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Review > DIAGNOSTIC EXAM: MODULE 2 > Flashcards

DIAGNOSTIC EXAM: MODULE 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

Terpenoids are a range of compounds based on isoprene units. Molecular formula of isoprene is:

a. CH3-CH(CH3)-CH2-CH3
b. CH2=C(CH3)-CH=CH-CH3
c. CH2=CH-CH=CH2
d. CH2=C(CH3)-CH=CH2

A

d. CH2=C(CH3)-CH=CH2

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2
Q

Scientific Name of Tawa Tawa

a. Cassia nodosus
b. Antidesma bunius
c. Euphorbia milii
d. Chamaesyce hirta

A

c. Euphorbia milii

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2
Q

Scientific Name of Bignay

a. Cassia nodosus
b. Antidesma bunius
c. Euphorbia milii
d. Chamaesyce hirta

A

b. Antidesma bunius

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2
Q

From 1954 to 1962, the live attenuated forms of this vaccine were prepared in primary cultures of Rhesus Monkey kidney cells.

a. Polio
b. Influenza
c. Rabies
d. Hepatitis A

A

a. Polio

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3
Q

Deficiency of this vitamin causes Pellagra, marked by dementia, diarrhea, and dermatitis, also known as “the three Ds”.

a. Thiamine
b. Riboflavin
c. Niacin
d. Pathothenic acid
e. Folic Acid

A

c. Niacin

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3
Q

Which of the following is true about Cinchona:

a. Cinchona succirubra contains Yellow Bark while Cinchona calisaya contains Red Bark
b. Quinine is used as antimalarial.
c. Quinidine is previously used as antimalarial but currently used as Class IC Anti-arrhythmic
d. Cinchonidine is the parent alkaloid of Quinine. Cinchonine is the parent alkaloid of Quinidine..

A

b. Quinine is used as antimalarial.

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4
Q

The antihypertensive agent obtained from Rauwolfia serpentina contains what type of alkaloid?

A. Indole
B. Isoquinoline
C. Tropane
D. Pyridine-Piperidine

A

A. Indole

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5
Q

All alkaloids are solid except

a. Coniine
b. Arecoline
c. Nicotine
d. Sparteine
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

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6
Q

Odd Man Out

a. Lagerstroemia speciosa: Diabetes
b. Peperomia pellucida: Gout
c. Momordica charantia: Diabetes
d. Ehretia microphylla: Antiurolithiasis

A

d. Ehretia microphylla: Antiurolithiasis

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7
Q

Which of the following is incorrectly paired with its amino acid source?

A. Quinoline: Tyrosine
B. Tropane: Ornithine
C. Imidazole: Histidine
D. Indole: Tryptophan

A

A. Quinoline: Tyrosine

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8
Q

Has a role in fruit ripening

I. Auxin
II. Gibberellin
III. Cytokinin
IV. Abscisic Acid
V. Ethylene

A

V. Ethylene

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9
Q

Discovered by Japanese workers in connection with the “bakanae” disease of rice, in which affected plants become excessively tall and are unable to support themselves.

I. Auxin
II. Gibberellin
III. Cytokinin
IV. Abscisic Acid
V. Ethylene

A

II. Gibberellin

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10
Q

The pathologic product of sperm whales used as base notes for perfume.

A. Spermaceti
B. Ambergris
C. Musk
D. Civet

A

D. Civet

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10
Q

Promotes cell division and delays senescence

I. Auxin
II. Gibberellin
III. Cytokinin
IV. Abscisic Acid
V. Ethylene

A

III. Cytokinin

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11
Q

This refers to the pathway to form IPP and DMAPP from Acetyl-CoA as building blocks:

A. Shikimic Acid Pathway
B. Mevalonic Acid Pathway
C. MEP Pathway
D. Acetate-Malonate Pathway

A

B. Mevalonic Acid Pathway

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12
Q

Which of the following Volatile Oil/s is/are NOT obtained via Steam Distillation:

A. Peppermint
B. Clove Oil
C. Spearmint
D. Two of the choices above

A

B. Clove Oil

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13
Q

Which of the following statements is true:
A. The MEP pathway is present in most higher
eukaryotes and some bacteria
B. The MEV Pathway is present in plants, most bacteria, and some protozoa
C. The first step of the MEP Pathway converts the precursors pyruvate and glyceraldehyde-3 phosphate to Xylose-5-Phosphate
D. In the MEV Pathway, mevalonate is formed from 3-hydroxy-3-metylglutaryl CoA, which is derived from Acetyl CoA and acetoacetyl CoA

A

D. In the MEV Pathway, mevalonate is formed from 3-hydroxy-3-metylglutaryl CoA, which is derived from Acetyl CoA and acetoacetyl CoA

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14
Q

Which of the following statements is true:

A. True Alkaloids originate from amino acids and contain non-heterocyclic rings.
B. Protoalkaloids originate from non-amino acids and contain heterocyclic rings.
C. Protoalkaloids originate from amino acids and contain non-heterocyclic rings.
D. Pseudoalkaloids originate from amino acids and contain non-heterocyclic rings.
E. Pseudoalkaloids originate from non-amino acids and contain non-heterocyclic rings.

A

C. Protoalkaloids originate from amino acids and contain non-heterocyclic rings.

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15
Q

The following statements is/are true EXCEPT:

A. The belladonna alkaloids are most abundant in the plant after the fruits have ripened
B. The principal solanaceous alkaloids are hyoscyamine, atropine, and scopolamine
C. Atropine and scopolamine are competitive with acetylcholine at postganglionic synapse of the parasympathetic nervous system producing anti- spasmodic effect.
D. Scopolamine is also known as hyoscyamine, and atropine is also known as hyoscine.

A

D. Scopolamine is also known as hyoscyamine, and atropine is also known as hyoscine.

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15
Q

Methods of Extraction in which gentle heat is applied:

A. Infusion
B. Maceration
C. Percolation
D. Digestion
E. Decoction

A

D. Digestion

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15
Q

German Pharmacist who obtained an impure alkaloid from Atropa belladonna fam. Solanaceae

A. Robiquet
B. Serturner
C. Fluckinger
D. Brandes
E. Caventou

A

D. Brandes

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16
Q

Select the pairs that are incorrectly matched

A. Aldehyde - Citrus limon
B. Aldehyde – Cinnamomum cassia
C. Phenolic Ether – Eugenia caryopphyllus
D. Ketone – Cinnamomum camphora

A

C. Phenolic Ether – Eugenia caryopphyllus

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17
Q

Select the pairs that are correctly matched

A. Belladonna – spasmolytic agent
B. Coca – local anesthetic
C. Stramonium – spasmolytic agent
D. Atropa belladonna – antisialogogue
E. ALL of the ABOVE

A

E. ALL of the ABOVE

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18
Q

Which of the following nutraceutical matches its use:

A. Licorice – Antihypertensive
B. Echinaceae - Aphrodisiac
C. Licorice – Antidiabetic
D. Soybean Oil - Antihypertensive

A

C. Licorice – Antidiabetic

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19
Q

Which of the following is FALSE except:

A. Cinchona tests positive in Thalleioquin test manifested by blue fluorescence → green ppt
B. Theophylline tests positive in Tannic Acid test
manifested by black heavy ppt
C. Opium tests positive in Marquis test manifested by green solution
D. Strychnine tests positive in Mandelic Acid test
manifested by orange solution.

A

A. Cinchona tests positive in Thalleioquin test manifested by blue fluorescence → green ppt

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19
Q

identify the gums and mucilages described
and match with their appropriate classifications.

Gum used as chocolate substitute

I. Tree or shrub exudate
II. Seed Gum
III. Marine Gum
IV. Microbial Gum
V. Plant extractive

A

II. Seed Gum

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20
Q

identify the gums and mucilages described
and match with their appropriate classifications.

Most Fetid Gum

I. Tree or shrub exudate
II. Seed Gum
III. Marine Gum
IV. Microbial Gum
V. Plant extractive

A

I. Tree or shrub exudate

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21
Q

identify the gums and mucilages described
and match with their appropriate classifications.

Extract of the inner portion of the rind of citrus fruits and apple pomace

I. Tree or shrub exudate
II. Seed Gum
III. Marine Gum
IV. Microbial Gum
V. Plant extractive

A

V. Plant extractive

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22
Q

identify the gums and mucilages described
and match with their appropriate classifications.

Has pseudoplastic activity produced by Xanthomonas campestris through fermentation of simple sugars

I. Tree or shrub exudate
II. Seed Gum
III. Marine Gum
IV. Microbial Gum
V. Plant extractive

A

IV. Microbial Gum

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23
Q

identify the gums and mucilages described
and match with their appropriate classifications.

Principal component of cell walls of brown seaweed

I. Tree or shrub exudate
II. Seed Gum
III. Marine Gum
IV. Microbial Gum
V. Plant extractive

A

III. Marine Gum

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24
Q

identify the glycosides described and match with their appropriate classifications.

Anti-arrhythmic from Digitalis sp.

I. Cardiac Glycosides
II. Aldehyde
III. Lactone
IV. Phenol
V. Flavonols

A

I. Cardiac Glycosides

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25
Q

identify the glycosides described and match with their appropriate classifications.

Hepatoprotective from Sylbum marianum

I. Cardiac Glycosides
II. Aldehyde
III. Lactone
IV. Phenol
V. Flavonols

A

V. Flavonols

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25
Q

identify the glycosides described and match with their appropriate classifications.

Flavoring agent from Vanilla planifolia

I. Cardiac Glycosides
II. Aldehyde
III. Lactone
IV. Phenol
V. Flavonols

A

II. Aldehyde

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26
Q

identify the glycosides described and match with their appropriate classifications.

Astringent and diuretic from Arctostaphylos uva ursi

I. Cardiac Glycosides
II. Aldehyde
III. Lactone
IV. Phenol
V. Flavonols

A

IV. Phenol

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27
Q

identify the glycosides described and match with their appropriate classifications.

Photosensitizing agent for treatment of psoriasis and vitiligo

I. Cardiac Glycosides
II. Aldehyde
III. Lactone
IV. Phenol
V. Flavonols

A

III. Lactone

28
Q

match the compound specified with their
resin/resin combination classification:

Major Component of Compound Benzoin Tincture

I. Resin
II. Oleoresin
III. Oleo-Gum-Resin
IV. Balsams

A

IV. Balsams

28
Q

match the Fixed Oils with their identification test:

Sesame Seed

A. Halphen Bevan
B. Baudoin Test
C. Serger’s Test
D. Murexide Test

A

B. Baudoin Test

28
Q

match the Fixed Oils with their identification test:

Coconut Oil

A. Halphen Bevan
B. Baudoin Test
C. Serger’s Test
D. Murexide Test

A

C. Serger’s Test

28
Q

match the Fixed Oils with their identification test:

Cottonseed Oil

A. Halphen Bevan
B. Baudoin Test
C. Serger’s Test
D. Murexide Test

A

A. Halphen Bevan

29
Q

match the compound specified with their
resin/resin combination classification:

Mask bitter taste of Quinine through paralysis of tastebuds

I. Resin
II. Oleoresin
III. Oleo-Gum-Resin
IV. Balsams

A

I. Resin

30
Q

In patients with phenylketonuria, which non-essential amino acid becomes essential and must therefore be supplied in the diet

A. Tyrosine
B. Alanine
C. Proline
D. Phenylalanine

A

A. Tyrosine

30
Q

match the compound specified with their
resin/resin combination classification:

Used as stringent ingredient of Astring-o-sol and
embalming agent

I. Resin
II. Oleoresin
III. Oleo-Gum-Resin
IV. Balsams

A

III. Oleo-Gum-Resin

30
Q

match the compound specified with their
resin/resin combination classification:

Most Fetid Resin

I. Resin
II. Oleoresin
III. Oleo-Gum-Resin
IV. Balsams

A

III. Oleo-Gum-Resin

31
Q

Identify to which alkaloid classification Ipecac belongs.

A. Tropane
B. Isoquinoline
C. Quinoline
D. Pyridine-Piperidine

A

B. Isoquinoline

31
Q

Which of the following amino acids is purely ketogenic

A. Phenylalanine
B. Leucine
C. Threonine
D. Isoleucine

A

B. Leucine

32
Q

The Hopkins Cole reaction, also known as Glyoxylic Acid Reaction, is a chemical test used for the detection of which amino acid

A. Trp
B. His
C. Tyr
D. Arg

A

A. Trp

32
Q

What is the isoelectric point for a basic amino acid the following pKa values:

pKa1 = 1.82
pKa2 = 9.17
pKa3 = 6.0

A. 3.91
B. 5.50
C. 5.66
D. 7.59

A

D. 7.59

33
Q

The amino acid precursor of nitric oxide is

A. Glu
B. Asn
C. Arg
D. Ser

A

C. Arg

34
Q

Which of the following statements is true
A. In most cases, polypeptide chain subunits of quaternary structures are held together by covalent bonds
B. The tertiary structure of a water soluble protein has a surface formed of amino acids with hydrophobic side chains and an interior formed largely of amino acids with hydrophilic side chains
C. The primary structure is the local spatial arrangement of the main chain atoms in a selected segment of a polypeptide chain
D. The hydrophobic interactions between the interior residues are the driving force for the formation

A

D. The hydrophobic interactions between the interior residues are the driving force for the formation

34
Q

D-ribose and L-ribose are:

A. Enantiomers
B. Diastereomers
C. Anomers
D. Epimers

A

A. Enantiomers

35
Q

D-ribose and D-xylose are:

A. Enantiomers
B. Diastereomers
C. Anomers
D. Epimers

A

D. Epimers

36
Q

D-ribose and D-ribulose are:

A. Enantiomers
B. Functional Isomers
C. Anomers
D. Epimers

A

B. Functional Isomers

37
Q

Match the following classes of enzymes with
the corresponding challenges that they overcome using different catalytic strategies.

Promotes a reaction that is almost immeasurably slow at neutral pH in the absence of a catalyst

A. Chymotrypsin
B. Carbonic anhydrase
C. Restriction endonuclease
D. Myosin

A

A. Chymotrypsin

38
Q

Match the following classes of enzymes with
the corresponding challenges that they overcome using different catalytic strategies.

Achieves a high absolute rate of reaction, suitable for integration with other rapid physiological processes

A. Chymotrypsin
B. Carbonic anhydrase
C. Restriction endonuclease
D. Myosin

A

B. Carbonic anhydrase

39
Q

Match the following classes of enzymes with
the corresponding challenges that they overcome using different catalytic strategies.

Attains a very high level of specificity

A. Chymotrypsin
B. Carbonic anhydrase
C. Restriction endonuclease
D. Myosin

A

C. Restriction endonuclease

39
Q

Match the following classes of enzymes with
the corresponding challenges that they overcome using different catalytic strategies.

Utilizes the free energy associated with the hydrolysis of ATP to drive other processes

A. Chymotrypsin
B. Carbonic anhydrase
C. Restriction endonuclease
D. Myosin

A

D. Myosin

40
Q

Which structural form of DNA is a left-handed helix formed by stretches of alternating purines and pyrimidines

A. A-DNA
B. B-DNA
C. Y-DNA
D. Z-DNA

A

D. Z-DNA

40
Q

A mutation in the middle of an open reading frame that creates a stop codon is called:

A. Silent Mutation
B. Frameshift Mutation
C. Missense Mutation
D. Nonsense Mutation

A

D. Nonsense Mutation

41
Q

The following statements are TRUE except:

A. Fabry disease is caused by deficient Hexosaminidase A.
B. Gaucher Disease is the most common type of LSD
C. Metachromatic leukodystrophy is characterized by the accumulation of sulfatides in cells.
D. Niemann-Pick disease is caused by deficient
sphingomyelinase

A

A. Fabry disease is caused by deficient Hexosaminidase A.

42
Q

If a sample of DNA contains 30% of Thymine, what percentage of Cytosine is present in the sample?

A. 20%
B. 30%
C. 60%
D. 70%

A

A. 20%

43
Q

Most sensitive to Alkylation

A. Adenine
B. Guanine
C. Cytosine
D. Thymine
E. Uracil

A

B. Guanine

44
Q

Odd Man Out

A. Leading Strand
B. Lagging Strand
C. Okazaki Fragments
D. Telomeres

A

A. Leading Strand

45
Q

The sequence of an mRNA strand is as follows: 5’-AUGAACAG-3’
What is the sequence of the DNA coding strand?

A. 3’-TACTTGTC-5’
B. 5’-TACTTGTC-3’
C. 5’-ATGAACAG-3’
D. 3’-ATGAACAG-5’

A

C. 5’-ATGAACAG-3’

46
Q

Which of the following is NOT a phospholipid?

A. Lecithin
B. Sphingomyelin
C. Cardiolipin
D. Galactosylceramide

A

D. Galactosylceramide

46
Q

Which of the following statements are FALSE regarding post-transcriptional modification of RNA:

A. A 7-MG Cap is attached to the 5’-end of mRNA
B. A long poly-A tail is attached to the 3’-end of mRNA
C. The splicing of mRNA isied out by spliceosomes, which consist of small nuclear ribonucleoprotein particles
D. During splicing, introns are removed and exons are joined together
E. NOTA

A

E. NOTA

47
Q

Fats are:

A. Carboxylic acid with an aliphatic chain, which is either saturated or unsaturated.
B. Esters formed from glycerol and three fatty acid groups
C. Esters of long-chain fatty acids with high MW
monohydric alcohols.
D. Sterol biosynthesized by all animal cells and is an essential structural component of animal cell
membranes

A

B. Esters formed from glycerol and three fatty acid groups

48
Q

The major phospholipid by mass in the cell membrane is:

A. Phosphatidylcholine
B. Phosphatidylethanolamine
C. Diphosphatidyl glycerol
D. Phosphatidylinositol

A

A. Phosphatidylcholine

49
Q

The following statements are TRUE except:

A. Fatty Acids are amphipathic
B. The configuration of double bonds in most
unsaturated fatty acids is CIS.
C. Short chain length and unsaturation decrease the fluidity of Fatty Acids
D. Linolenic Acid is an essential ω-3 fatty acid

A

C. Short chain length and unsaturation decrease the fluidity of Fatty Acids

50
Q

This is also called the Embden-Mayerhoff Pathway

A. Citric Acid Cycle
B. Pentose Phosphate Pathway
C. Glycolysis
D. Lipolysis
E. Urea Cycle

A

C. Glycolysis

51
Q

Which one of the following metabolites is used by all cells for glycolysis, glycogen synthesis, and the hexose monophosphate shunt pathway?

A. Glucose-1-phosphate
B. Glucose-6-phosphate
C. UDP-Glucose
D. Fructose-6-phosphate
E. Phosphoenolpyruvate

A

B. Glucose-6-phosphate

52
Q

Match the glycogen storage disease with its
corresponding deficient enzyme

Skeletal Muscle Glycogen Phosphorylase

A. GSD 0
B. Andersen
C. McArdle
D. Pompe Disease
E. Forbes Disease

A

C. McArdle

52
Q

Match the glycogen storage disease with its
corresponding deficient enzyme

Alpha-1,6-Glucosidase

A. GSD 0
B. Andersen
C. McArdle
D. Pompe Disease
E. Forbes Disease

A

E. Forbes Disease

53
Q

Acid maltase

A. GSD 0
B. Von Gierke
C. Pompe Disease
D. Hers

A

C. Pompe Disease

54
Q

Which of the following processes occur in the cytoplasm

A. Ketogenesis
B. PPP
C. TCA
D. B-Oxidation

A

B. PPP

54
Q

match the enzyme with the reaction it catalyzes

Pyruvate→Acetyl CoA

A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
B. Pyruvate carboxylase
C. Lactate dehydrogenase
D. Pyruvate decarboxylase
E. NOTA

A

A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complexA. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex

55
Q

match the enzyme with the reaction it catalyzes

Pyruvate→Lactate

A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
B. Pyruvate carboxylase
C. Lactate dehydrogenase
D. Pyruvate decarboxylase
E. NOTA

A

Lactate dehydrogenase

55
Q

match the enzyme with the reaction it catalyzes

Pyruvate→Oxaloacetate

A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
B. Pyruvate carboxylase
C. Lactate dehydrogenase
D. Pyruvate decarboxylase
E. NOTA

A

Pyruvate carboxylase

56
Q

match the enzyme with the reaction it catalyzes

Pyruvate→Ethanol

A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
B. Pyruvate carboxylase
C. Lactate dehydrogenase
D. Pyruvate decarboxylase
E. NOTA

A

D. Pyruvate decarboxylase

57
Q

Which of the following are NOT true regarding the fatty acid Caprylic Acid

I. It is a 10C FA, considered a medium chain FA
II. Monocarboxylic Acid
III. Its hydrophobic character is conferred by the
carboxyl group
IV. It contains an even number of carbons

A. III only
B. II, III
C. I, III
D. III, IV

A

C. I, III

58
Q

Lecithin is an example of:

A. Phospholipid
B. Terpene
C. Glyceryl Ester
D. Sphingolipids

A

A. Phospholipid

59
Q

Bond that connects the sugar and the base

A. Phosphoanhydride
B. Phosphodiester
C. Phosphoester
D. N-glycosidic

A

D. N-glycosidic

60
Q

How many ATP will B-oxidation of Lignoceric Acid yield?

A. 134 ATP
B. 148 ATP
C. 162 ATP
D. 176 ATP

A

C. 162 ATP

61
Q

identify the missing substrates and enzymes of Kreb’s Cycle

Citrate → isocitrate

A. Citrate Isomerase
B. Aconitase
C. Citrate Mutase
D. Isocitrate synthase

A

B. Aconitase

62
Q

identify the missing substrates and enzymes of Kreb’s Cycle

isocitrate → a-ketoglutarate

A. Alpha-ketoglutarate synthase
B. Isocitrate hydrogenase
C. Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
D. Isocitrate dehydrogenase

A

D. Isocitrate dehydrogenase

63
Q

identify the missing substrates and enzymes of Kreb’s Cycle

fumarate → succinate

A. Succinase
B. Succinate Dehydrogenase
C. Fumarate Synthase
D. Fumarate Dehydrogenase

A

B. Succinate Dehydrogenase

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