Going over Test Questions with Rieneke Flashcards

1
Q

dopamine potential adverse effect

a. slurred speech
b. extra-pyramidal symtpoms (Parkinson’s)
c. lower extremity paralysis
d. cerebral edema

A

extra-pyramidal symptoms (Parkinson’s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what laxatives possibly cause dehydration with regular use

a. saline laxatives
b. bulk forming
c. surfactants
d. lubricant suppository

A

a. saline laxatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which drug groups have anti-emetic properties

a. adrenergics
b. antihistamines
c. phenothiazines
d. serotonin receptor antagonists

A

b. antihistamines
c. phenothiazines
d. serotonin receptor antagonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

the nurse tells the pt. the laxatives is safe to take every day and that pt. needs to increase fluid intake while taking the laxative to avoid harm

A

psyllium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which types of side effects is pt likely to experience with anti-emetics.

a. constipation
b. dry mouth
c. dyskinesia
d. lip-smacking

A

a. constipation

b. dry mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

treated for peptic ulcer =

a. duodenal
b. esophogeal
c. gastric
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

anywhere from mouth to small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Peptic ulcer disease teaching:

a. avoid salt
b. avoid use of NSADS
c. increase acidic food
d. smoking cessation

A

b. avoid use of NSADS (protective lining)

d. smoking cessation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

side effects expected with ondansetron (serotoning antagonist)

a. headache
b. drowsiness
c. increase uric acid
d. decreased WBS

A

a. headache

b. drowsiness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which drug would be a contraindication for Sildenefil

a. PPI
b. Nitroglycerine
c. opioids
d. insulin

A

b. Nitroglycerine (prevent body from braking down nitric oxide = when taken nitric oxide that normally would shut down isn’t allowed to be broken down = stay open longer and provide more blood flow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how do estrogen-progestin combination work

a. prevent ovulation
b. stop menstruation
c. it kills sperm
d. it decreases libido

A

a. prevent ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

which health problem should the nurse teach the client to report to the health care provider with medroxyprogesterone

a. breast tenderness
b. spotting
c. lower extremity pain & swelling
d. inability to conceive

A

c. lower extremity pain & swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which of the following hormones undergo surge, which responsible for ovulation

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

advantages of using progestin-only oral contraceptives (the “minipill”)

a. the don’t have any adverse effects
b. more effective than combined oral contraceptives
c. they have decreased risk of blood clots
d. they can be used in women who are breastfeeding

A

c. they have decreased risk of blood clots

d. they can be used in women who are breastfeeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which of the following statements indicates a need for additional pt. teaching regarding anticoagulants

a. care medic alert card
b. i will use an electric razor
c. i will use aspirin for arthritis pain
d. i will report to the lab once a month

A

c. i will use aspirin for arthritis pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

which of the following interventions should the nurse initiate for a pt. on heparin

a. dental floss
b. electric razor

A

b. electric razor (doesn’t have a blade)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which med is not a first line drug for treatment of early HF

a. digoxin
b. lisinopril
c. metropol
d. furosemide

A

a. digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which of the following are pharmacologic treatment goals for pt. with HF

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which blood glucose readings should the nurse be concerned about

a. 30
b. 70
c. 100
d. 120

A

30 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which adverse effects of the corticosteroid, prednisone, are expected with long-term therapy

a. gastric ulcers
b. hypotension
c. increased risk for infection
d. osteoporosis
e. weight loss

A

a. gastric ulcers
c. increased risk for infection
d. osteoporosis

  • you have hypertension & weight gain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

adverse effects of ACE inhibitor therapy (lisinopril)

a. dry cough
b. sedation
c. rash

A

a. dry cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which drugs cause drowsiness

A

anticholinergic & antihistamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

assessment finding would nurse expect to observe in adult pt experiencing therapeutic effects from levothyroxine

a. decreased reports of fatigue
b. decreased reports of intolerance to cold
c. constipation and weight gain
d. palpitations and nervousness
e. pulse rate between 60-100 bpm

A

a. decreased reports of fatigue
b. decreased reports of intolerance to cold
e. pulse rate between 60-100 bpm
(weight usually goes down)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

why would you choose to prescribe metropolol

a. pt. has COPD and metropolol will have minimal effects on lung function
b. pt. has sever htn, and metroprolol is more effective than non-solective beta blockers at treating htn

A

a. pt. has COPD and metropolol will have minimal effects on lung function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

adverse effects of ACE inhibitors are caused by which of the following

a. bronchoconstriction in the lungs
b. build up of bradykinin
c. decreased metabolism of the medication
d. build up of angiotensinogen

A

b. build up of bradykinin (a chemical that causes inflammation and that’s what ACE enzyme breaks down…ace main place is in the lungs, so that’s why cough is a side effect)

25
Q

mechanism of action of prazosin

a. prazosin blocks alpha receptors on blood vessels, causing them to dilate
b. prazosin blocks beta receptors on blood vessels, causing them to dilate

A

a. prazosin blocks alpha receptors on blood vessels, causing them to dilate

26
Q

how hydralazine works to lower BP

a. acts directly on blood vessels to dilate them
b. it makes your kidneys get rid of sodium and water
c. it blocks your fight or flight system

A

a. acts directly on blood vessels to dilate them

27
Q

pt. on morphone sulfate PCA pump. On hourly check, nurse finds pt. RR to be 8, what is the priority of the nurse?
a. stop pump & call the doctor
b. administer antidote, even though there is no order for it

A

a. stop pump & call the doctor

if i just did this one thing in the room. what would be the outcome

28
Q

potential problematic side effects of a non-selective adrenergic antagonist

a. bronchoconstriction
b. decreased gastric motility
c. increased heart rate

A

a. bronchoconstriction

29
Q

which of the following is important teaching point to include for a pt taking alendronate for prevention of osteoporosis

a. lie down immediately after taking med
b. take med with milk
c. take med with an antacid if GI upset occurs
d. take med on an empty stomach

A

d. take med on an empty stomach

30
Q

what beta-adrenergic blocking drugs are administered, which condition might the person be at increased risk for

a. hypotension
b. heart attack
c. tachycardia
d. stroke

A

a. hypotension

31
Q

a pt is complaining about a side effect of cyclobenzaprine, a central-acting muscle relaxor. Which common side effect is the pt most likely complaining about?

a. suicidal thoughts
b. photophobia
c. drowsiness
d. increased appetitie

A

c. drowsiness

32
Q

what conditions are benzodiapzepines used for

a. anxiety
b. parkinson’s disease
c. ADHD
d. insomnia
e. msucle spams

A

a. anxiety

d. insomnia

33
Q

OTC meds can contain combintations of drug groups. Which of the following drug classes may be used to control cold symptoms OTC

a. antibiotics
b. decongestants
c. antitussives
d. expectorants

A

b. decongestants
c. antitussives
d. expectorants

34
Q

the nurse teaches a client about the use of corticosteroid nasal sprays for treating seasonal allergies. the nurse advises the client to limit the use of the spray container to one person and one episode of illness. What is the reason for this advice.

a. viruses may colonize at the tip of the container and increase the potential for spreading infection
b. once the container is opened the medication rapidly loses its effectiveness\c. the pt. will develop a tolerance due to overuse
d. all of teh above

A

a. viruses may colonize at the tip of the container and increase the potential for spreading infection

35
Q

mechanism of action for antitussives

A

suppress the cough

36
Q

mechanism of action for antitussives

A

suppress the cough

37
Q

expected warning on a box on pseudoephedrine

a. use cautiously if you have osteoporosis
b. don’t use if you have a viral infection
c. use cautiously if you have Parkinson’s
d. use cautiously if you have high BP

A

d. use cautiously if you have high BP

38
Q

which of the following statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching

a. i will try to swallow the med and rinse out my mouth afterwards
b. i will use the steroid inhalor after use of bronchodilator
c. i will use my steroid inhaler when i am havingan asthma attack
d. i will watch for white patches in my mouth

A

c. i will use my steroid inhaler when i am havingan asthma attack

39
Q

mechanism of action of decongestants

a. they block the cough reflex by inhibiting CNS
b. the constrict blood vessels and decrease edema in the nasal mucosa
c. they increase productive cough to clear the airways

A

b. the constrict blood vessels and decrease edema in the nasal mucosa

40
Q

which type of inhaler is the only type of inhlaed drug that is immediately effective during acute episodes of asthma

a. steroid
b. antichoilinergic
c. sympathomimetic
d. saline

A

c. sympathomimetic

41
Q

which diet is most desriable for a client receiving cardiac glycoside

A

lo sodium, potassium, & fat

42
Q

how do meds for heart failure improve the workload of heart

a. reducing preload with diuretics
b. encourage heart to beat faster
c. encourage RAAS & the SNS
d. reducing afterload with beat-blockers and ACE inhibitors

A

a. reducing preload with diuretics
c. encourage RAAS & the SNS
d. reducing afterload with beat-blockers and ACE inhibitors

43
Q

which of the following statements indicate that client has a good understanding of why warfarin is being used

a. it dissolves arterial thrombi & emboli
b. increases the synthesis of vitamin K
c. it inhibits or slows clot formation

A

c. it inhibits or slows clot formation

44
Q

the physician prescribes metformin. What is the main action of this drug?

a. it decreases glucose production in liver
b. it promotes insulin release from the pancreas

A

a. it decreases glucose production in liver

45
Q

glucocorticoids are prescribed for their anti-inflammatory effects. what other effects are glucocorticoids commonly prescribed for?

a. immunosuppressive effects
b. antidepressent effects
c. hypoglycemic effects

A

a. immunosuppressive effects

46
Q

common adverse effect of CE inhibitor therapy should nurse inform pt about

A

cough

47
Q

what is the best explanation to the children of a pt. with Alzheimer’s disease regarding treatment of the disease

a. we have meds that may decrease the symptoms for a time
b. the medications help in controlling the disease for the rest of the pt’s life

A

a. we have meds that may decrease the symptoms for a time

48
Q

which are NSAIDS

a. acetominophen
b. aspirin
c. ibuprofen
d. morphine
e. tramadol

A

b. aspirin

c. ibuprofen

49
Q

statement best decribes colchine affects the comfort of pt. experiencing an acute gout attack
a. in inhibits the inflammatory process of gout

A

a. in inhibits the inflammatory process of gout

50
Q

why is allupurinol given daily

A

to decrease uric acid synthesis

51
Q

which of following are indications of acetominophen overdose within first 24 hours of ingestion

a. constipation
b. hemorrhage
c. nausea, vomiting, malaise

A

c. nausea, vomiting, malaise

52
Q

if pt. complains of GI upset with the use of regular aspirin tablets, which of the following would be appropriate advice to give

a. take aspirin in a liquid form
b. take enteric coated aspirin
c. take aspirin on an empty stomach

A

b. take enteric coated aspirin

53
Q

common adverse effects of long-term high dose aspirin use

A

tinnitus & GI bleeding

54
Q

when beta-adrenergic blocking drugs are administered, they may increase the person’s risk of which adverse effects

a. heart attack
b. hypotension
c. stroke
d. tachycardia

A

b. hypotension

55
Q

which of the following instruction should be included when the nurse discharges a pt who is taking an antiadrenergic med like metropolol

a. change positions slowly to minimize drop in BP
b. report a weight loss of more than 2 pounds in a week

A

a. change positions slowly to minimize drop in BP

56
Q

use of adrenergic drugs is contraindicate din person with which condition

a. heart dysrhythmias
b. hypovolemic shock
c. severe bradycardia
d. asthma

A

a. heart dysrhythmias

57
Q

primary therapeutic action of the direct acting cholinergic drug bethanechol chloride?

a. increase BP
b. decrease HR
c. decrease oral secretions
d. increase urination

A

d. increase urination

58
Q

which section of the drug guide should the nurse use when she wants to know how a drug works

A

mechanism of action

59
Q

how the drug moves through your body

A

pharmacokinetics