nursing intervention should be included for this pt?

A. keep the bathroom light on and the bathroom door slightly open so the pt can easily see the way to the bathroom at night
B. assist the pt to the bathroom every half hour to prevent falling
C. leave the room light on so the pt will not get distorted when waking up in a strange room
D. make sure the pt is fully assessed every 15 minutes through the night to assure no negative outcomes from the chemical restraint

A

A. keep the bathroom light on and the bathroom door slightly open so the pt can easily see the way to the bathroom at night

90
Q

(7) TQ: Which of the following statements are related to the fact that Zolpidem is a Schedule IV controlled substance?
A. two nurses must count zolpidem every shift
B. Zolpidem has a short-half life
C. Zolpidem can be abused and lead to dependency
D. Zolpidem needs to be kept in a safe place to prevent abuse and misuse

A

A. two nurses must count zolpidem every shift
C. Zolpidem can be abused and lead to dependency
D. Zolpidem needs to be kept in a safe place to prevent abuse and misuse

91
Q

(7) TQ: What instructions should be given to a pt who is taking carbidop/levodopa for Parkinson’s Disease?
A. increase intake of fluid and fiber
B. avoid drinking caffeinated beverages
C. take the medication between meals
D. take the medication at least 30 mintues before a meal

A

A. increase intake of fluid and fiber

92
Q 
(7) TQ: Which of the following is NOT a potential adverses effect of oral calcium carbonate? Select all that apply.
A. hypercalcemia
B. kidney stones
C. IV site problems
D. muscle twitching
A

C. IV site problems

D. muscle twitching

93
Q 
(7) TQ: the nurse is creating a teaching plan for a client on the cardiac unit and is researching the medications the client is currently taking to understand how each drug produces its effects in the body. To find this information, the nurse looks up which classification for each medication?
A. therapetic
B. pharmacologic
C. cardiac
D. disease
A

B. pharmacologic

94
Q

(7) TQ: A nurse is administering a new drug to a pt. The nurse researched the drug prior to giving it to the pt and discovered the drug was a prodrug. How would the nurse best describe what a prodrug is to the pt?
A. a drug that activated another chemical substance
B. a drug that has an additive affect
C. a drug that is inactive until it is broken down in the liver
D. a drug that stimulates a receptor to active the cell

A

C. a drug that is inactive until it is broken down in the liver

95
Q 
(8) Q: Choose all the factors that raise blood sugar levels.
Multiple answers: 
A. steroid use
B. stress
C. exercise
D. insulin use
E. major infection or injury
A

A. steroid use
B. stress
E. major infection or injury

96
Q

(8) Q: Which insulin is short acting?

A

regular insulin (Novalin R)

97
Q

(8) Q: What is the most common and significant adverse effect of insulin?

A

hypoglycemia

98
Q

(8) Q: What is an advantage of the biguanide, metformin, that makes it the drug of choice for type 2 diabetes?

A

It has a low risk of causing hypoglycemia.

99
Q

(8) Q: True or False: Levothyroxine should be taken with food.

100
Q

(8) Q: Choose all the appropriate teaching points for people taking levothyroxine.
A. Report CNS adverse effects such as tremors and nervousness
B. Report cardiac adverse effects such as tachycardia and palpitations
C. Do not change brands without consulting your doctor.

A

A. Report CNS adverse effects such as tremors and nervousness
B. Report cardiac adverse effects such as tachycardia and palpitations
C. Do not change brands without consulting your doctor.

101
Q

(8) Q: Which of the following is NOT an appropriate use for glucocorticoids (steroids)?

A

treating osteoporosis

102
Q

(8) Q: Which of the following is a strategy to avoid adverse effects of steroids?

A

use local routes (inhaled, topical)

103
Q

(8) Q: Which is an important teaching point for patients using prednisone?

A

don’t abruptly stop takng

104
Q

(8) Q: What is fludrocortisone used for?

A

to decrease fluid loss

105
Q

(9) Q: Which THREE of the following are therapeutic effects of lisinopril?
Multiple answers: You can select more than one option
A. vasodilation
B. decreased fluid retention
C. reverses the symptoms of a stroke
D. stabilization of cardiac remodeling

A

A. vasodilation
B. decreased fluid retention
D. stabilization of cardiac remodeling

106
Q 
(9) Q: What is a potential adverse effect of nifedipine, a selective calcium channel blocker, due to its mechanism of action?
A. rebound tachycardia
B. hypertension
C. skin blanching
D. urinary retention
A

A. rebound tachycardia

107
Q

(9) Q: What two physiologic effects does verapamil have because it is non-selective?
A. decreased heart rate and vasodilation
B. increased heart rate and vasodilation
C. increased diuresis of fluid and vasodilation
D. decreased release of aldosterone and vasodilation

A

A. decreased heart rate and vasodilation

108
Q

(9) Q: A patient is due for their morning dose of metoprolol and their blood pressure is 82/66. What should the nurse do?
A. take the patient’s apical pulse and give the med if the pulse is above 60
B. hold the medication and notify the provider
C. wait until after the patient eats breakfast, and then give the medication
D. give the patient a dose of epinephrine to bring up the blood pressure

A

B. hold the medication and notify the provider

109
Q

(9) Q: What should the nurse watch out for with a patient’s first dose of prazosin?
A. an extreme drop in blood pressure
B. an allergic reaction, including hives and difficulty breathing
C. a sudden inability to see
D. a sharp increase in blood sugar

A

A. an extreme drop in blood pressure

First dose effect

110
Q 
(9) Q. What is hydralazine used for?
A. treatment of MI
B. treatment of stroke
C. hypertensive crisis
D. extreme fluid retention
A

C. hypertensive crisis

111
Q

(9) Q: Which of the following is NOT an objective of treating hypertension?
a. reduce BP
b. reduce risk factors
c. prevent the client from ever having to see their care provider
c. prevent client from developing related diseases

A

c. prevent the client from ever having to see their care provider

112
Q

(9) Q: What helps determine the pharmacologic treatment of hypertension?

A
  1. whether the patient has other diseases such as kidney disease or diabetes
  2. race
113
Q

(9) Q: Which THREE of the following are therapeutic effects of lisinopril?
a. vasodilation
b. decreased fluid retention
c. reverse stroke
d. stabilization of cardiac remodeling

A

a. vasodilation
b. decreased fluid retention
d. stabilization of cardiac remodeling

114
Q

(9) Q: What is the mechanism of action of losartan?

A

it blocks angiotensin II from attaching to target cells

Satan blocks 2 angels from reaching their target goal

115
Q

(9) Q: Which type of the following situations would required an increase in insuline or an additional insulin injection for an individual with TYpe 1 diabetes?
a. taking a nap
b. having acute appendicitis
c. running a marathon
d. eating a bag of halloween candy

A

b. having acute appendicitis

d. eating a bag of halloween candy

116
Q

(9) Q: A type 1 diabetic pt exhibits nervousness, pale skin, confusion, sweating, and increased pulse rate. Which of the following nursing actions is best?
a. pt is experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis, start and insulin drip
b. pt is hypoglycemic, check blood glucose level and administer carbohydrate if low
c. pt is hyperglycemic, check blood glucose level and administer sliding scale insulin as ordered by the physician
d. this is normal reaction for anyone with diabetes, monitor VS until symptoms pass.

A

b. pt is hypoglycemic, check blood glucose level and administer carbohydrate if low

117
Q

(9) Q: The portable or external insulin pumps are programmed by the client to deliver a basal insulin dose per hour and a bolus dose at meals as needed. Which type(s) os insulin can be used in insulin pumps?
a. NPH insulin
b. . insulin lispro (humalog)
c. insulin detemir (Levemir)
d. regular insulin (R)

A

b. . insulin lispro (humalog)

d. regular insulin (R)

118
Q

(9) Q: a nurse is caring for a type 1 diabetic pt. Pt is started on prednisone. Which of the following would the nurse expect to occur in relation to the pt’s new medi

A

amount of insulin will need to be increased

119
Q

(9) Q: in efforts to minimize adverse effects, which of the following strategies can be used in the prescribing of glucocorticoids?
a. use every other day
b. use the lowest dose possible
c. use localized meds

A

a. use every other day
b. use the lowest dose possible
c. use localized meds

120
Q

(9) Q: Nurse is caring for a 50-yr-old with moderate hypertension. Pt has no other comorbidities. Which of the following meds could be used as a first-line pharm treatment for Hypertension for this pt?
a. ace inhibitors
b. direct-acting vasodilators
c. calcium channel blockers
d. thiazide diuretics

A

a. ace inhibitors
c. calcium channel blockers
d. thiazide diuretics

121
Q

(9) Q: which of the following is a reason why a care provider might prescribe metoprolol, a selective beta blocker?
a. pt. has a history of gastric ulcers, and metoprolol has fewer GI effects
b. pt is a diabetic, and metoprolol has less of an effect on BS levels than non-selective beta blcokers
c. the pt. has COPD, and metoprolol will have minimal effects on lung function

A

c. the pt. has COPD, and metoprolol will have minimal effects on lung function

122
Q

(9) Q: which of the following is NOT a therapeutic effect of ace inhibitors and arbs?
a. decrease in cardiac muscle O2 consumption
b. decreased release of aldosterone
c. increased vasodilation
d. stabilization of cardiac remodeling

A

a. decrease in cardiac muscle O2 consumption

123
Q

(9) Q: the nurse should expect which of the following common side effects of nifedipine a calcium channel blocker?
a. paleness
b. bradycardia
c. headache
d. hypertension

A

c. headache

124
Q

(9) Q: which is an important pt teaching point to include for a pt receiving verapamil, a non-dyhydropyridine calcium channel blocker?

125
Q

(9) Q: When beta-adrenergic blocking drugs are administered, which condition might the person be at increased risk for?
a. hypotension
b. heart attack
c. tachycardia
d. stroke

A

a. hypotension

126
Q

(9) Q: a nurse is caring for a pt with Parkinson’s. Which drug groups that are used to control Parkinson’s would the nurse anticipate using for this pt?
a. anticholinergics
b. central acting smooth muscle relaxers
c. dopaminergics
d. indirect-acting cholineresterase inhibitors

A

a. anticholinergics

c. dopaminergics

127
Q

(10)Q: Which is NOT an effect of digoxin?
A. increased heart muscle contraction strength
B. decreased heart rate
C. increased diuresis of fluid
D. decreased sympathetic nervous system activity

A

C. increased diuresis of fluid

128
Q 
(10) Q: Which condition requires cautious use of digoxin?
A. hyperglycemia
B. hypokalemia
C. tachycardia
D. liver dysfunction
A

B. hypokalemia

129
Q 
(10) Q: What is the antidote for heparin?
A. protamine sulfate
B. flumazenil
C. potassium
D. vitamin K
A

D. vitamin K

130
Q 
(10) Q: What is the antidote for heparin?
A. protamine sulfate
B. flumazenil
C. potassium
D. vitamin K
A

A. protamine sulfate

131
Q 
(10) Q: What is a potential life-threatening adverse affect of dabigatran?
A. stroke
B. suicidal thoughts
C. bronchospasm
D. hemorrhage
A

D. hemorrhage

132
Q

(10) Q: True or False: anticoagulants such as heparin and warfarin dissolve existing clots.
A. True
B. False

133
Q

(10) Q: How does the medication, clopidogrel, work to prevent blood clots?
A. It inhibits the formation of clotting factors.
B. It prevents clotting factors from binding to receptors on platelet membranes.
C. It irreversibly binds to platelet membranes and inhibits platelet aggregation.
D. It prevents fibrinogen from converting to fibrin, therefore preventing the aggregation of platelets and red blood cells.

A

C. It irreversibly binds to platelet membranes and inhibits platelet aggregation.

134
Q 
(10) Q: What symptom related to a serious adverse effect of atorvastatin should the nurse warn the patient about who is taking it?
A. joint or muscle pain
B. hearing loss
C. urinary retention
D. dilated pupils
A

A. joint or muscle pain

135
Q

(10) Q: What is the class of medication that is the first-line drug for heart failure?

A

ace inhibitors

136
Q 
(11) Q: What is the drug of choice for acute respiratory distress?
A. ipratropium, an anti-cholinergic
B. albuterol, a beta 2 agonist
C. beclomethasone, an inhaled steroid
D. acetylcysteine, a mucolytic
A

B. albuterol, a beta 2 agonist

137
Q

(11) Q: What is an important teaching point about inhaled beclomethasone?
A. use for an acute asthma attack
B. prime the inhaler prior to every inhaled dose
C. rinse out the mouth after taking the inhaled med
D. store the inhaler in the refrigerator

A

C. rinse out the mouth after taking the inhaled med

138
Q

(11) Q: If a smoker uses throphylline, how will the dose need to be adjusted?
A. The dose will need to be increased above the usual dosage.
B. The dose will need to be lowered below the usual dosage.

A

A. The dose will need to be increased above the usual dosage.

139
Q

(11) Q: What is the advantage of 2nd generation H1 blockers over 1st generation H1 blockers?
A. 2nd generation H1 blockers are more effective
B. 2nd generation H1 blockers are less expensive
C. 2nd generation H1 blockers are less likely to cause an idiosyncratic anaphylactic reaction
D. 2nd generation H1 blockers are less likely to cause drowsiness

A

D. 2nd generation H1 blockers are less likely to cause drowsiness

140
Q 
(11) Q: What is NOT a common adverse effect of diphenhydramine?
A. dry mouth
B. drowsiness
C. watery eyes
D. incoordination
A

C. watery eyes

141
Q

(11) Q: What is the main action of fluticasone that helps relieve the symptoms of seasonal allergies?
A. It stabilizes mast cells.
B. It blocks histamine from attaching to receptors on nasal mucosa.
C. It decreases inflammatory mediators.
D. It causes vasoconstriction of nasal mucosa blood vessels.

A

C. It decreases inflammatory mediators.

142
Q

(11) Q: When using an inhaled decongestant and an inhaled steroid together, which one should be used first?
A. the decongestant
B. the steroid

A

A. the decongestant

143
Q

(11) Q: What patient teaching should be included for a client using dextromethorphan, and anti-tussive.
A. decrease fluid intake to decrease secretions
B. don’t drive until its effects are known
C. keep the bedroom as dry as possible to avoid lung irritants
D. take with alcohol to increase the absorption of the med

A

B. don’t drive until its effects are known

144
Q

(11) Q: True or False: guaifenesin, an expectorant, breaks down the chemical structure of mucous.
A. True
B. False

145
Q 
(11) Q: What disease is isoniazid used to treat?
A. tuberculosis
B. allergies
C. asthma
D. cystic fibrosis
A

A. tuberculosis

146
Q

(11) TQ: The nurse teaches a client about the use of corticosteroid nasal sprays for treating seasonal allergies. The nurse advises the client to limit the use of the spray container to one person and one episode of illness. What is the reason for this advice?
A. viruses may colonize at the tip of the container and increase the potential for spreading infection.
B. once the container is opened the medication reapidly loses its effectiveness
C. the pt. will develop a tolerance due to overuse.
D. all of the above

A

A. viruses may colonize at the tip of the container and increase the potential for spreading infection.

147
Q 
(11) TQ: Which of the following physiologic processes does beclomethasone effect in treating the s/s of asthma?
Select all that apply:
A. tissue edema
B. mucous production
C. respiratory rate
D. bronchospams
A

A. tissue edema

B. mucous production

148
Q 
(11) TQ: Which of the following is NOT an important nursing consideration related to administration of the drug, isoniazid?
A. monitor for cardiac dysrhythmias
B. monitor LFTs
C. monitor for peripheral neuropathy
D. monitor for compliance
A

A. monitor for cardiac dysrhythmias

149
Q 
(11) TQ: Which of the following pt. teaching points need to be included for the pt receiving isoniazid?
A.  avoid foods high in potassium
B. avoid alcohol intake
C. avoid caffeine intake
D. avoid food in vitamin B6
A

B. avoid alcohol intake

150
Q

(11) TQ: A pt. is taking dabigatran. Which conidition is being preventing by this pt.s use of dabigatran

151
Q 
(11) TQ: Which is NOT a first line drug for the treatment of early heart failure?
A. digoxin
B. furosemide
C. lisinopril
D. metoprolol
A

A. digoxin (last resort med)

152
Q 
(11) TQ: A client is given a new prescription for metoprolol. Which of the following conditions could be complicated by taking metoprolol and would require additional teaching about the medication?
A. arthritis pain
B. diabetes
C. frequent urination
D. osteoporosis
A

B. diabetes

153
Q 
(11) TQ: Which of the following symptoms are adverse effects of the corticosteroid, prednisone?
A. hypertension
B. increased risk for infection
C. weight loss
D. hypoglycemia
E. moodiness
A

A. hypertension
B. increased risk for infection
E. moodiness

154
Q 
(11) TQ: A pt. has been on long-term prednisone for the treatment of Chrone's disease. Which medications might the nurse also expect ehe pt. to be taking?
A. levadopa
B. alendronate
C. ibuprofen
D. insulin
E. losarten
A

B. alendronate
D. insulin
E. losarten

155
Q 
(11) TQ: Nursing diagnoses for pharmacotherapy are developed form what phase of the Nursing Process?
A. assessment
B. planning
C. implementation
D. evaluation
A

A. assessment

156
Q 
(12) Q: Which of the following is the drug of choice for long term treatment of peptic ulcer disease?
A. ranitidine
B. sodium bicarbonate
C. omeprazole
D. docusate sodium
A

C. omeprazole

157
Q

(12) Q: Why does omeprazole have such a long duration if it has a short half-life?
A. It takes the liver a long time to metabolize the drug and its metabolites.
B. It irreversibly changes parietal cells so they do not secrete acid.
C. It is a large molecule so it does not easily get filtered through the kidneys.
D. It permanently coats the stomach lining to protect it.

A

B. It irreversibly changes parietal cells so they do not secrete acid.

158
Q

(12) Q: How does ranitidine work?
A. It blocks histamine 2 receptors on parietal cells.
B. It prevents the proton pump from releasing acid.
C. It combines with stomach acid to form a paste that coats the stomach lining.
D. It combines with stomach acid to neutralize it.

A

A. It blocks histamine 2 receptors on parietal cells.

159
Q

(12) Q: Which of the following classes of medications are used to treat H. Pylori?
Multiple answers: You can select more than one option
A. antibiotics
B. bismuth
C. anti-emetics
D. PPI’s

A

A. antibiotics
B. bismuth
D. PPI’s

160
Q 
(12) Q: Which type of antacid should a person with heart failure avoid?
A. aluminum hydroxide
B. magnesium hydroxide
C. calcium carbonate
D. sodium bicarbonate
A

D. sodium bicarbonate

161
Q 
(12) Q: What is the most common adverse effect of sucralfate?
A. diarrhea
B. headache
C. tachycardia
D. constipation
A

D. constipation

162
Q

(12) Q: How do opioids (narcotics) help diarrhea?
A. They slow peristalsis to allow more water absorption in the intestine.
B. They add more bulk to the stool, which absorbs water in the intestine.
C. They encourage water absorption in the stomach, so there is little to be absorbed in the intestine.
D. They encourage the growth of healthy bacteria in the intestine which balances fluid absorption .

A

A. They slow peristalsis to allow more water absorption in the intestine.

163
Q 
(12) Q: What is the most common adverse effect of ondansetron?
A. vomiting
B. headache
C. insomnia
D. hypotension
A

B. headache

164
Q

(12) Q: How do phenothiazines work to help alleviate nausea?
A. They block dopamine receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the brain.
B. They block serotonin receptors in the vagal nerve.
C. They stimulate appetite to discourage nausea.
D. They block signals to the inner ear to decrease motion sickness.

A

A. They block dopamine receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the brain.

165
Q

(12) Q: What is an important teaching point for a person receiving orlistat?
A. Take fat-soluble vitamins at the same time as orlilstat.
B. Continue to eat a 4000 calorie per day diet.
C. Adverse effects can include flatus, abdominal pain, and fecal urgency.
D. Only eat high-fat meals so the medication will be more effective.

A

C. Adverse effects can include flatus, abdominal pain, and fecal urgency.

166
Q 
(13) Which female hormone is mostly responsible for ovulation?
A. estrogen
B. progesterone
C. LH
D. GnRH
167
Q 
(13) Which of the following is NOT a therapeutic use of conjugated estrogen?
A. relieve night sweats
B. relieve painful intercourse
C. relieve hot flashes
D. relieve urinary incontinence
A

D. relieve urinary incontinence

168
Q 
(13) What is the black box warning associated with conjugated estrogen?
A. increased risk of endometrial cancer
B. increased risk of suicidal ideations
C. increased risk of hemorrhage
D. increased risk of blindness
A

A. increased risk of endometrial cancer

169
Q

(13) What are two common adverse effects of medroxyprogesterone?
Multiple answers: You can select more than one option
A. breast tenderness
B. breakthrough bleeding
C. prevention of pregnancy
D. urinary tract infections

A

A. breast tenderness

B. breakthrough bleeding

170
Q

(13) Which TWO medication classes decrease the effectiveness of oral combination birth control (OC’s)?
Multiple answers: You can select more than one option
A. anti-inflammatories
B. anti-convulsants
C. anti-depressants
D. antibiotics

A

B. anti-convulsants

D. antibiotics

171
Q 
(13) Which of the following is a therapeutic use of testosterone?
A. to win the Tour de France
B. to look like the Hulk
C. to treat primary hypogonadism
D. to treat prostate cancer
A

C. to treat primary hypogonadism

172
Q

(13) What is the black box warning for testosterone?
A. It increases the risk of heart attack.
B. It increases the risk of virilization in women.
C. It increases the risk of suicidal ideations.
D. It increases the risk of yellow teeth.

A

B. It increases the risk of virilization in women.

173
Q 
(13) What is one of the adverse effects of anabolic steroids?
A. testicular enlargement
B. kidney damage
C. nail overgrowth
D. decreased sperm
A

D. decreased sperm

174
Q 
(13) Which of the following is a medication used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction (ED)?
A. nonoxynol 9
B. mifepristone
C. sildenafil
D. finasteride
A

C. sildenafil (fil)

175
Q

(13) How does finasteride help to treat the symptoms of benign prostatic hypertrophy?
A. It blocks testosterone and shrinks the prostate.
B. It prevents the smooth muscle in the prostate from contracting.
C. It dilates the urethra.
D. It diverts blood flow away from the prostate.

A

A. It blocks testosterone and shrinks the prostate.

176
Q

(13) TQ: Which of the following circumstances are likely to contribute to stress ulcer?
a. caffeinated fluids or fried fatty foods
b. emergency room treatment of whiplash
c. eating spicy foods
d. severe burns that require intensive care unit hospitalization

A

d. severe burns that require intensive care unit hospitalization

177
Q

(13) TQ: The nurse should question an order for an anti-diarrheal medication for which pt?
a. one who has traveler’s diarrhea
b. one who has c. diff
c. one who has eaten an excessive amt. of hot peppers
d. one who has been on antibiotics for the past 7 days

A

b. one who has c. diff

178
Q

(13) TQ: a school nurse is teaching a youth maturation class
a. it promotes the synthesis of erythropoietin
b. it restricts bone growth and causes osteoporosis
c. it is resposnsible for the enlargement of the tests, scrotum, an penis
d. it contributes to the dev. of muscle mass

A

a. it promotes the synthesis of erythropoietin
c. it is responsible for the enlargement of the tests, scrotum, an penis
d. it contributes to the dev. of muscle mass

179
Q

(13) TQ: when completing the medication history of a male client with sexual dysfunction, which two drugs classes should the nurse be attentive for as possible contributors to male sexual dysfunction?
a. nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) & antidepressents
b. antipsychotics and antidepressents
c. antidepressants & antihypertensives
d. antihypertensives & benzodiazepines

A

c. antidepressants & antihypertensives

180
Q

(13) TQ: which assessment finding indicates a therapeutic effect of finasteride therapy in a client?
a. less painful urination
b. resoluution of hematuria
c. decreased flow rate of urine
d. ability to initiate a steady urine stream

A

d. ability to initiate a steady urine stream

181
Q

(13) TQ: Because theophylline is a xanthine, which of the following should pt’s be advised to avoid?
a. grapefruit juice
b. milk
c. coffee
d. water

182
Q

(13) TQ: Which condition does dabigatran help prevent
a. high cholesterol
b. hyperglycemia
c. hypertension
d. strokes

A

d. strokes

183
Q

(13) TQ: Which of the following explanations should the nurse provide when explaining how clopidegrel helps prevent blood clots

A

it prevents platelet aggregation

184
Q

(13) TQ: which of the following factors predisposes a pt to digitalis toxicity?
a. hyperglycemia
b. hypokalemia
c. hyperthyroidism
d. low serum albumin

A

b. hypokalemia

185
Q

(13) TQ: the nurse assess a pt. who is takin digoxin, furosemide, and potassium, and the pt states, “What a lovely yellow shirt” and the shirt is not yellow…

A

evaluate….

186
Q

(13) TQ: what should hypertensive pt’s taking propranolol, a nonselective beta adrenergic blocker, be observed for?
a. bronchospasm
b. diarrhea
c. tachycardia
d. urinary retention

A

a. bronchospasm

187
Q

(13) TQ: a client is started on lisinopril. Which common adverse effects of ACE inhibitor therapy should the nurse instruct the client about?

188
Q

(13) TQ: a nurse is discharging a pt. receiving an anticholinergic med…what are pt. teachings?
a. alert ot that drowsiness may occur and to avoid driving a car
b. instruct pt. to use sunglasses in bright light for presence of pupil dilation
c. suggest hard candy, chewing gum, and oral hygiene for dry mouth
d. decrease fluid and fiber intake to avoid diarrhea

A

a. alert pt that drowsiness may occur and to avoid driving a car
b. instruct pt. to use sunglasses in bright light for presence of pupil dilation
c. suggest hard candy, chewing gum, and oral hygiene for dry mouth

189
Q

T/F: people with glaucoma can take anticholinergics

190
Q

2 main methods of action of metform

A
  1. decrease glucose production in liver
  2. increase use of glucose by muscle & fat cells

side effect: lactic acidosis

191
Q

what do GABA receptors do

A

inhibit CNS

192
Q

what are the receptors for opioids

193
Q

3 adverse effects of ADHD meds

A
  1. insomnia
  2. anorexia
  3. growth restriction
194
Q

2 adverse effects of albuterol

A
  1. nervousness

2. palpitations

195
Q

rare adverse effect of avorstatins

A

rhabdomyloysis

196
Q

common adverse effect of donepezil Parkinson’s disease)

197
Q

thing you should refer to for rights and responsibilities of drug administration

A

Nurse Practice Act

Pharmacology N2100 (26 decks)

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