Top Rank: BIOCHEM Flashcards by Arabel Bantan

Which of the following purine bases can only be found in the RNA and not in DNA?

A. Uracil
B. Cytosine
C. Thymine
D. Adenine
E. NOTA

E. NOTA

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It is known to be the bond between the Oxygen part of the Phosphate group and the Pentose Sugar in pairs of Nucleotides. What is the bond called?

A. N-Glycosidic Bond
B. Hydrogen Bond
C. Phosphodiester Bond
D. Nicotinic Bond
E. C and D

C. Phosphodiester Bond

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Which of the following refers to be the collection of entire genetic information of an organism?

A. Gene
B. Genome
C. Chromosome
D. Microbiome
E. A & B

B. Genome

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Which of the following amino acids confers rigidity to the collagen structure to give it it’s tensile strength?

A. C
B. G
C. E
D. P
E. K

D. P (Proline)

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Which of the following protein structure/s is/are not
affected by denaturation?

A. 1°
B. 2°
C. 3°
D. 4°
E. 1° and 4°

A. 1°

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Match the following Glycogen Storage Diseases with its description of enzyme deficiency:

A. Liver Glycogen Phosphorylase
B. Glucose-6-Phosphate Translocase
C. Glycogen Synthase
D. Glycogen Branching Enzyme
E. Debranching Enzyme

Type 0

C. Glycogen Synthase

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Match the following Glycogen Storage Diseases with its description of enzyme deficiency:

A. Liver Glycogen Phosphorylase
B. Glucose-6-Phosphate Translocase
C. Glycogen Synthase
D. Glycogen Branching Enzyme
E. Debranching Enzyme

Type Ib

B. Glucose-6-Phosphate Translocase

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Match the following Glycogen Storage Diseases with its description of enzyme deficiency:

A. Liver Glycogen Phosphorylase
B. Glucose-6-Phosphate Translocase
C. Glycogen Synthase
D. Glycogen Branching Enzyme
E. Debranching Enzyme

Type III

E. Debranching Enzyme

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Match the following Glycogen Storage Diseases with its description of enzyme deficiency:

A. Liver Glycogen Phosphorylase
B. Glucose-6-Phosphate Translocase
C. Glycogen Synthase
D. Glycogen Branching Enzyme
E. Debranching Enzyme

Type IV

D. Glycogen Branching Enzyme

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Match the following Glycogen Storage Diseases with its description of enzyme deficiency:

A. Liver Glycogen Phosphorylase
B. Glucose-6-Phosphate Translocase
C. Glycogen Synthase
D. Glycogen Branching Enzyme
E. Debranching Enzyme

Type VI

A. Liver Glycogen Phosphorylase

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The following are stop codons, except:

A. UUA
B. UAG
C. UAA
D. UGA

A. UUA

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The super coiling of DNA aligns to what level of protein structure organization?

A. Quaternary
B. Primary
C. Secondary
D. Tertiary

D. Tertiary

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Which of the following vitamins is/are important to
prevent Pellagra?

A. B7
B. B1
C. B3
D. B2
E. NOTA

C. B3

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Which of the following Glycogen Storage Diseases is characterized by the lack of Muscle
Phosphofructokinase?

A. Tarui’s or GSD Type VIII
B. Von Gierke’s or GSD Type Ia
C. Cori’s or GSD Type III
D. Hers’ or GSD Type VII
E. NOTA

A. Tarui’s or GSD Type VIII

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Which water soluble vitamin is known to be Vitamin B5?

A. Niacin
B. Pantothenic Acid
C. Folic Acid
D. Biotin
E. NOTA

B. Pantothenic Acid

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Which carbohydrate metabolism that happens when glucagon levels are high?

A. Glycolysis
B. Gluconeogenesis
C. Glycogenesis
D. NOTA

B. Gluconeogenesis

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Which of the following reactions is/are unique to gluconeogenesis?

A. Lactate → Pyruvate
B. Phosphoenolpyruvate → Pyruvate
C. Oxaloacetate → Phosphoenolpyruvate
D. Glucose-6-Phosphate → Fructose-6-Phosphate
E. 1,3-Bis-phosphoglycerate → 3-Phosphoglycerate

C. Oxaloacetate → Phosphoenolpyruvate

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The following are the pathological contents of the urine, except:

A. Creatinine
B. Blood
C. Albumin
D. Glucose
E. NOTA

A. Creatinine

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Which genetic disorder is also known as “Edwards’
Syndrome”?

A. Trisomy 21
B. Trisomy 18
C. Trisomy 13
D. Trisomy 8

B. Trisomy 18

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In the EMP Pathway, after glucose-6-phosphate is isomerized by phosphohexoisomerase, Fructose-6- phosphate is then formed. A reaction to F6P catalyzed by PFK-1, coupled with hydrolysis of ATP forms what compound?

A. Harden-Young Ester
B. Fructose-1,6-Bisphosphate
C. Fructose-5,6-Biphosphate
D. A&B
E. NOTA

D. A&B

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Which of the following is the simplest
monosaccharide having the lowest number of carbon atoms in its structure?

A. Glucose
B. Blood Sugar
C. Glyceraldehyde
D. Mannose
E. Erythrose

C. Glyceraldehyde

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In glycolysis, after glucose-6-phosphate is isomerized by phosphohexoisomerase, Fructose-6- phosphate is then formed. A reversible reaction to F6P catalyzed by PFK-1 coupled with hydrolysis of ATP, forms what compound?

A. Fructose 1,6-Bisphosphate
B. Fructose 5,6-Biphosphate
C. Fructose 4,6-Bisphosphate
D. NOTA

A. Fructose 1,6-Bisphosphate

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With the basis of its chemistry, which of the following is/are known to be sugar/s?

A. Ascorbic Acid
B. Glucoronic Acid
C. Galactose
D. AOTA

D. AOTA

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The inactive form of an enzyme is called?

A. Apoenzyme
B. Zymogen
C. Proenzyme
D. A & C
E. B & C

B. Zymogen

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Which of the following is a nucleoside? A. Guanosine B. Guanine C. Guanosine Monophosphate D. AOTA

A. Guanosine

The following are examples of unsaturated fatty acids, except: A. Arachidic Acid B. Lauric Acid C. Arachidonic Acid D. A & B E. B & C

D. A & B

In the fourth step of glycolysis, Fructose 1,6- Bisphosphate split by Fructose Bisphosphate Aldolase into what triose sugar/s? A. Glyceraldehyde 3-Phosphate B. Dihydroxy Acetone Phosphate C. B only D. A & B E. NOTA

D. A & B

Which organelle of the cell is considered to be the workbench of protein synthesis inhibitors in the subcellular world? A. Golgi Apparatus B. Ribosomes C. Phospholipid Bilayer D. Mitochondria E. NOTA

B. Ribosomes

Glucose enters the cell by: A. Insulin Independent Transport B. Enzyme Mediated Transport C. Insulin Dependent Transport D. A & B E. A & C

E. A & C

Which vitamin causes Red Blood Cell (RBC) fragility when deficient in the body? A. Vitamin E B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin B2 D. Vitamin B3 E. Vitamin A

A. Vitamin E

In the process of DNA Replication, which enzyme is responsible in unwinding the double stranded DNA (dsDNA)? A. Primase B. Ligase C. Helicase D. DNA Polymerase E. Topoisomerase

C. Helicase

The dietary deficiency of tryptophan and nicotinate leads to what condition? A. Pellagra B. Anemia C. Xerophthalmia D. Beri-beri E. NOTA

A. Pellagra

Enzymes increase the rate of reactions by: A. Decreasing the energy of activation B. Increasing the energy of activation C. Changing the equilibrium constant of the reaction D. Increasing the free energy change of the reaction E. NOTA

A. Decreasing the energy of activation

In yeasts, pyruvate is metabolized into: A. Lactates B. Ethanol C. Acetyl Coenzyme A D. NOTA

B. Ethanol

Which of the following enzymes is/are used in the clinical diagnosis of acute pancreatitis when its levels are elevated in the body? A. Lipase B. Creatinine Kinase C. Acid Phosphatase D. Alkaline Phosphatase

A. Lipase

The digestive enzymes of cellular compounds are confined inside what organelle of the cell? A. Lysosomes B. Peroxisomes C. Ribosomes D. Chromosomes

A. Lysosomes

Which of the following amino acids are basic? A. H and V B. H and R C. K and V D. L and R E. NOTA

B. H and R

In the preparatory phase of glycolysis, how many ATPs are invested? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

B. 2

Which of the following glycerophospholipids is also known as lecithin? A. Phosphatidylethanolamine B. Phosphatidylcholine C. Phosphatidylglycerol D. Phosphatidylserine E. Phosphatidylecithin

B. Phosphatidylcholine

What is the condition resulted from the use of HMGCoA reductase inhibitors which damages skeletal muscle breaking it down rapidly causing fatal muscle damage? A. Retinopathy B. Rhabdomyolysis C. Diabetic Ketoacidosis D. Tendinitis

B. Rhabdomyolysis

Which of the following vitamin/s is/are the precursor of Coenzyme A? A. Pantothenic Acid B. Riboflavin C. Niacin D. Biotin E. Thiamine

A. Pantothenic Acid

Which of the following organelle is/are the site of 𝛽𝛽-oxidation, Oxidative phosphorylation, and Tricarboxylic Acid (TCA) Cycle? A. Cytosol B. Mitochondria C. Nucleous D. Golgi Apparatus E. B & D

B. Mitochondria

Which of the following protein/s have a structural role in the human body? A. Collagen & Myoglobin B. Collagen & Actin C. Collagen & Elastin D. Keratin & Ferritin E. NOTA

C. Collagen & Elastin

Match the following Lipid Related Diseases with its description of enzyme deficiency: 𝛼-galactosidase A. Tay-Sach’s B. Fabry’s C. Farber’s D. Niemann-Pick E. Krabbe

B. Fabry’s

Match the following Lipid Related Diseases with its description of enzyme deficiency: 𝛽𝛽-galactosidase A. Tay-Sach’s B. Fabry’s C. Farber’s D. Niemann-Pick E. Krabbe

E. Krabbe

Match the following Lipid Related Diseases with its description of enzyme deficiency: Ceramidase A. Tay-Sach’s B. Fabry’s C. Farber’s D. Niemann-Pick E. Krabbe

C. Farber’s

Match the following Lipid Related Diseases with its description of enzyme deficiency: Sphingomyelinase A. Tay-Sach’s B. Fabry’s C. Farber’s D. Niemann-Pick E. Krabbe

D. Niemann-Pick

Match the following Lipid Related Diseases with its description of enzyme deficiency: Hexoaminidase A A. Tay-Sach’s B. Fabry’s C. Farber’s D. Niemann-Pick E. Krabbe

A. Tay-Sach’s

Which of the following is the start codon? A. UUA B. UAG C. UAA D. AUG

D. AUG

Match the following Amino Acid related diseases with its description of enzyme deficiency: Albinism Choices: A. Tyrosinase B. Homogentisate oxidase C. Phenylalanine hydroxylase D. Branched chain ketoacid dehydrogenase

A. Tyrosinase

Match the following Amino Acid related diseases with its description of enzyme deficiency: Phenylketonuria Choices: A. Tyrosinase B. Homogentisate oxidase C. Phenylalanine hydroxylase D. Branched chain ketoacid dehydrogenase

C. Phenylalanine hydroxylase

Match the following Amino Acid related diseases with its description of enzyme deficiency: Maple Syrup Urine Disease Choices: A. Tyrosinase B. Homogentisate oxidase C. Phenylalanine hydroxylase D. Branched chain ketoacid dehydrogenase

D. Branched chain ketoacid dehydrogenase

Match the following Amino Acid related diseases with its description of enzyme deficiency: Alkaptonuria Choices: A. Tyrosinase B. Homogentisate oxidase C. Phenylalanine hydroxylase D. Branched chain ketoacid dehydrogenase

B. Homogentisate oxidase

Which of the following is the anabolic process wherein pyruvate is made into glucose? A. Glycolysis B. EMP Pathway C. Gluconeogenesis D. Glycogenolysis E. Glycogenesis

C. Gluconeogenesis

Which of the following monosaccharides is/are an epimer/s of glucose? A. Galactose B. Mannose C. Erythrose D. A & B E. B & C

D. A & B

Which of the following metals is/are the cofactor of urease? A. Iron B. Nickel C. Magnesium D. B&C E. A&B

B. Nickel

Which of the following metals is/are the cofactor of Cytochrome oxidase and catalase? A. Iron B. Nickel C. Magnesium D. B&C E. A&B

A. Iron

Which of the following metals is/are the cofactor of FAD? A. Molybdenum B. Nickel C. Magnesium D. Potassium E. Selenium

A. Molybdenum

Which of the following metals is/are the cofactor of Enolase? A. Iron B. Nickel C. Magnesium D. B&C E. A&B

C. Magnesium

Which of the following metals is/are the cofactor of Kinase? A. Molybdenum B. Nickel C. Magnesium D. Potassium E. Selenium

D. Potassium

Which of the following metals is/are the cofactor of Glutathione peroxidase? A. Molybdenum B. Nickel C. Magnesium D. Potassium E. Selenium

E. Selenium

Which of the following statements is/are true about RNA polymerases? I. No proofreading ability II. Requires primers III. 5’ to 3’ polymerase activity IV. 3’ to 5’ polymerase activity A. I only B. I and III C. I, II, III D. I, III, IV E. II and IV

B. I and III

How many molecules of acetyl CoA, an acetyl group attached to ‘coenzyme A’, are produced from a single molecule of glucose for participation in the Krebs cycle? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

B. 2

How are electrons extracted from the citric acid cycle for use in the electron transport chain? A. Reduction of ATP and GTP B. Oxidation of NAD+ and FAD C. Reduction of NAD+ and FAD D. Oxidation of ATP and GTP

C. Reduction of NAD+ and FAD

How many molecules of oxygen (O2) are required to complete the reactions of aerobic respiration beginning with four (4) molecules of glucose? A. 10 B. 24 C. 22 D. 26 E. 6

B. 24

Which of the following products of glucose oxidation are essential for oxidative phosphorylation? A. Pyruvate B. NADH and FADH2 C. Acetyl CoA D. Oxaloacetate E. NADPH and ATP

B. NADH and FADH2

Which of the following statements is/are true about Carbohydrates? I. Sucrose is not a reducing sugar II. Trehalose is a reducing sugar III. Glucose is not a reducing sugar A. II only B. III only C. I and II D. I only E. AOTA

D. I only

Maltose is composed of which of the following sugars? A. Glucose B. Fructose C. Galactose D. NOTA

A. Glucose

Phospholipid + Ethanolamine is also known as: A. Lecithin B. Cardiolipin C. Cephalin D. Sphingosine E. Sphingomyelin

C. Cephalin

Which of the following is called the basic nucleus of steroids? A. Cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene B. CPPP-7 C. Methyl-CPPP D. NOTA

A. Cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene

Disruption of which process will have the greatest impact on the number of electron carriers used by the electron transport chain? A. Glycolysis B. Citric Acid Cycle C. Formation of FADH2 D. Anaerobic Pathway of Cellular Respiration E. NOTA

B. Citric Acid Cycle

Which of the following is the form of cholesterol found in Aspergillus flavus A. Lanosterol B. Ergosterol C. D-Cholesterol D. Lupeol E. Betulinic Acid

B. Ergosterol

Which of the following is the substance that accumulates in the muscle as a result of vigorous exercise or extraneous activity? A. Glutamic Acid B. Lactic Acid C. Malic Acid D. Amino Acids and Glucose E. Acetic Acid

B. Lactic Acid

Which of the following gastrointestinal substances is responsible for the emulsification of fats going through? A. Hydrochloric Acid B. Pepsin C. Bile D. Trypsin E. Phosphoric Acid

C. Bile

Which of the following is/are Isomerase/s? A. Kinase B. Mutase C. Epimerase D. A & B E. B & C

E. B & C

Which of the following describes the direction of protein synthesis from the RNA? A. Transcription B. Translation C. Transition D. RNA Replication

B. Translation

Which of the following is not an example of calcium channel blocker that acts also as a p glycoprotein inducer? A. Verapamil B. Amlodipine C. Diltiazem D. Felodipine E. Paclitaxel

E. Paclitaxel

Which of the following is/are Hydrolase/s? A. Kinase B. Dehydrogenase C. Lipase D. Carbonic Anhydrase E. Epimerase

C. Lipase

Which of the following amino acids is a precursor of thyroxine? A. Tyrosine B. Phenylalanine C. Tryptophan D. Serine E. Glutamic Acid

A. Tyrosine

Which of the following enzymes catalyze the first irreversible step in glycolysis? A. PFK-1 B. Pyruvate Kinase C. Hexokinase D. Transphosphoisomerase E. NOTA

C. Hexokinase

Which of the following amino acids is a precursor of GABA? A. Glutamine B. Glutamate C. Glutamic Acid D. A & B E. B & C

E. B & C

Which of the following about DNA and RNA base pairing is/are correct? I. Adenine and Thymidine II. Uracil and Adenine III. Adenine is bound to Cytosine with 3 hydrogen bonds IV. Cytosine is bound to Uracil with 2 hydrogen bonds V. Thymine is bound to Adenine with 3 hydrogen bonds A. I and III B. I and V C. II, III, and V D. IV only E. NOTA

E. NOTA

Which of the following types of conjugated proteins does Xanthine Oxidase belong? A. Metalloproteins B. Lipoproteins C. Chromoproteins D. Phosphoproteins E. NOTA

A. Metalloproteins

Which of the following DNA forms has a unique left handed helical structure? A. C-DNA B. Z-DNA C. A-DNA D. B-DNA E. NOTA

B. Z-DNA

Which of the following is/are primary components of human bile acid? A. Cholic Acid B. Chenodeoxycholic Acid C. Deoxycholic Acid D. A & B E. B & C

D. A & B

Which of the following are true about the DNA? A. Ribose Sugar B. Double Stranded C. B-DNA form is a right handed double helix D. A & B E. B & C

E. B & C

Which of the following best describe the function of DNA Polymerase in DNA replication? I. Catalyzes the formation of phosphate bridges between nucleotides to join okazaki fragments II. Adds new nucleotides to 3’ end of elongating strand III. Dismantles the RNA Primer IV. Synthesizes an RNA Primer to begin the elongation process V. Proofreads base pairings A. I, II, III, IV B. II, III, V C. II, III, IV D. II, III, IV, V E. AOTA

B. II, III, V

In transcription, which of the three basic types of RNA synthesized from DNA, functions as the template for protein synthesis? A. mRNA B. tRNA C. rRNA D. miRNA E. tmRNA

A. mRNA

Which of the following is/are secondary components of human bile acid? A. Cholic Acid B. Lithocholic Acid C. Deoxycholic Acid D. A & B E. B & C

E. B & C

Which of the following is/are known to be the noncoding regions of the polypeptide which are removed during processing to form the final mRNA? A. Exons B. Introns C. Ultrons D. A & B E. B & C

B. Introns

Which of the following point mutations best describes Sickle Cell Anemia? A. Silent B. Missense Conservative C. Missence Non Conservative D. Nonsense E. NOTA

C. Missence Non Conservative

Which of the following mutations is known to be a frameshift type? A. Transitional B. Insertion C. Deletion D. A & B E. B & C

E. B & C

Which of the following describes the short sequences of DNA nucleotides which ae synthesized discontinuously and later linked together by DNA ligase to create the lagging strand during DNA replication? A. Helicase B. Topoisomerase I C. Okazaki Fragments D. Introns E. Exons

C. Okazaki Fragments

Which of the following best describes Kwashiorkor in children? A. Enlarged Fatty Liver B. Hypoalbuminemia C. Unpreserved Subcutaneous Fat D. A & B E. B & C

D. A & B

Which vitamin will not be formed without Tryptophan? A. Riboflavin B. Niacin C. Thiamine D. Biotin E. AOTA

B. Niacin

Which of the following is not an example of a Motor Protein? A. Actin B. Myosin C. Ferritin D. Transferrin E. C & D

E. C & D

Which of the following best describes Marasmus in children? A. Enlarged Fatty Liver B. Hypoalbuminemia C. Unpreserved Subcutaneous Fat D. A & B E. B & C

C. Unpreserved Subcutaneous Fat

Which of the following is also called as the DNA dependent RNA Synthesis? A. Transcription B. Translation C. Replication D. Translocation E. NOTA

A. Transcription

The following enzyme/s is/are utilized during the initiation stage of DNA Replication, except: A. DNA Polymerase B. Helicase C. DNA Gyrase D. A & B only E. B & C only

A. DNA Polymerase

Where does DNA translation occur inside the cell? A. Mitochondria B. Cytosol C. Nucleus D. Phospholipid Bilayer E. NOTA

B. Cytosol